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Foundations Of Nursing > The FINAL!!! > Flashcards

The FINAL!!! Flashcards

1
Q

Who focused on caring as cultural competence or using knowledge of culture to implement in patient care?

A

Dr. Madeline Leininger

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2
Q

Who explored caring by the nurse as an intentional presence, personal ownership, and a respect for human dignity?

A

Dr. Dingman

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3
Q

Who was considered the first nursing theorist?

A

Florence Nightingale

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4
Q

Who looked at nursing as being an individual practice separate from assisting physicians in providing medical care?

A

Florence Nightingale

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5
Q

Who developed the nursing theory called “The Science of Human Caring?”

A

Dr. Jean Watson

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6
Q

What are the 10 caritas processes?

A
  1. Sustaining human dignity
  2. Providing an authentic presence
  3. Using authentic listening
  4. Enabling the patient’s faith, hope, and belief system
  5. Using all ways of doing, being, and knowing
  6. Using artistic versions of self
  7. Being sensitive to your own spiritual beliefs
  8. Display loving and kindness to patients
  9. Create a healing environment
  10. Be mindful of presence of energies
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7
Q

What are the five realm’s of Swanson’s Caring Theory?

A
  1. Knowing
  2. Doing for
  3. Being with
  4. Enabling
  5. Maintaining belief
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8
Q

A form of bias that is the tendency to think your own group is superior to others

A

Ethnocentrism

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9
Q

Assumption that members of one sex are superior to those of another

A

Sexism

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10
Q

A behavioral manifestation of a prejudice

A

Discrimination

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11
Q

A feeling of unfair dislike directed against an individual or a group because of some characteristic

A

Prejudice

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12
Q

What are the six aspects of Joyce Giger’s Transcultural model?

A
  1. Communication
  2. Time
  3. Environmental Controls
  4. Space
  5. Social organization
  6. Biological variations
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13
Q

What part of the Giger model includes verbal and nonverbal language that includes: spoken language, gestures, eye contact and silence?

A

Communication

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14
Q

What part of the Giger model refers to a person’s personal space or how that person relates to the stored space around him or her?

A

Space

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15
Q

What part of the Giger model measures a person’s perception of time?

A

Time orientation

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16
Q

What part of the Giger model includes a patient’s family unit or other organizations in with the patient identifies with?

A

Social organization

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17
Q

What part of the Giger model refers to a person’s perception of his or her ability to plan activities that control nature or direct environmental factors?

A

Environmental control

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18
Q

What part of the Giger model includes ways in which people are different genetically and physiologically?

A

Biological variation

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19
Q

What is the best practice to working around a language barrier when providing care to a patient who speaks another language?

A

Using a translator

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20
Q

When should a patient’s family member be used as a translator?

A

As the VERY last resort

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21
Q

What is CAM?

A

Complimentary and Alternative Medicine

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22
Q

What does complementary medicine do?

A

Seeks to enhance western medicine

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23
Q

What does alternative medicine do?

A

Intends to replace or bypass traditional medicine (allopathy) by other means

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24
Q

Who most likely uses CAM?

A

Women with higher education, income, and those with two or more chronic conditions (Usually white women)

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25
Q

What are some examples of energy therapy modalities?

A
  • Tai Chi (nonaggressive martial arts)
  • QI Gong (breathing and meditation)
  • Reiki (energy balance to promote healing)
  • Magnet therapy (magnetism)
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26
Q

What are the factors that influence health?

A
  • Biological factors
  • Diet
  • Lifestyle
  • Culture
  • Finances
  • Substance abuse
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27
Q

What are the five stages of illness?

A
  1. Symptoms
  2. Sick Role Behavior
  3. Seeking professional care
  4. Dependence on others
  5. Recovery
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28
Q

Knowledge that is akin to the knowledge found in our textbook. What to do and why we do it.

