Test 5

Question 1

Refers to a person’s right to make choices

Answer 1

Autonomy

Question 2

The duty to keep promises or the virtue of loyalty

Answer 2

Fidelity

Question 3

The duty to the tell the truth

Answer 3

Veracity

Question 4

The value of doing what benefits the patient the best

Answer 4

Beneficence

Question 5

The hallmark value or virtue of “do no harm”

Answer 5

Non-maleficence

Question 6

What specifies that a hospital emergency room cannot turn a patient away based on their legal or financial status?

Answer 6

EMTALA (Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act)

Question 7

What must a hospital do in accordance with the EMTALA?

Answer 7

Evaluate and stabilize the patient before transporting to other hospital

Question 8

• Protects the provider from liability in an emergency situation
• The provider of the care can not be the cause of emergency situation
• Care is provided in a reasonable and competent manner
• Care was voluntary (no payment can be issued)
• The recipient did not reject the care

Answer 8

Good Samaritan Law

Question 9

Recognizes that patient’s right to make decisions regarding his or her healthcare based on the info provided by health care providers

Answer 9

Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA)

Question 10

Patients have the right to _____ and _____ treatment

Answer 10

accept; refuse

Question 11

Patients who are terminally ill or near the end of their life have the right to specify their goals of care in writing so that their wishes may be honored even after they lose the ability to actively participate in their care.

Answer 11

Advanced Directive

Question 12

Before a patient becomes unable to make decisions, the patient can preemptively name a person to become __________.

Answer 12

Power of Attorney

Question 13

A set of state laws that protects the reporter from retaliation or punishment when they report certain things that must be reported in order to preserve patient safety.

Answer 13

Mandatory Reporting

Question 14

What must be mandatorily reported?

Answer 14

Communicable diseases, unsafe care environments, abuse

Question 15

State mandated laws that outline the nursing scope of practice

Answer 15

Nursing Practice Acts

Question 16

Includes: breach of contract or malpractice complaints (usually held between 2 parties)

Answer 16

Civil Law

Question 17

What is another name for Civil Law?

Answer 17

Tort Law

Question 18

When a nurse intentionally places a patient in immediate fear of personal violence or offensive contact

Answer 18

Assault

Question 19

When offensive or harmful physical contract is made without consent or if there is unauthorizing touching a person’s body by another

Answer 19

Battery

Question 20

Restraining a person or patient without proper legal authorization

Answer 20

False imprisonment

Question 21

The study of what is right and wrong and how that aligns with principles, virtues, and core values

Answer 21

Ethics

Question 22

“The nurse has authority, accountability, and responsibility for nursing practices; makes decisions; and takes action consistent with the obligation to promote health to provide optimal care.”

Answer 22

Code of Ethics

Question 23

The equal treatment of all patients (fairness)

Answer 23

Justice

Question 24

Includes HIPAA violations, but also interfering with the patient’s personal life when such issues are desired to be left alone

Answer 24

Invasion of Privacy

Question 25

What a person believes to be right or wrong

Answer 25

Morals

Question 26

Something that is accepted as being true

Answer 26

Belief

Question 27

A set of beliefs of morals that are agreed upon or believed in by individuals or a group

Answer 27

Values

Question 28

What three things must be required for informed consent?

Answer 28

1. Patient must have the capacity to make decisions 2. Patient must be provided with pertinent and understandable information 3. Patient must be able to make decision voluntarily

Question 29

- Conveys shared ethical values, obligations, duties and ideals of nurses individually and collectively - Provides implied contract with the public - Informs society of the moral values and ideals by which it functions - Informs new professionals of the expected moral behaviors - Guides the profession in self-regulation - Provides a framework for ethical decision-making

Answer 29

ANA "Code"

Question 30

The failure to perform as a reasonable or prudent person or nurse would do if presented with the same situation

Answer 30

Negligence

Question 31

Failing to provide the minimum standards of care

Answer 31

Breach of Duty

Question 32

A professional form of breach of duty and negligence

Answer 32

Malpractice

Question 33

True or False: The patient's record is a legal document that can be used in court.

