TEST 5: ORAL SURGERY, ORAL DIAGNOSIS & ROENTGENOLOGY Flashcards by Jobelle Claire Cinco

A 43-year-old male presents with trismus and pain localized to the right preauricular region. On examination, he has limited range in jaw movements, and it is noted that he has a right posterior open bite. CT maxillofacial shows a calcified growth of his right condyle, which you suspect to be an osteochondroma. You plan to resect the right condyle and condylar neck. What muscle would be required to be stripped, according to your plan, to remove the condylar segment successfully?

A. Temporalis
B. Masseter
C. Lateral pterygoid
D. Medial pterygoid

C. Lateral pterygoid

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You are a member of the craniofacial team at the local hospital. As the team dentist, you are approached by the mother of an 8-day-old baby girl. She is curious about the timing of cleft palate repair. What is the appropriate timing of treatment?

A. Rule of tens. When the patient is at least10 lbs, has10mg/dL of hemoglobin,and is at least 10 weeks of age
B. The palate repair is usually performed between 9 and 18 months of age
C. As soon as possible. Usually between the first week of life and 6 months
D. It only has to be repaired if the baby develops problems with speech

B. The palate repair is usually performed between 9 and 18 months of age

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A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department after an incident with his girlfriend. He was stabbed in the face with a box cutter, and upon your arrival, his vitals are stable and the bleeding is controlled with direct pressure. You assess the patient and note that portions of the parotid gland are herniating out of the wound. Your examination would include which of the following?

I. Facial nerve function
II. Mandibular nerve function
III. Maxillary nerve function
IV. Vitality of his teeth
V. Patency of Stensen’s duct
VI. Patency of Wharton’s duct
VII. Patency of nasolacrimal gland

A. I, II, IV
B. VI, VII
C. I, II, III, IV, V, VI
D. I, V
E. III, VII

D. I, V

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Epileptic patient having tough gingival.

A. ANUG
B. Hyperplastic gingivitis.
C. Gingivofibromatosis.
D. dilantin hyperplasia.
E. Puberty gingivitis.

D. dilantin hyperplasia.

Drugs that Can Cause Puffy gums
Dilantin
Cyclosporine
Calcium channel blockers
Phenytoin

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The following are those properties deemed most desirable for a local anesthetic, except _____.

A. It should not be irritating to the tissue to which it is applied
B. It should cause a permanent alteration of nerve structure
C. Its systemic toxicity should be low
D. It must be effective regardless of whether it is injected into the tissue or applied locally to mucous membranes

B. It should cause a permanent alteration of nerve structure❌

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You have placed a dental implant for replacement of tooth #9. Preoperatively you obtained a panoramic and a periapical film. During the surgery, you used a crestal incision, series of drills, and paralleling pins as necessary. Upon restoration of the crown, obtaining ideal esthetics is difficult because the implant is placed too close to the labial cortex, causing the restoration to appear overcontoured. Which of the techniques below could most adequately have prevented this problem?

A. Using an anterior surgical template
B. Obtaining preoperative tomograms of the alveolus
C. Using a tissue punch technique
D. Using a smaller size of implant

A. Using an anterior surgical template

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The third molar impaction most difficult to remove is the

A. Vertical
B. Mesioangular
C. Distoangular
D. Horizontal

C. Distoangular

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On a panoramic radiograph of a 13-year-old patient, there is evidence of crown formation of the third molars but no root formation yet. These teeth fall into the category of impacted teeth.

A. True
B. False

B. False

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Which of the following is not appropriate treatment for an odontogenic abscess?

A. Placing the patient on antibiotics and having them return when the swelling resolves
B. Surgical removal of the source of the infection as early as possible
C. Drainage of the abscess with placement of surgical drains
D. Close observance of the patient during resolution of the infection
E. Medical management of the patient to correct any compromised states that might exist

A. Placing the patient on antibiotics and having them return when the swelling resolves

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Before the exploration of any intrabony pathologic lesion, which type of biopsy must always be done?

A. Cytologic smear
B. Incisional biopsy
C. Excisional biopsy
D. Aspiration biopsy

D. Aspiration biopsy

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You are performing a 5-year follow-up on a 43-year old implant patient. When comparing radiographs, you estimate that there has been almost 0.1 mm of lost bone height around the implant since it was placed. Which of the following is indicated?

A. Removal of the implant and replacement with a larger-size implant.
B. Removal of the implant to allow healing before another one can be placed 4 months later.
C. Remaking the prosthetic crown because of tangential forces on the implant.
D. The implant is doing well; this amount of bone loss is considered acceptable.

D. The implant is doing well; this amount of bone loss is considered acceptable.

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The major mechanisms for the destruction of osseointegration of implants are _____.

A. Related to surgical technique
B. Similar to those of natural teeth
C. Related to implant material
D. Related to nutrition

B. Similar to those of natural teeth

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The techniques that show the upper and lower crowns on the same radiograph is called the:

A. bisecting angle technique
B. paralleling technique
C. bite wing technique
D. occlusal technique
E. none

C. bite wing technique

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The Nikolsky sign (loss of epithelium occasioned by rubbing apparently unaffected skin) is see in

A. varicella
B. pemphigus
C. erythema multiforme
D. herpes simplex

B. pemphigus

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Which positioning error would most likely cause a reverse occlusal plane curve on a Panorex?

A. Chin tilted too far upward
B. Chin tilted too far downward
C. Head turned slightly laterally

A. Chin tilted too far upward

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A phenomenon caused by a relatively lower xray absorption on the mesial or distal of a tooth between the edge of the enamel and the adjacent crest of the alveolar ridge is called

A. Apical burnout
B. Cervical burnout
C. Coronal burnout
D. Root burnout

B. Cervical burnout

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Removing parts of the x-ray spectrum by using
absorbing materials in the x-ray beam is called:

A. Elimination
B. Filtration
C. Collimation
D. Reduction

B. Filtration

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A palatal lesion in denture wearers that appears as multiple inflamed small projections in the vault area is called

A. papillary hyperplasia
B. epulis fissuratum
C. papilloma
D. hyperkeratosis

A. papillary hyperplasia

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Which of the following is NOT a differential diagnosis for squamous papilloma?