A

Theoretical knowledge

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29
Q

Knowledge that involves knowing what to do and how to do it safely

A

Practical knowledge

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30
Q

Knowledge that includes our own preferences or biases that may influence our thinking (experiences)

A

Self-knowledge

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31
Q

Knowledge that helps decipher between what is right or wrong

A

Ethical knowledge

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32
Q

A type of assessment that is continuing the plan of care (Ex: a head to toe performed at the start of every shift)

A

Ongoing

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33
Q

A type of assessment that explores a patient’s complaint or symptom

A

Focused

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34
Q

Whatever the patient says or reports and cannot be easily verified by the nurse

A

Subjective Data

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35
Q

Quantitative data or observable data that is measured and accepted as factual

A

Objective Data

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36
Q

Checking the accuracy and quality of source data before using, importing or otherwise processing data.

A

Data validation

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37
Q

What is the top priority of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

A

Physiological

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38
Q

What is the second priority of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

A

Safety

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39
Q

What is the third priority of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

A

Love and Belonging

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40
Q

What is the fourth priority of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

A

Self-Esteem

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41
Q

What is the fifth priority of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

A

Self-actualization

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42
Q

What is the PES statement?

A

Problem, Etiology, Symptoms

Problem r/t etiology aeb symptoms

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43
Q

A statement of client health status that nurses can identify, prevent, or treatment independently

A

Nursing diagnosis

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44
Q

What are the two ways to prioritize a patient’s nursing diagnosis?

A

ABC’s

Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs

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45
Q

What is the SMART in an ECO?

A 
Specific
Measurable
Achievable/Attainable
Realistic
Time bound
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46
Q

What type of interventions are those put in place by nurses without the guidance of a provider?

A

Independent intervention

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47
Q

What type of interventions involve collaboration with ancillary staff?

A

Interdependent intervention

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48
Q

What type of intervention requires a provider’s order?

A

Dependent intervention

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49
Q

What are the benefits of standardized care plans?

A
  • Prepopulated in the EHR
  • Includes every possible intervention for each dx
  • Includes suggested ECOS
  • Saves time
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50
Q

What is the risk of standardized care plans?

A

Not ideal because they are not personalized to the patient’s specific needs

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51
Q

What are the five steps of evaluation?

A
  1. Review outcomes
  2. Collect reassessment data
  3. Make a judgment
  4. Document the evaluation
  5. Revise if necessary
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52
Q

What are the 5 rights to delegation?

A
  1. Right Task
  2. Right Circumstance
  3. Right Person
  4. Right Communication
  5. Right Supervision
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53
Q

A goal that is something the nurse can generally measure themselves that is within the next few hours, days, by end of shift or discharge

A

Short term goal

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54
Q

A goal that may require a follow up by another person, longer than a few days

A

Long term goal

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55
Q

What are 5 interventions for aspiration risk

A
  1. No straw
  2. Cut up patient’s food
  3. Thicken liquids
  4. Chin forward flexed
  5. Check mouth for pocketing
  6. Keep suction nearby
  7. Keep in upgrade position
  8. Assist with feeding
  9. Monitor for coughing
  10. Assess breathing
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56
Q

What does a clear liquid diet include?

A
  • Water
  • Black coffee
  • Tea w/no cream
  • Chicken broth
  • Clear juices or carbonated beverages
  • Popsicles
  • Jell-O
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57
Q

What does a full liquid diet include?

A
  • all liquids in a clear liquid*

- PLUS: dairy and foods that are liquid at room temp

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58
Q

What does a pureed diet include?

A
  • all foods in a liquid diet*
  • PLUS: soft veggies/fruits, chopped or ground meat. soft bread, cheese and eggs

–> DIET LOW IN FIBER

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59
Q

Which tube feeding goes through the stomach?

A

Enteral

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60
Q

How long can a closed system feeding system be run?

A

24 hours

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61
Q

How long can an open feeding system be run?

A

4 hours max

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62
Q

When should a feeding tube be flushed?