Answer 33

True

Question 34

Documentation should be ________ and includes only ________ information

Answer 34

Factual; Relevant

Question 35

To be financially or legally responsible for something

Answer 35

Liable

Question 36

The liability that is associated with professional nursing

Answer 36

Malpractice

Question 37

Our professional standards of care and how we fulfill our professional obligations to patients are based on what?

Answer 37

The Nursing Process (ADPIE)

Question 38

What is the difference between federal laws and institutional policies/procedures?

Answer 38

Federal is enforceable at all hospitals across a nation

Question 39

When a nurse/patient is forced to make a choice that is not in compliance with their personal values, they may experience this

Answer 39

Moral distress

Question 40

Presented as general statements and thus do not give specific answers to every possible ethical dilemma that might arise, it's purpose is to offer guidance.

Answer 40

Code of Ethics

Question 41

True or False: Ethical Guidelines are legally enforceable

Answer 41

False

Question 42

What does postmortem documentation include?

Answer 42

- Time of cessation of heart rate/respirations - Medical equipment in use - Time of transfer to morgue - Disposition of patient belongings

Question 43

What are the priorities for a patient who is enrolled in hospice care?

Answer 43

- Treatment of the terminally ill in their own homes, or in special hospital units or other facilities - Goal of helping them to die comfortably, without pain

Question 44

What happens 1-3 months before death?

Answer 44

- Withdrawn - Sleep increases - Appetite decreases; liquids preferred

Question 45

What happens 1-2 weeks before death?

Answer 45

- Blood pressure lowers - Color becomes jaundiced, pallor - Variable respiratory rate - Death rattle may occur secondary to congestion

Question 46

What happens days-hours before death?

Answer 46

- Louder death rattle - Cheyne-stokes respiration may occur - Skin becomes sweaty/clammy - Low urine output, minimal BM - Diminished vision - May become restless/agitated

Question 47

What happens moments before death?

Answer 47

=Unresponsive - Takes long, more spaced out breaths - Pulse slows - Breathing stops

Question 48

True or False: ANA allows nurses to be involved in physician-assisted suicide

Answer 48

False

Question 49

Who can change an advanced directive?

Answer 49

By the patient who created it - It cannot be changed if that person is incapacitated - -In this event would go to POA, next of kin (usually spouse)

Question 50

What is the requirement for admission into hospice care?

Answer 50

Certification that a patient's life expectancy is 6 months or less

Question 51

Which 3 entities have access to a patient's medical record?

Answer 51

1. the patient 2. provider providing care to the patient 3. insurance companies

Question 52

Who is the Father of Modern Psychology?

Answer 52

Sigmund Freud

Question 53

Who believed all behavior is learned?

Answer 53

Skinner and Pavlov

Question 54

Whose basic theory was about the personality structure?

Answer 54

Sigmund Freud

Question 55

Who believed that personality developed before the age of three?

Answer 55

Margaret Mahler

Question 56

Who developed cognitive behavioral therapy?

Answer 56

Beck

Question 57

Who developed CEBT or rational emotive therapy?

Answer 57

Ellis

Question 58

What is the goal of the cognitive model?

Answer 58

To get a person to identify their negative thoughts and then replace it with something positive

Question 59

Whose main focus became on bonding and the development of personality?

Answer 59

Margaret Mahler

Question 60

What are the four stages of Mahler's bonding theory?

Answer 60

1. Symbiosis 2. Separation/Individuation 3. Rapprochement 4. Object constancy

Question 61

Who introduced classical conditioning?

Answer 61

Pavlov

Question 62

Whose theory involved the ID, Superego, and the Ego?

Answer 62

Sigmund Freud

Question 63

Who developed the psychoanalytical theory?

Answer 63

Sigmund Freud

Question 64

Who believed behavior is driven by the desire to be accepted?

Answer 64

Sullivan and Peplau

Question 65

Which theorist is very important in Psych nursing?

Answer 65

Peplau

Question 66

Which theorist proposed that the nurse was the greatest tool in the relationship with the patient?

Answer 66

Peplau

Question 67

Who believed "everything comes from the family of origin?"