A. Nicotinic stomatitis
B. Cowdens syndrome
C. Sjogrens syndrome
D. Darries disease

C. Sjogrens syndrome

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You have taken a periapical radiograph and the resulting film is very pale. The following are causes of this to happen, EXCEPT

A. The film is underexposed
B. The film is overexposed
C. The developer was contaminated
D. Too much fixing time

B. The film is overexposed

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In order to limit the dose for periapical radiograph, one must use

A. lead apron
B. optimal voltage of 70kv
C. low speed film
D. bisecting angle technique

A. lead apron

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Without distortion or magnification. To produce an image as close to this, which of the following principles must NOT be applied?

A. the distance between the tube and object should be as little as possible
B. the beam should be as near to perpendicular to the tooth as possible
C. the distance between the tube and film should be as little as possible
D. the film should lie as near to parallel the tooth as possible

A. the distance between the tube and object should be as little as possible
C. the distance between the tube and film should be as little as possible

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As digital radiography has becoming more prevalent for use in the dental settings, the common digital detectors used have changed. What is the most common digital detector used currently in dental digital radiography?

A. Charged-couple device (CCD)
B. Intensifying screen phosphors (ISP)
C. Photostimulable phosphor (PSP)

A. Charged-couple device (CCD)

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A general dentist has been practicing dentistry for 36 years and is currently in the midst of remodeling his office. He would like to switch to digital radiography. The following are advantages of digital radiology technique in comparison to traditional techniques except for:

A. Radiation dose reduction up to 60%
B. Low cost of sensors
C. Increased image resolution and contrast as compared to D speed film
D. Delayed display of images
E. Increased ability to detect proximal carries in noncavitated teeth

B. Low cost of sensors

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What are the components of a dental x-ray tube? A. Glass envelope B. Cathode C. Anode D. Tungsten target E. All of the above

E. All of the above

A first-year dental student helping out in the clinic for the first time repeatedly obtains x-rays of tooth #14 with a zigzagged pattern. What could have prevented the zigzagged pattern on the radiographic image? A. Placing the film in correctly with the lead portion facing the cone B. Telling the patient not to move during the exposure C. Bending the film less when placing in position D. Using the film only once instead of exposing it multiple times E. Decreasing the kilovoltage

A. Placing the film in correctly with the lead portion facing the cone

A periapical film of tooth #9 was obtained in preparation for a root canal and an initial measurement or length of the canal was performed. After initial debridement of the canal was performed, another x-ray was captured with the initial root length measured and it appears that the file is approximately 4 mm from the apex. How could we have obtained a more accurate initial length measurement? A. Increasing the vertical angulation of the cone in relation to the film B. Decreasing the vertical angulation of the cone in relation to the film C. Decreasing the horizontal angulation of the cone in relation to the film D. Increasing the horizontal angulation of the cone in relation to the film

B. Decreasing the vertical angulation of the cone in relation to the film

A 17-year-old male was referred to an oral surgeonforextractionofanimpactedtooth#11that islocatedinareaapicaltoteeth#10–#12, which was found on routine x-rays. How would the oral surgeon decide as to where the impacted tooth lay in respect to being either buccal or palatal to teeth #10 and #12? A. Application of the SLOB rule B. Use of panoramic radiograph C. Towne’s view x-ray D. Water’s view x-ray E. Lateral head radiograph

A. Application of the SLOB rule

What is the main ingredient of the developing solution that serves to convert the exposed silver salts on the emulsion film into silver metallic ions? A. Sodium carbonate B. Potassium bromide C. Sodium sulfite D. Hydroquinone E. Acetic acid

D. Hydroquinone

In trying to reduce the amount of low-quality, long- wavelength x-rays from exiting the cone, what is commonly added to the cone for added filtration? A. Aluminum disks B. Tin disks C. Thicker glass D. Different color plastics

A. Aluminum disks

What are the components of a developing solution? A. Clearing agent, antioxidant preservative, acidifier, hardener B. Developing agent, acidifier, antioxidant preservative, hardener C. Developing agent, accelerator, restrainer D. Clearing agent restrainer, accelerator, acidifier

C. Developing agent, accelerator, restrainer

A 55-year-old female with a history of laryngeal cancer who underwent a prolong course of radiation and chemotherapy presents with pain to her left mandible for 3 weeks. Patient has also noticed a white material appearing through her mucosa. One examination, exposed alveolar bone is noted in teeth #19–#21 area and no erythema or purulence noted in the area. Teeth #19–#21 are without decay. What is likely the first choice in treatment? A. Antibiotics B. Daily sodium peroxide rinses C. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy D. Extraction of teeth #19–#21 E. Resection of left mandible with reconstruction F. Saline rinses

F. Saline rinses

The extraction of which of the following is most difficult in maxillary arch? A. First premolar C. Lateral incisor B. Canine D. Second premolar

A. First premolar

Restoring bone bulk by placing bone grafts to enlarge denture bearing areas for denture retention is referred to as A. Vestibuloplasty B. Alveoloplasty C. Sulcoplasty D. Ridge augmentation

D. Ridge augmentation

Which is the BEST treatment for pericoronitis involving an impacted mandibular third molar? A. Extraction of the involved third molar B. Antibiotic and analgesic therapy C. Operculectomy D. Gentle application of the heat and cold simultaneously

A. Extraction of the involved third molar

Which of the following is NOT a relative contraindication for routine elective oral surgery? A. Hemophilia B. Unstable cardiac angina C. Chronic sinusitis D. History of head and neck radiation