A

Before and after a feeding and before and after a medication

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63
Q

How long should an NG be placed?

A

6 weeks or less

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64
Q

What are the six categories of the Braden Scale?

A
  1. Sensory perception
  2. Moisture
  3. Activity
  4. Mobility
  5. Nutrition
  6. Friction/Shear
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65
Q

How soon can a pressure injury begin?

A

2 hours

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66
Q

Pressure wound that only involves the epidermis and is nonblanchable.

A

Stage 1

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67
Q

Pressure wound that has broken the skin but only effects the dermis

A

Stage 2

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68
Q

Pressure wound that has gone beyond the dermis and into the Sub-Q layer into the muscular layer, sometimes exposing bone

A

Stage 4

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69
Q

Pressure would that is beyond the dermis and extends into the Sub-Q tissue

A

Stage 3

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70
Q

Which stages of pressure wound are full thickness

A

Stages 3 and 4

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71
Q

Yellow wound drainage

A

Serous

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72
Q

Bright read wound drainage

A

Sanguineous

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73
Q

Pink and Watery wound drainage

A

Sero-sanguineous

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74
Q

Creamy and yellow wound drainage (pus)

A

Purulent

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75
Q

Thick and stringy, waxy yellow substance

A

Slough

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76
Q

Necrotic, black wound tissue

A

Eschar

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77
Q

Pain that is caused from tissue damage as a result of trauma, surgery, or inflammation

A

Nociceptive pain

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78
Q

Pain that arises from a nerve injury or damage to the neurological pathway transmitting the nerve signals

A

Neuropathic pain

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79
Q

Pain that comes from injuries that in the skin or subcutaneous tissue

A

Superficial pain

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80
Q

Pain that often comes from visceral pain

A

Referred pain

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81
Q

Shooting pain

A

Radiating

82
Q

What are six nonpharmacological pain management techniques?

A
  1. Massages
  2. Hot/cold therapy
  3. Immobilization and rest
  4. Acupuncture/Acupressure
  5. TENS or PENS
  6. Humor/Distraction
83
Q

What type of pain does not respond well to opoids?

A

Neuropathic

84
Q

When should a person’s pain be reassessed after administering narcotics?

A

Within 1 hour

85
Q

What does pain do to the endocrine system?

A

Release of stress hormones (insulin and testosterone levels decrease)

86
Q

What does pain do to the cardiovascular system?

A

Increase in HR, BP, CO, and oxygen demand

87
Q

What does pain do to the MSK?

A

Impaired muscle function, fatigue, and immobility

88
Q

What does pain do to the respiratory system?

A

Shallow breaths

89
Q

What does pain do to the GU system?

A

Excessive amount of stress hormones, such as: cortisol and aldosterone, and ADH

90
Q

What does pain do to the GI system?

A

Causes nausea and constipation

91
Q

Proper body mechanics for a nurse

A
  1. proper spinal alignment
  2. lift with knees
  3. don’t twist
  4. use assistive aids if needed (ie: gait belt)
  5. raise the bed
  6. push or pull; don’t lift
92
Q

What is the last Erikson’s stage of development?

A

Ego Integrity vs Despair

93
Q

What is a normal specific gravity?

A

1.002-1.030

94
Q

A painful or burning upon urination

A

Dysuria

95
Q

Normal values for protein, glucose, and ketones in urine

A

Negative

96
Q

Excessive or frequent urination

A

Polyuria

97
Q

The lack of Urine

A

Anuria

98
Q

Blood in the urine

A

Hematuria

99
Q

Too little urine (Less than 400 mL over 24 hrs)

A

Oliguria

100
Q

Normal BUN levels

A

8-21 mg/dl

101
Q

Increase in intra-abdominal pressure causing loss of urine

A

Stress incontinence

102
Q

Occurs when the urgency to urinate is so strong, there is involuntary loss of urine

A

Urge incontinence

103
Q

No urinary problem, pt just can’t make it to the bathroom in time due to external circumstances

A

Functional incontinence

104
Q

When the bladder overfills and urine leaks out

A

Overflow incontinence

105
Q

What foods should a person with an ostomy bag avoid?