Answer 67

Sigmund Freud

Question 68

Who believed that in order to treat a mental condition, triggers must be identified?

Answer 68

Watson, Skinner, and Paplov

Question 69

Who believed in the need to know a person's thought process?

Answer 69

Ellis and Beck

Question 70

Who believed in the interpersonal theories?

Answer 70

Peplau and Sullivan

Question 71

Who believed in the systems theories?

Answer 71

von Bertanlaffy and Bowen

Question 72

What do the ABCs of Ellis's theory stand for?

Answer 72

A- Activating Event B- Belief C- emotional Consequence

Question 73

Behavior can be conditioned or learned

Answer 73

Behavioral model

Question 74

Divides the psyche into three functions: the id—unconscious source of primitive sexual, dependency, and aggressive impulses; the superego—subconsciously interjects societal mores, setting standards to live by; and the ego—represents a sense of self and mediates between realities of the moment and psychic needs and conflicts

Answer 74

Psychoanalytical Theory

Question 75

What is the order of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs? (Starting from most important to Least)

Answer 75

1. Physiological 2. Safety 3. Love and Acceptance 4. Esteem 5. Self-Actualization

Question 76

What are the 8 Stages of Erikson's Stages of Development?

Answer 76

1. trust vs. mistrust 2. autonomy vs. shame/doubt 3. initiative vs. guilt 4. industry vs. inferiority 5. identity vs. role confusion 6. intimacy vs. isolation 7. generativity vs. stagnation 8. integrity vs. despair

Question 77

What are the four rights of the psychiatric patient?

Answer 77

1. Right to treatment (receive services) 2. Right to refuse treatment 3. Right to informed consent 4. Right to confidentiality

Question 78

What is the goal of the Psych Nurse?

Answer 78

Stabilize patient to return to community

Question 79

What are the three admissions for a psych patient?

Answer 79

1. Threat to self 2. Threat to others 3. Unable to care for self

Question 80

What are the 4 types of admissions in the psych community?

Answer 80

1. Voluntary 2. Involuntary 3. Temporary Detention Order (TDO) 4. Commitment

Question 81

What are the 4 S's of Milieu?

Answer 81

1. Support 2. Safety 3. Structure 4. Social

Question 82

What is the total environment or surroundings that the patient is in called?

Answer 82

Milieu

Question 83

What are the four different kinds of loss?

Answer 83

1. Loss of a loved one 2. Loss of an aspect of self 3. Loss of an object 4. Loss of an environment

Question 84

The process that someone undertakes to deal with the void that is now left, usually seen externally

Answer 84

Mourning

Question 85

The internal emotional reaction and response to loss

Answer 85

Grief

Question 86

Acknowledging that a loss is inevitable and preparing emotionally for it

Answer 86

Anticipatory Grief

Question 87

Nothing in particular that makes this type of grief difficult for a person to process

Answer 87

Uncomplicated Grief

Question 88

A type of grief that impedes a person's future life, usually because the person clings to sorrow or is buffeted by contradictory emotions

Answer 88

Complicated Grief

Question 89

Grief involving a deceased person that is a socially ambiguous loss that can't be openly mourned or supported

Answer 89

Disenfranchised grief

Question 90

What are 6 risk factors for complicated grief?

Answer 90

1. Loss of a child 2. Unexpected loss or death with violence 3. Abuse 4. Lack of support system 5. Unresolved losses 6. Death associated with stigma

Question 91

What 5 factors influence grief?

Answer 91

1. Cultural beliefs 2. Spiritual beliefs 3. Gender 4. Economic 5. Support Systems

Question 92

What are the 5 stages of Kubler-Ross's Theory of Grief, Death, and Dying?

Answer 92

1. Denial 2. Anger 3. Bargaining 4. Depression 5. Acceptance

Question 93

What stage of Kubler-Ross's Theory is usually the longest?

Answer 93

Bargaining

Question 94

What nursing interventions can be implemented in death/dying?

Answer 94

- Give pt control over death and dying choices - Provide support and hope - Time availability with the family - Support the loved ones