C. Chronic sinusitis

What healing response is characterized by restitution of new tissue that is structurally and functionally indistinguishable from old tissue? A. Refraction B. Regeneration C. Regrowth D. Repair

B. Regeneration

From the list of classifications of impacted teeth below, which one(s) must always involve both bone removal and sectioning during the surgical procedure? A. Mesioangular impaction B. Horizontal impaction C. Vertical impaction D. A and B only E. A, B, and C

B. Horizontal impaction

In an attempted venipuncture, each of the following indicates accidental intra-arterial injection except one. Which one is this exception? A. The needle moves with pulsation action B. A vessel tends to collapse and obstruct C. Aspirated blood is bright red in color D. Injection of a small test dose of the agent is acutely painful E. Penetration of a vessel meets resistance and is painful

B. A vessel tends to collapse and obstruct

Which of the following does not represent a possible finding of severe infection? A. Trismus B. Drooling C. Difficult or painful swallowing D. Swelling and induration with elevation of the tongue E. A temperature of 99˚F

E. A temperature of 99˚F

Which of the following is not a vital part of the physical exam for patients with TMJ complaints? A. Soft-tissue symmetry B. Joint tenderness and sounds C. Soft-palate length D. Range of motion of the mandible E. Teeth

C. Soft-palate length

Which of the following is considered the highest and most severe classification of maxillary fracture? A. LeFort I B. LeFort II C. LeFort III D. LeFort IV

C. LeFort III

Which of the following is not a relative contraindication for routine, elective oral surgery? A. Unstable cardiac angina B. History of head and neck radiation C. Chronic sinusitis D. Hemophilia

C. Chronic sinusitis

Which of the following is true regarding temporomandibular disorders? A. The primary treatment for the majority of patients with facial pain is TMJ surgery. B. Disc displacement without reduction can cause a decrease in interincisal opening. C. Myofascial pain is commonly related to parafunctional habits, but not commonly related to stress. D. Systemic arthritic conditions do not affect the TMJ because it is not a weight-bearing joint.

B. Disc displacement without reduction can cause a decrease in interincisal opening.

Which of the following does not represent a fascial space for the spread of infection? A. Superficial temporal space B. Pterygomandibular space C. Masseteric space D. Rhinosoteric space E. Submental space

D. Rhinosoteric space

B. Horizontal impaction

E. A temperature of 99˚F

You are performing a 5-year follow-up on a 43-year old implant patient. When comparing radiographs you estimate that there has been almost 0.1 mm loss of bone height around the implant since it was placed. Which of the following is indicated? A. Removal of the implant and replacement with a larger size implant. B. Removal of the implant to allow healing before another one can be placed 4 months later. C. Remaking the prosthetic crown because of tangential forces on the implant. D. The implant is doing well; this amount of bone loss is considered acceptable.

D. The implant is doing well; this amount of bone loss is considered acceptable.

Upon evaluation of an immediate postoperative panoramic film of a dental implant replacing tooth #30, you measure a distance of 1.5 mm from the apex of the implant to the inferior alveolar nerve canal. This is a titanium implant in an otherwise healthy patient. Which of the following actions is indicated? A. You may proceed with immediate loading of the implant. B. You should continue but only perform a two stage procedure. C. Back the implant out approximately 0.5 mm to ensure a safe distance from the nerve. D. Remove the implant and plan a repeat surgery after 4 months of healing.

C. Back the implant out approximately 0.5 mm to ensure a safe distance from the nerve.

A 21-year-old man is referred to your oral and maxillofacial surgery practice for an orthognathic surgery consult. After your routine exam and review of radiographs, you note the following problem list: Class III skeletal facial deformity with a negative overjet of 6 mm and significant maxillary crowding; missing left mandibular first molar due to dental decay with multiple other early carious lesions; and calculus on the lingual surfaces of teeth #22 through #27 with gingival inflammation. Which of the following is the most appropriate order in which this patient’s oral health needs should be sequenced? A. Definitive crown and bridge therapy, orthodontics to relieve crowding and to coordinate arches, caries management, surgery to correct the skeletal discrepancy, and periodontal therapy to control gingival inflammation. B. Caries management, orthodontics to relieve crowding and to coordinate arches, definitive crown and bridge therapy, periodontal therapy to control gingival inflammation, and surgery to correct the skeletal discrepancy. C. Periodontal therapy to control gingival inflammation, definitive crown and bridge therapy, orthodontics to relieve crowding and to coordinate arches, surgery to correct the skeletal discrepancy, and caries management. D. Periodontal therapy to control gingival inflammation, caries management, orthodontics to relieve crowding and to coordinate arches, surgery to correct the skeletal discrepancy, and definitive crown and bridge therapy.

D. Periodontal therapy to control gingival inflammation, caries management, orthodontics to relieve crowding and to coordinate arches, surgery to correct the skeletal discrepancy, and definitive crown and bridge therapy.

Systemic effects of obstructive sleep apnea syndrome (OSAS) include all of the following except _____. A. Hypertension B. Cor pulmonale C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac arrhythmia

C. Aortic aneurysm

C. Soft-palate length

Which of the following is considered the highest and most severe classification of maxillary fracture? A. LeFort I B. LeFort II C. LeFort III D. LeFort IV

C. LeFort III

B. Disc displacement without reduction can cause a decrease in interincisal opening.

What is the minimal safe distance for implant placement from the mental foramen? A. 2 mm B. 0.5 mm C. 2 cm D. 1 mm E. 3 mm

A. 2 mm

Grayish yellow pseudomembrane with punched out interdental papilla. A. anug. B. Hyperplastic gingivitis. C. Gingivofibromatosis. D. Dilantin hypeplasia. E. Pubertal gingivitis.