A

Avoid gas-producing foods (Ex: cauliflower, peas, brussels sprouts, garlic, onions, beans, peas, or dairy)

106
Q

What should a patient do prior to a colonoscopy?

A

Prepare by being NPO or at least clear liquid diet for a full day before procedure.

Use a bowel prep

107
Q

What is the primary nursing intervention for someone with diarrhea?

A 
Supportive care
(increase fluid intake, BRAT diet, bedside commode, probiotics, medication Lomotil)
108
Q

Problems falling asleep or staying asleep

A

Dyssomnia

109
Q

What are some examples of dyssomnia?

A
  • insomnia
  • sleep apnea
  • hypersomnia
  • circadian disorders (jet lag)
  • restless leg syndrome
  • narcolepsy
110
Q

Patterns of waking behaviors during sleep

A

Parasomnia

111
Q

Examples of parasomnias

A
  • sleepwalking
  • nocturnal enuresis
  • night terrors
  • Rem disordered behavior
112
Q

Characterized by the difficulty of falling asleep, staying asleep, or inability to fall back to sleep once prematurely awakened

A

Insomnia

113
Q

Somnambulism

A

sleepwalking

114
Q

A condition characterized by an extreme tendency to fall asleep whenever in relaxing surroundings.

A

narcolepsy

115
Q

What are interventions to promote sleep hygiene

A
  • restful environment
  • promote comfort
  • allow 30 min to fall asleep
  • darken room
  • limit alcohol/caffeine intake before bed
  • complete exercise 2 hours before bed
  • warm interventions
  • set schedule
116
Q

What is a SOAPIE?

A 
S-Subjective data
O-Objective data
A-Assessment 
P-Planning (documenting ECO)
I-Intervention (nursing care)
E-Evaluation
117
Q

What does the SOAPIE do?

A

Allows nurses to organize assessment data on the nursing care plan in a streamlined way

118
Q

If an error is made in the a medical chart, how should it be corrected?

A

Single line and initial (black ink)

119
Q

How can patient orders be given?

A
  1. Verbal (emergency situation only!)
  2. Written
  3. Telephone (provider must sign in 24 hours)
120
Q

The Six Rights of Medication

A
  1. Drug
  2. Dose
  3. Route
  4. Time
  5. Patient
  6. Documentation
121
Q

When should a medication be checked before given to the patient?

A
  1. When reviewing the record
  2. When pulling the medication
  3. At patient’s bedside
122
Q

What should be included on a medication order?

A
  • Medication name
  • Route of administration
  • Dosage
  • Time it should be given
  • How frequently it should be given
123
Q

What are the normal creatinine levels?

A

0.5-1.2 mg/dL

124
Q

What restraint is the standard of care?

A

None Restraint Free!

125
Q
  • Maintain a consistent environment
  • Review pt’s medication profile
  • Relieve anxiety
  • Frequently reassess the patient
  • Properly communicate
  • Make environment comfortable
  • Anticipate pt’s needs

Can help do what?

A

Prevent the need for restraints

126
Q

What is the RACE response?

A

Rescue
Alarm
Contain
Extinguish

127
Q

How do you prevent sharps injuries?

A
  • Maintain sharp awareness
  • Never recap a needle
  • Use of a needleless system
128
Q

Increase of WBCs is indicative of what?

A

Infection

129
Q

What does a culture look for?

A

Presence of specific bacteria

130
Q

What does CRP or ESR indicate?

A

Chronic inflammation

131
Q

Which precaution uses gloves and a gown?

A

Contact precaution

132
Q

Which precaution uses a mask?

A

Droplet precaution

133
Q

Which precaution uses a N95 and negative pressure?