A. anug.

You are observing an orthognathic surgery in the operating room, when the healthy patient, who is under general anesthesia, begins to develop hypercarbia, rigidity, elevated temperature, and tachycardia. The anesthetist has his hands full and asks you to get the medication that is used to treat this condition. A. This condition is benzodiazepine overdose and should be treated with flumenazil B. This condition is an opioid overdose and should be treated with naloxone C. This condition is neuroleptic malignant syndrome and should be treated with dantrolene D. This condition is malignant hyperthermia and should be treated with dantrolene

D. This condition is malignant hyperthermia and should be treated with dantrolene

A compound fracture is characterized by. A. Many small fragments. B. An incomplete break in the bone. C. communication with oral cavity. D. A “start” shaped appearance. E. Bleeding into the masticator space.

C. communication with oral cavity

The surgical procedure most frequently performed to correct a skeletal mandibular retrognathia is bilateral. A. Body ostectomy. B. “C” type osteotomy of the ramus. C. sagittal split osteotomy of the ramus. D. Horizontal osteotomy of the ramus.

C. sagittal split osteotomy of the ramus.

When the uvula curtain does not rise symmetrically when the patient says “ah”, it suggests which one of the following cranial nerves maybe damaged? A. Glossopharyngeal nerve. B. Hypoglossal nerve. C. Superior alveolar branch of the trigeminal nerve. D. Vagus nerve. E. None

D. Vagus nerve.

A 54-year-old male presents with a 4-day history of tooth pain and swelling of his right mandible. Trismus of 10 mm, odynophagia, and dysphagia findings are noted. PMH: HTN, DM II Meds: HCTZ All: Pen VK. What is the necessary treatment for this patient? A. Incision and drainage B. Antibiotic therapy with pen VK C. Antibiotic therapy with clindamycin D. Incision and drainage followed by IV antibiotics

D. Incision and drainage followed by IV antibiotics

A patient presents continuous, spontaneous pain associated with the maxillary right central incisor. The tooth has a large class V composite restoration. Cold testing procedures lingering pain. There is no sensitivity to percussion or palpitation. The most like diagnosis is: A. Necrotic pulp, chronic apical periodontitis. B. Reversible pulpitis, normal periapex. C. Irreversible pulpitis, normal periapex. D. Irreversible pulpitis, acute apical periodontitis.

C. Irreversible pulpitis, normal periapex.

Bell’s palsy is caused by injury to what cranial nerve? A. CN V B. CN VII C. CN XII D. CN XI

B. CN VII

Timing of surgical repair of clefts for babies follow “rule of 10” which means the following, except: A. 10 months old B. 10 grams of hemoglobin. C. 10 lbs in body weight D. 10 weeks old E. None of them.

A. 10 months old ❌

A paroxysmal and intermittent pain usually confined to specific nerve branches and is most commonly present in the maxillofacial region: A. Neuritis. B. neuralgia C. Paralysis. D. None of these.

B. neuralgia

A wound resulting from tear: A. Confusion B. Abrasion. C. laceration D. Penetrating wound E. Gunshot, missile and war wounds.

C. laceration

A 33-year old female patient states that her mandibular first molar has been hurting since the recent placement of an amalgam restoration. She describes the pain as mild-to-moderate, which is not spontaneous, but is provoked by cold, heat and sweets. These symptoms most likely correspond with: A. Pulp necrosis B. Internal resorption C. reversible pulpitis. D. Irreversible pulpitis E. None of these.

C. reversible pulpitis.

High-flow 100% O2 is indicated for treating each of the following types of syncope, except: A. Vasovagal B. Neyrogenic C. Orthostatic D. hyperventilation syndrome

D. hyperventilation syndrome

Neuralgia that effects the 7th cranial nerve resulting to pain of the external auditory canal, auricles and soft palate: A. Tic doloureux B. Atypical facial neuralgia C. ramsay hunt syndrome D. Post herpertic neuralgia E. Vasoglossopharyngeal neuralgia

C. ramsay hunt syndrome

The application of microsurgical technique procedure in the treatment of maxillofacial nerve injuries are : A. Brain and peripheral nerve B. Nerve grafting and anastomoses C. Nerve decompression D. Both A&C E. Both B&C

E. Both B&C

Which of the following suture materials is classified as nonresorbable? A. Vicryl B. Chromic gut C. Plain gut D. Nylon

D. Nylon

What is the minimal safe distance for implant placement from the mental foramen? A. 2 mm B. 0.5 mm C. 2 cm D. 1 mm E. 3 mm

A. 2 mm

What are the most common teeth that may cause referred pain to the ear? A. Maxillary central incisors B. Mandibular central incisors C. Mandibular molars D. Maxillary premolars E. Maxillary molars

C. Mandibular molars

Which of the following is the most commonly used surgical procedure to correct maxillary retrognathia? A. C-osteotomy B. Inverted L osteotomy C. LeFort1 Osteotomy. D. Anterior maxillary osteotomy

C. LeFort1 Osteotomy.

Which of the following describes osseointegrated implants? A. They have a direct structural and functional connection with bone only at the radiographic level detection. B. They are anchored directly to living bone as determined by radiographical and light microscopic analysis. C. They form a junctional epithelium with the surrounding tissue D. They form a pseudo-periodontal ligament.

B. They are anchored directly to living bone as determined by radiographical and light microscopic analysis.

A patient who is on dicumarol therapy requires a tooth extraction. Which laboratory test is the most valuable in evaluating this patient’s surgical risk? A. Clotting time. B. Prothrombin time. C. Bleeding time D. Sedimentation rate E. Complete blood cell count.

B. Prothrombin time.

All of the following belong to the lector-magnetic radiation, except: A. Gamma ray B. X-ray C. beta ray D. Ultraviolet ray E. None

C. beta ray

In object localization, if the tube is shifted mesially, and the object in question appears to move distally, then the object. A. Buccal. B. Lingual C. Mesial D. Distal E. None of these

A. Buccal

Methods of object localization: A. 2 films at right angle. B. Tube shift technique C. Clark’s techniques D. Buccal object rule E. All of these

E. All of these

Methods to reduce magnification i. Use of small focal spot. ii. Increase focal spot to film distance iii. Increase focal spot to film distance Iv. Decrease object to film distance V. Increase object to film distance. A. 1&2 B. 2&3 C. 3&4 D. 4&5 E. None.