A

Airborne precaution

134
Q

What type of precaution does TB require?

A

Airborne

135
Q

What type of precaution does meningitis require?

A

Droplet

136
Q

What type of precaution do the measles require?

A

Airborne

137
Q

What type of precaution does pertussis require?

A

Droplet

138
Q

What type of precaution does MRSA require?

A

Contact

139
Q

What type of precaution does the flu require?

A

Droplet

140
Q

Protects a patient’s person information from being share with any person or organization that does not need to have information about that person’s medical status

A

HIPAA

141
Q

Who has access to a patient’s medical records?

A
  1. The Patient
  2. The care provider
  3. The insurance company paying the bill
142
Q

The duty to keep promises or the virtue of loyalty

A

Fidelity

143
Q

Refers to a person’s right to make choices

A

Autonomy

144
Q

The duty to tell the truth

A

Veracity

145
Q

The value of doing what benefits the patient the best

A

Beneficence

146
Q

The hallmark value or virtue of “Do No Harm”

A

Non-maleficence

147
Q

Refers to the equal treatment of all patients

A

Justice

148
Q

The state of being held against without legal authorization (includes by use of medication)

A

False imprisonment

149
Q

Creating a fearful situation

A

Assault

150
Q

Unauthorized physical contact

A

Battery

151
Q

Interference with personal data

A

Invasion of privacy

152
Q

What are the goals of care at end of life

A
  • give dying pt autonomy and control over dying choices
  • support and hope for the family
  • remain comfortable (pain free)
  • support loved ones and family
153
Q

Cyclic breathing marked by a gradual increase in the rapidity of respiration followed by a gradual decrease and total cessation for from 5 to 50 seconds

A

Cheyne-Stokes Respirations

154
Q

Which theorist focused on the Cognitive Stages of Development?

A

Piaget

155
Q

Which theorist focused on the Psychosexual stages of Development?

A

Freud

156
Q

Which theorist developed basic needs throughout the lifetime?

A

Erikson

157
Q

An infant should have breast milk/formula exclusively for how long?

A

First six months of life

158
Q

How often can new foods be introduced to an infant on solids?

A

One every 3-4 days

159
Q

Which foods should an infant avoid?

A
  • Honey
  • Egg yolks/meat
  • Hard, small food
  • Foods likely to cause allergic reactions
160
Q

How much fat content should a toddler consume?

A

20-30%

161
Q

How much milk should a toddler drink a day?

A

16 oz

162
Q

What extra nutrients does an adolescent need?

A

Zinc, calcium, and iron

163
Q

What is the balanced diet requirement for an adolescent?

A

45-65% carbs
10-30% proteins
25-35% fats

164
Q

When do kids typically begin to lie?

A

2-4 years old

165
Q

Who is the father of modern Psychology?

A

Sigmund Freud

166
Q

Who believed all behavior has meaning?

A

Freud

167
Q

Who believed all behavior is learned?

A

Skinner and Pavlov

168
Q

Who developed operant conditioning?

A

Pavlov

169
Q

Who developed the Superego, ID, and Ego?

A

Freud

170
Q

Who believed in the Interpersonal theories?

A

Sullivan and Peplau

171
Q

Who was the biggest nurse influence in Psych?

A

Peplau

172
Q

Who developed the cognitive model?

A

Beck and Ellis

173
Q

Believed the role of culture and society emphasized on personality development

A

Erikson

174
Q

Intervening before health effects occur, (i.e. through education or manipulation of environment)

A

Primary prevention

175
Q

Screening to identify early

A

Secondary prevention

176
Q

Managing the disease to slow or stop.

A

Tertiary prevention

177
Q

What are the key components to informed consent?

A
  • Patient is alert and oriented
  • Patient is voluntarily consenting
  • Patient has been given all the pertinent information
178
Q

What are a Psych patients rights?

A
  • Right to receive tx
  • Right to refuse tx
  • Right to confidentiality
  • Right to informed consent
179
Q

What are the 4 S’s of a milieu?

A

Safety
Structure
Support
Social

180
Q

Process one undertakes to deal with the void that is now left

A

mourning

181
Q

Total environment or surroundings that the patient is in

A

milieu

182
Q

Factors that influence grief

A
  1. Mourning
  2. Culture
  3. Spiritual
  4. Gender
  5. Economic Support
183
Q

What are the five stages of grief?

A
  1. Denial
  2. Anger
  3. Bargaining
  4. Depression
  5. Acceptance
184
Q

What type of grief happens when a loss can be anticipated?

A

Anticipatory grief

185
Q

What type of grief happens when nothing in particular makes the loss difficult?

A

Uncomplicated grief

186
Q

What type of grief relates to the kind relationship a person had with the loss and type of loss that was?

A

Complicated grief

187
Q

An example of a disenfranchised grief

A

Suicide

188
Q

Risk factors for complicated grief

A
  • Dependency
  • Unresolved conflicts
  • Death of a child
  • Support systems gone
  • Death associated with stigma: Heroin overdose
  • Alcoholism
  • Suicide
  • History of abuse with deceased
  • Death unexpected or associated with violence
  • Unresolved losses
  • History of depression, substance use or psychiatric illness
  • Stress of grief can impact the person
  • Bereaved is young
189
Q

Nursing interventions for grief

A
  • Control over death and dying → choices
  • Plan funeral
  • Support with will and hope
  • Time availability with family → visiting
  • Privilege of nursing
  • Support family/ Loved ones
190
Q

What are five forms of nontherapeutic communication?

A
  1. Asking “why?”
  2. Giving advice
  3. False reassurance
  4. Minimizing feelings
  5. Showing sympathy
191
Q

What are five forms of therapeutic communication?

A
  1. Restating
  2. Active listening
  3. Using silence
  4. Giving recognition
  5. Giving broad openings
192
Q

What are the four phases of Peplau’s Nurse-Patient Relationship?

A
  1. Preorientation
  2. Orientation
  3. Working phase
  4. Termination phase
193
Q

What phase during Peplau’s Nurse Patient Relationship includes:

  • summarizing achieved goals and objectives
  • discusses ways to incorporate new techniques
  • reviews situations
  • exchanges memories
A

Termination phase

194
Q

What phase during Peplau’s Nurse Patient Relationship includes:

  • Preparing your assignment
  • Researching your patient’s condition and learning about medication usages
  • Recognizing one’s own thoughts and feelings
A

Preorientation

195
Q

What phase during Peplau’s Nurse Patient Relationship includes:

  • establishing rapport
  • specifying a contract
  • establishing privacy
A

Orientation phase

196
Q

What phase during Peplau’s Nurse Patient Relationship includes:

  • gathering data
  • providing dx education
  • providing medication education
  • identifying problems
  • promoting symptom management
  • evaluating progress
A

Working phase

197
Q

What type of anxiety is characterized by:

  • dilated pupils
  • sweaty palms
  • increased HP
  • dry mouth
  • cool/clammy hands
A

Mild anxiety

198
Q

What type of anxiety is characterized by:

  • panic attacks
  • shortness of breath
  • trembling and shaking
  • accelerated HR
  • dizziness
  • chest pain
  • hot flashes
  • impending doom
A

Panic

199
Q

What type of anxiety is characterized by:

  • inability to concentrate
  • profuse sweating
  • increase HR and RR
  • shaking/shivering
  • behavioral changes/altered perceptions
  • purposeless movements
  • confusion (speech grumbled)
  • uncontrollable crying
A

Severe anxiety

200
Q

What type of anxiety is characterized by:

  • decreased perception
  • increased HR and RR
  • perspiration
  • muscle tension
  • irritability
  • pacing
A

Moderate anxiety

Foundations Of Nursing (7 decks)

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