C. 3&4

All of the following are advantages of a panoramic radiograph except: A. It shows areas that may not be visible on a bitewing or periapical B. It shows both arches on the same film C. It gives better detail and definition than PAs D. It is more comfortable for the patient because it eliminates the gagging reflex E. It requires less time than a full mouth-series

C. It gives better detail and definition than PAs

A phenomenon caused by a relatively lower xray absorption on the mesial or distal of a tooth between he edgeof the enamel and the adjacent crest of the alveolar ridge is called A. Apical burnout B. Cervical burnout C. Coronal burnout D. Root burnout

B. Cervical burnout

Radiography shows treatment needed for large residual cyst to prevent Jaw fracture: A. Enucleation B. Caldwell luc C. marsupialization D. Incision and drainage.

C. marsupialization

The component of developer that gives detail to the radiographic image is. A. hydroquinone B. Sodium carbonate C. Potassium bromide D. None of these E. Sodium sulfite.

A. hydroquinone

It is also known as decompression, partsch operation: A. enucleation B. enucleation after marsupialization C. marsupialization D. enucleation with curettage E. none of these.

C. marsupialization

Which intra-oral radiographs are the most useful in detecting interproximal caries? A. Periapical x-rays B. Bitewing x-rays C. Occlusal x-rays

B. Bitewing x-rays

Foreshorting where the teeth appear too short is caused by: A. Too much vertical angulation B. Too little vertical angulation C. Incorrect horizontal angulation D. Beam not aimed at the center of the film

A. Too much vertical angulation

A 65-year old man has an ulcerated, 3cm lesion on the lateral border of the tongue. The recommended procedure for making a diagnosis is to: A. excise the entire lesion B. perform an incisional biopsy C. take a cytologic smear of the ulcerated area D. none of the above.

B. perform an incisional biopsy

The beak of an extraction forceps is designed so that most of the extraction pressure is transmitted to the A. Root of the tooth B. Crown of the tooth C. Cemento-enamel junction D. Dentino-enamel junction E. Alveolar bone

A. Root of the tooth

All of the following are weak points in the mandible where fractures are most common except the: A. angle B. condylar neck C. coronoid process D. symphysis E. none

C. coronoid process

It is a sequential, comprehensive method of eliciting patient symptoms on an organ system: A. Medical history B. Family history C. Review of systems D. Case history E. History of present illness

C. Review of systems

A type of implant that are surgically inserted into the jaw bone: A. transosseous B. subperiosteal C. endosseous D. osteointegration

C. endosseous

A wound resulting from tear. A. contusion B. abrasion C. laceration D. penetrating wound E. gun shot, missile and war wounds.

C. laceration

In a patient of liver disease the possible complication during extraction is A. bleeding B. fascial space infection C. loss of clot D. dry socket

A. bleeding

In a patient who is on long term steroid therapy, what precaution is to be taken prior to tooth extraction? A. Additional steroids to be given B. Continue steroids as it is C. More antibiotic cover D. Stop steroids before extraction

A. Additional steroids to be given

Displacement of a root into the maxillary sinus during extraction is most likely to happen during the extraction of the maxillary A. deciduous first molar B. first molar C. canine D. canine

B. first molar

The normal serum concentration of glucose is A. 130-150 mg/dl B. 20-40mg/dl C. 80-120 mg/dl D. 50-70 mg/dl

C. 80-120 mg/dl

If your film-based radiographs start coming out too light, it may be that the A. Fixer needs changing B. Exposure time is too long C. Developer is too hot D. Developer needs changing

D. Developer needs changing

Mass or dough-like produced by the sebaceous glands found on the floor of the mouth is: A. Ranula B. dermoid cysts. C. Ludwig’s angina. D. Sialothiasis. E. None of these.

B. dermoid cysts.

It is also known as decompression, partsch operation: A. enucleation B. enucleation after marsupialization C. marsupialization D. enucleation with curettage E. none of these.

C. marsupialization

Disease characterized by iris lesion / target lesions A. Addison’s Disease B. Steven-Johnsons Syndrome C. Nevus D. Erythema multiforme

D. Erythema multiforme

E. Both B&C

Mass or dough-like produced by the sebaceous glands found on the floor of the mouth is: A. Ranula B. dermoid cysts. C. Ludwig’s angina. D. Sialothiasis. E. None of these.

B. dermoid cysts

Which of the following suture materials is classified as nonresorbable? A. Vicryl B. Chromic gut C. Plain gut D. Nylon

D. Nylon

What is the minimal safe distance for implant placement from the mental foramen? A. 2 mm B. 0.5 mm C. 2 cm D. 1 mm E. 3 mm

A. 2 mm

D. This condition is malignant hyperthermia and should be treated with dantrolene

Epileptic patient having tough gingiva A. ANUG B. Hyperplastic gingivitis. C. Gingivofibromatosis. D. dilantin hyperplasia. E. Puberty gingivitis.

D. dilantin hyperplasia.

C. communication with oral cavity.

Bell’s palsy is caused by injury to what cranial nerve? A. CN V B. CN VII C. CN XII D. CN XI

B. CN VII

A 54-year-old male presents with a 4-day history oftooth pain and swelling of his right mandible. Trismus of 10 mm, odynophagia, and dysphagia findings are noted. PMH: HTN, DM II Meds: HCTZ All: Pen VK. What is the necessary treatment for this patient? A. Incision and drainage B. Antibiotic therapy with pen VK C. Antibiotic therapy with clindamycin D. Incision and drainage followed by IV antibiotics

D. Incision and drainage followed by IV antibiotics

Soap bubble radiolucency of the mandible: A. ameloblastoma B. fibrous dysplasia C. compound odontoma D. dentigerous cyst

A. ameloblastoma SOAP BUBBLE/ HONEY COMB APPEARANCE: C- Cherubism A- Ameloblastoma M- Myxoma A- Aneurysmal bone cyst

This space is usually infected by maxillary 3rd molars? A. pterygomandibular space B. buccal space C. infratemporal space D. masseteric spac

C. infratemporal space

What is the classification of a maxillary impacted tooth that is above the occlusal plane but is below the cervical line? A. Class A B. Class I C. Class C D. Class B

D. Class B

In proper suturing, the needle should be passed from: A. free side to the fixed side B. fixed to free side C. any choice of the surgeon D. all of the above

A. free side to the fixed side

Type of healing when loss of tissue occurs between the edges of an incision or laceration which prevents close approximation: A. primary intention B. secondary intention C. tertiary intention D. none of the above

B. secondary intention

Teeth with high degree of amberlike translucency and a variety of colors from yellow to blue gray and crowns readily wear: A. amelogenesis imperfecta B. dentin dysplasia C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta D. odontodysplasia E. none of these

C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta

For five days, a 25-year old man has had painful oral ulcerations. Several reddish macular lesions are present on his face and hands, most of which have a ring-like or bull’s eye appearance. He had “cold sores” two weeks earlier. Tentative diagnosis is: A. lichen planus B. putyriasis rosea C. aphthous ulcers D. verruca vulgaris E. erythema multiforme

E. erythema multiforme

A palatal lesion in denture wearers that appears as multiple inflamed small projections in the vault area is called A. Hyperkeratosis B. Papillary hyperplasia C. Papilloma D. Epulis fissuratum

B. Papillary hyperplasia

Extraction wounds heal by which method? A. Primary intention B. Secondary intention C. Tertiary intention D. None of the above

B. Secondary intention

Bremsstrahlung radiation results from _____. A. X-rays interacting with electrons B. Electrons interacting with electrons C. Electrons interacting with nuclei D. L shell electrons falling into the K shell E. Photons interacting with nucle

C. Electrons interacting with nuclei

X-rays are produced in most conventional dental x-ray machines _____. A. Continuously during operation B. When there is a large space charge C. Half the time during operation D. When the anode carries a negative charge E. Only when the beam is collimated

C. Half the time during operation

It is acceptable for the operator to hold the film in ampatient’s mouth _____. A. If the patient is a child B. If the patient or parent grants permission C. If the patient has a handicap D. If no film holder is available E. Never

E. Never

It is important that the film base be _____. A. Opaque B. Very rigid C. Flexible D. Completely clear E. Sensitive to x-ray

C. Flexible

Excessive vertical angulation causes _____. A. Overlapping B. Foreshortening C. Elongation D. Cone-cutting

B. Foreshortening

To obtain the most geometrically accurate image, which of the following is false? A. The film should be parallel to the object. B. The central ray should be parallel to the object. C. The central ray should be perpendicular to the film. D. The object-to-film distance should be short. E. The object-to-anode distance should be long.

B. The central ray should be parallel to the object.

The size of the x-ray tube focal spot influences radiographic _____. A. Density B. Contrast C. Resolution D. Magnification E. Both C and D

C. Resolution

The primary function of developer is to _____. A. Reduce crystals of silver halide to solid silver grains B. Reduce solid silver grains to specks of silver halide C. Remove unexposed silver halide crystals D. Remove exposed silver halide crystals

A. Reduce crystals of silver halide to solid silver grains

If an exposed radiograph is too dark after proper development, one should _____. A. Place it back in the fixer B. Place it back in the developer C. Decrease development time D. Increase milliamperage E. Decrease exposure time

E. Decrease exposure time

The radiolucent portions of the images on a processed dental x-ray film are made up of _____. A. Microscopic grains of silver halide B. Microscopic grains of metallic silver C. A gelatin on a cellulose acetate base D. Unexposed silver bromide

B. Microscopic grains of metallic silver

The purpose of the “penny test” is to check _____. A. Developer action B. Fixer action C. For proper development temperature D. For proper safelighting conditions

D. For proper safelighting conditions

Proper radiographic infection control includes all of the following except _____. A. Wearing gloves while making radiographs B. Disinfecting x-ray machine surface C. Covering working surfaces with barriers D. Sterilizing nondisposable instruments E. Sterilizing film packets

E. Sterilizing film packets

Occlusal radiographs are useful for all of the following except _____. A. For views of the TMJ B. For displaying large segments of the mandibular arch C. When the patient has limited opening D. When there are sialoliths in the floor of the mouth E. When there is buccal-lingual expansion of the mandible

A. For views of the TMJ

A. 10 months old

A paroxysmal and intermittent pain usually confined to specific nerve branches and is most commonly present in the maxillofacial region: A. Neuritis. B. neuralgia C. Paralysis. D. None of these.

B. neuralgia

A wound resulting from tear: A. Confusion B. Abrasion. C. Laceration D. Penetrating wound E. Gunshot, missile and war wounds.

C. Laceration

Characteristic of ankylosis upon diagnosis other than radiographic absence of periodontal ligament space A. Drum sound on percussion B. Metallic sound on percussion C. Bell sound on percussion D. Flat sound on percussion

B. Metallic sound on percussion NOTES: Drum sound on percussion— HALLOW Metallic sound/ High pitch sound on percussion—ANKYLOSIS Flat sound on percussion— FLUID FILLED

High-flow 100% O2 is indicated for treating each of the following types of syncope, except: A. Vasovagal B. Neyrogenic C. Orthostatic D. hyperventilation syndrome

D. hyperventilation syndrome

B. Prothrombin time.

A process characterized by the fusion of the surface of a dental implant to the surrounding bone to be used readily as an anchor for tooth: A. Transosseous. B. Subperiosteal C. Endosseous D. Osseointegration E. None of these.

D. Osseointegration

A type of implant that are surgically inserted into the jaw bone: A. Transosseous B. Subperiosteal C. Endosseous D. Osteointegration E. None of these

C. Endosseous

C. ramsay hunt syndrome

The unit that describes the amount of xray exposure in the air is the: A. Sievert B. rem C. Roentgen D. rad

C. Roentgen

What is the minimal alveolar concentration of nitrous oxide? A. 30 B. 50 C. 70 D. 105

D. 105

What is the width of a standard periapical film base? A. 0.1 mm B. 0.2 mm C. 0.3 mm D. 0.4 mm

B. 0.2 mm

What is the consequence of the central beam not centered on the film A. Cone cut B. Foreshortened C. Root tip cut D. Decreased vertical height of tooth

A. Cone cut

Under which type of implant is blade-type classified? A. Endosseous B. Transosseous C. Subperiosteal D. Osseointegration

A. Endosseous

Methods of object localization: A. 2 films at right angle. B. Tube shift technique C. Clark’s techniques D. Buccal object rule E. All of these

E. All of these

Dental elevators are used for which purpose? A. Engage tooth apical to CEJ B. Engage tooth coronal to CEJ C. Reflect the full thickness flap D. Detach the periodontal ligaments around the roots of the tooth

A. Engage tooth apical to CEJ

It is used for sectioning impacted third molar A. Tapering diamond fissure B. Tapering carbide fissure C. Round bur D. Pear shaped bur

B. Tapering carbide fissure

Which of the following refers to healing response indistinguishable to old tissue? A. Regeneration B. Repair C. Regrowth D. Refraction

A. Regeneration

A straight white border appears on the x-ray film. What is the most likely cause of this? A. Fixer cut-off B. Developer cut-off C. Overlapped films D. Static electric

B. Developer cut-off

After the bombings of Hiroshima, there were many patients who were in the radiation zone. Although they were exposed, symptoms such as hair loss didn't occur until days later. This period of time between radiation exposure and the onset of symptoms is called the: A. Latent period B. Period ofcell injury C. Recovery period D. Cumulative effects

A. Latent period

A patient has large SCC of lateral border of the tongue which is going to require radical neck dissection. Prophylactic extractions will be done in order to prevent which of the following? A. Osteoradionecrosis B. Bisphosphinate related Osteonecrosis of the jaw C. Rampant periodontal disease D. None of the above

A. Osteoradionecrosis

The number of electrons flowing per second is measured by: A. kvp B. mA C. Time (sec) D. All of the above

B. mA

_______ is used to restrict the size and shape of the x-ray beam and to reduce patient exposure? A. Discrimination B. Collimation C. Filtration D. Barrier placem

B. Collimation

White patch can be rubbed off and is found on the labial or buccal mucosa is: A. Pachyderma oris. B. Leukoplakia. C. Lichen planus. D. Ptyalism E. None of these.

C. Lichen planus. NOTES: Leukoedema- white patch that disappears when stretched Candidiasis- can be rubbed off

Bony exostosis found on the hard palate: A. Smoker’s patch. B. Stomatitis nicotina. C. Torus palatinus. D. None of these.

C. Torus palatinus.

Translucent bluish lesion at the ducts of submandibular and sublingual glands and is often caused by trauma is: A. Ranula B. Dermoid cysts. C. Ludwig’s angina. D. Sialolithiasis. E. None of these.

A. Ranula

Administration of aspirin should be avoided in patient taking anticoagulants because: A. It decreases anticoagulant effect. B. It over sedates the patient. C. It increases the anticoagulant effect. D. It causes gastritis. E. None

C. It increases the anticoagulant effect.

The cathode in the x-ray tube consists of a tungsten filament surrounded by a A. Silver focusing cup B. Titanium focusing cup C. Molybdenum focusing cup D. Vanadium focusing cup

C. Molybdenum focusing cup

What is the maximum torque that should not be exceeded when inserting the implant fixture? A. 25 Ncm B. 35 Ncm C. 45 Ncm D. 50 Ncm

B. 35 Ncm

The area from which x-rays emanate is called the: A. Target B. Focal spot C. Intensifying screen D. Cone

B. Focal spot

All of the following are weak points in the mandible where fractures are most common except the: A. angle B. condylar neck C. coronoid process D. symphysis E. none

C. coronoid process

It is a sequential, comprehensive method of eliciting patient symptoms on an organ system: A. Medical history B. Family history C. Review of systems D. Case history E. History of present illness

C. Review of systems

What is the initial force direction with forceps placed on a tooth for a successful extraction? A. Apical B. Buccal C. Palatal D. Occlusally

A. Apical

Dental elevators are used for which of the following purposes? A. To retract the gingival crest tissue B. To reflect a full mucoperiosteal flap C. To engage the tooth apical to the cementoenamel junction D. To engage the tooth coronal to the cementoenamel junction

C. To engage the tooth apical to the cementoenamel junction

Which of the following diseases would contraindicate the placement of dental implants in an elderly patient? A. None B. Dementia C. Hypertension D. Hypercholesterolemia E. Atrial fibrillation

B. Dementia

How much bone is recommended at a minimum on the facial and palatal surfaces of the implant to support the ideal orofacial implant position? A. 0.25 mm B. 0.5 mm C. 1.0 mm D. 2.0 mm

C. 1.0 mm

Salient radiographic finding showing perpendicular bone trabeculation radiating outwardly describe as “hair-on-end” effect and generalized osteoporosis. A. Aplastic anemia. B. sickle-cell anemia C. Polycythemia D. Pernicious anemia

B. sickle-cell anemia NOTES: HAIR ON END EFFECT: Sickle cell anemia Thalasemia

Which electron has the greatest binding energy to the nucleus? A. J-shell electron B. K-shell electron C. The meniscus D. Fracture of the neck of the conyle E. None

B. K-shell electron

If the mental foramen is superimposed over the apex of a root, it maybe mistaken as: A. Odontoma B. rarefaction due to infection C. Cementoma D. Supernumerary teeth.

B. rarefaction due to infection

A unilocular radiolucent lesion in the area of a missing tooth to where should have development is termed. A. Cementoma B. Fissural cyst C. Immature central fibroma D. primordial cyst

D. primordial cyst

All of the following belong to the lector-magnetic radiation, except: A. Gamma ray B. X-ray C. beta ray D. Ultraviolet ray. E. None

C. beta ray NOTES: ELECTROMAGNETIC SPECTRUM "Rich Man In Vegas Use Xpensive Gadget" (LONGEST TO SHORTEST WAVELENGTH) (LOWEST- HIGHEST ENERGY) 1. Radiowaves 2. Microwaves 3. Infrared rays 4. Visible light 5. Ultraviolet rays 6. Xrays 7. Gamma rays

In object localization, if the tube is shifted mesially, and the object in question appears to move distally, then the object. A. buccal. B. Lingual C. Mesial D. Distal E. None of these

A. buccal.

Systemic effects of obstructive sleep apnea syndrome (OSAS) include all of the following except _____. A. Hypertension B. Cor pulmonale C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac arrhythmia

C. Aortic aneurysm

C. Soft-palate length

Which of the following is considered the highest and most severe classification of maxillary fracture? A. LeFort I B. LeFort II C. LeFort III D. LeFort IV

C. LeFort III

Which of the following is not a relative contraindication for routine, elective oral surgery? A. Unstable cardiac angina B. History of head and neck radiation C. Chronic sinusitis D. Hemophilia

C. Chronic sinusitis

B. Disc displacement without reduction can cause a decrease in interincisal opening.

The following are those properties deemed most desirable for a local anesthetic, except _____. A. It should not be irritating to the tissue to which it is applied B. It should cause a permanent alteration of nerve structure C. Its systemic toxicity should be low D. It must be effective regardless of whether it is injected into the tissue or applied locally to mucous membranes

B. It should cause a permanent alteration of nerve structure

A. Using an anterior surgical template

The third molar impaction most difficult to remove is the _____. A. Vertical B. Mesioangular C. Distoangular D. Horizontal

C. Distoangular

On a panoramic radiograph of a 13-year-old patient, there is evidence of crown formation of the third molars but no root formation yet. These teeth fall into the category of impacted teeth. A. True B. False C. none of the above

B. False

Which of the following is not appropriate treatment for an odontogenic abscess? A. Placing the patient on antibiotics and having them return when the swelling resolves B. Surgical removal of the source of the infection as early as possible C. Drainage of the abscess with placement of surgical drains D. Close observance of the patient during resolution of the infection E. Medical management of the patient to correct any compromised states that might exist

A. Placing the patient on antibiotics and having them return when the swelling resolves

Before the exploration of any intrabony pathologic lesion, which type of biopsy must always be done? A. Cytologic smear B. Incisional biopsy C. Excisional biopsy D. Aspiration biopsy

D. Aspiration biopsy

You are performing a 5-year follow-up on a 43-year- old implant patient. When comparing radiographs, you estimate that there has been almost 0.1 mm of lost bone height around the implant since it was placed. Which of the following is indicated? A. Removal of the implant and replacement with a larger-size implant. B. Removal of the implant to allow healing before another one can be placed 4 months later. C. Remaking the prosthetic crown because of tangential forces on the implant. D. The implant is doing well; this amount of bone loss is considered acceptable.

D. The implant is doing well; this amount of bone loss is considered acceptable.

The major mechanisms for the destruction of osseointegration of implants are _____. A. Related to surgical technique B. Similar to those of natural teeth C. Related to implant material D. Related to nutrition

B. Similar to those of natural teeth

Systemic effects of obstructive sleep apnea syndrome (OSAS) include all of the following except _____. A. Hypertension B. Cor pulmonale C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac arrhythmi

C. Aortic aneurysm

C. Soft-palate length

B. Horizontal impaction

E. A temperature of 99˚ F

The area from which x-rays emanate is called the A. target B. focal spot C. intensifying screen D. cone

B. focal spot

Which of the following is considered radioresistant? A. Immature reproductive cells B. Young bone cells C. Mature bone cells D. Epithelial cells

C. Mature bone cells

kilovoltage controls the speed of: A. Photons B. Electrons C. Anodes D. Cathodes

B. Electrons

The primary function of fixer is to _____. A. Reduce crystals of silver halide to solid silver grains B. Reduce solid silver grains to specks of silver halide C. Remove unexposed silver halide crystals D. Remove exposed silver halide crystals

C. Remove unexposed silver halide crystals

Increasing Peak kilovoltage (kVp) causes the xray to have: A. Decreased density B. More latitude C. A shorter scale of contrast D. A longer scale of contrast

D. A longer scale of contrast

Ground glass radiopacity of the maxilla: A. Ameloblastoma B. Fibrous dysplasia C. Ossifying fibroma D. Osteomyelitis

B. Fibrous dysplasia

Cotton wool appearance on the radiograph: A. Paget’s disease B. Fibrous dysplasia C. Ossifying fibroma D. Osteomyelitis

A. Paget’s disease

Fordyce granules are: A. Epithelial inclusion cysts B. Found on the buccal and lingual aspects of the alveolus C. Ectopic sebaceous glands D. Remnants of the dental lamina

C. Ectopic sebaceous glands NOTES: EPSTEIN PEARLS- Epithelial inclusion cysts BOHN'S NODULES- Found in the buccal and lingual aspects of the alveolus DENTAL LAMINA- remnants of dental lamina

C. Lateral pterygoid

TEST 5: ORAL SURGERY, ORAL DIAGNOSIS & ROENTGENOLOGY Flashcards

(200 cards)