Test 5

Question 1

Regarding the utilization of mental health care services, recent surveys have found that:
A. sexual minority individuals utilize mental health services at lower rates than heterosexual individuals do.
B. sexual minority individuals utilize mental health services at similar rates as heterosexual individuals do.
C. sexual minority individuals utilize mental health services at higher rates than heterosexual individuals do, with gay men and lesbian women having the highest rates.
D. sexual minority individuals utilize mental health services at higher rates than heterosexual individuals do, with bisexual men and women having the highest rates.

Answer 1

D. sexual minority individuals utilize mental health services at higher rates than heterosexual individuals do, with bisexual men and women having the highest rates.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-F1-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-22 Answer D is correct. This answer is consistent with the results of the 2013, 2014, and 2015 National Health Interview Surveys (Platt, Wolf, & Scheitle, 2018), which found that sexual minority individuals utilized mental health services at higher rates than heterosexual individuals did, with bisexual men and women having the highest utilization rates.

Question 2

Studies conducted at Ohio State University in the 1950s found that leader behaviors can be described in terms of two independent dimensions which the researchers named:
A. transformational and transactional.
B. directive and delegative.
C. high LPC and low LPC.
D. initiating structure and consideration.

Answer 2

D. initiating structure and consideration.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-F1-ORG-Organizational Leadership-18 Answer D is correct. Ohio State University researchers found that leader behaviors represent two independent dimensions: Leaders high in initiating structure are task-oriented and focus on achieving performance goals, while leaders high in consideration are person-oriented and focus on fostering the trust and respect of subordinates.

Question 3

Research participants are asked to memorize a list of unrelated words and then recall the words in any order after a brief delay. Most likely, the subjects will recall:
A. words from the beginning of the list better than words from the middle or end of the list.
B. words from the end of the list better than words from the beginning or middle of the list.
C. words from the beginning and end of the list about equally well and better than words from the middle of the list.
D. words from the middle and end of the list about equally well and better than words from the beginning of the list.

Answer 3

A. words from the beginning of the list better than words from the middle or end of the list.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-F1-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-12 Answer A is correct. The serial position effect occurs when a person is asked to memorize a list of unrelated words and then asked to recall as many words as possible in any order either immediately or after a brief delay. When asked to recall the words immediately, a person is likely to exhibit both primacy and recency effects – i.e., to recall more words at the beginning and end of the list than words in the middle of the list. In contrast, when asked to recall the words after a brief delay, the person will exhibit only a primacy effect.

Question 4

The optimal treatment for bulimia nervosa is generally considered to be which of the following?
A. pharmacotherapy
B. cognitive-behavioral therapy
C. motivational interviewing
D. family-based treatment

Answer 4

B. cognitive-behavioral therapy

EXPLANATION

EPPP-F1-PPA-Feeding/Eating, Elimination, and Sleep-Wake Disorders-18 Answer B is correct. The research has found cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) and interpersonal therapy (IPT) to be effective treatments for bulimia nervosa, with some studies finding CBT to be somewhat more effective than IPT. Answer A can be eliminated because pharmacotherapy (especially fluoxetine) has been found to have beneficial effects, but it’s not as effective as CBT. Answer C can be eliminated because there’s some evidence that motivational interviewing can improve readiness to change in patients with bulimia, but it has not been found to be effective when used alone for reducing the symptoms of bulimia. And answer D can be eliminated because family-based treatment has been found to have beneficial effects but has not been found to be more effective than CBT.

Question 5

You have been seeing 14-year-old Jamie in therapy with the consent of her parents. During her fourth session, Jamie admits that she has been binging and purging regularly for over two months and that she can’t seem to stop. She adamantly states that she doesn’t want you to tell her parents. You’re concerned about the potential harm Jamie is doing to herself and believe the best course of action would be to breach confidentiality and contact her parents. With regard to ethical requirements, the best course of action is to:
A. contact Jamie’s parents and suggest that they accompany her to her next session.
B. discuss with Jamie the need to share information about her binging and purging with her parents before contacting them.
C. inform Jamie about the need to share information about her binging and purging with her parents and ask her to bring them to the next therapy session.
D. maintain Jamie’s confidentiality but encourage her to discuss her binging and purging with her parents.

Answer 5

B. discuss with Jamie the need to share information about her binging and purging with her parents before contacting them.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-10 Answer B is correct. This is the best answer of those given because Jamie is engaging in potentially harmful behavior and, to protect her, you would want to breach confidentiality and discuss this with her parents. Breaching confidentiality to protect a client from harm is permitted by Standard 4.05 of the APA Ethics Code and Standards I.45 and II.42. In addition, as noted by S. H. Behnke and E. Warner, “regardless of whether an adolescent assents to have information disclosed to a parent, it makes both clinical and ethical sense to tell the adolescent – beforehand, if possible – what information will be shared, and when” [Confidentiality in the treatment of adolescents, APA Monitor, 33(3), 4]. Note that answer C is not the best answer because asking Jamie to bring her parents to the next session places too much responsibility on Jamie.

Question 6

To increase the difficulty level of a statistics test, you would add items that have an average item difficulty index (p) of:
A. -1.0
B. -.50
C. .20
D. .90

Answer 6

C. .20

EXPLANATION

EPPP-F1-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-01 Answer C is correct. The item difficulty index (p) ranges from 0 to 1.0, with 0 indicating a very difficult item (none of the examinees in the tryout sample answered it correctly) and 1.0 indicating a very easy item (all examinees in the tryout sample answered it correctly). Therefore, to increase the difficulty of a test, you’d want to add items that have p values close to 0 – e.g., .20.

Question 7

A utility analysis of an employee selection program will provide information on which of the following?
A. the criterion-related validity of a new selection technique
B. the risk for adverse impact when using a new selection technique
C. the monetary costs and benefits of using a new selection technique
D. the reactions of job applicants to a new selection technique

Answer 7

C. the monetary costs and benefits of using a new selection technique

EXPLANATION

EPPP-F1-ORG-Employee Selection – Evaluation of Techniques-07 Answer C is correct. Utility analysis is used to obtain information on the monetary value (return on investment) of a selection test, training program, or other employment practice.

Question 8

An essential focus of total quality management (TQM) is on:
A. employee involvement.
B. leadership effectiveness.
C. return on investment.
D. organizational structure.

Answer 8

A. employee involvement.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-F1-ORG-Organizational Change and Development-16 Answer A is correct. The primary emphases of TQM are continuous improvement, total employee involvement, customer satisfaction, and data-driven decision-making.

Question 9

The studies have not provided entirely consistent results, but they have generally found that which of the following Big Five personality traits decrease with increasing age during adulthood?
A. conscientiousness and neuroticism
B. neuroticism and extraversion
C. agreeableness and conscientiousness
D. agreeableness and openness to experience

Answer 9

B. neuroticism and extraversion

EXPLANATION

EPPP-F1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-17 Answer B is correct. McCrae and his colleagues conclude that, “from age 18 to age 30 there are declines in Neuroticism, Extraversion, and Openness to Experience, and increases in Agreeableness and Conscientiousness; after age 30 the same trends are found, although the rate of change seems to decrease” [R. R. McCrae, P. T. Costa, F. Ostendorf, A. Angleitner, M. Hrebickova, M. D. Avia, et al., Nature over nurture: Temperament, personality, and life span development, Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 78, 173–186, 2000].

Question 10

For most children, stranger anxiety ordinarily begins at about ________ months of age and then begins to decline at about _____ months.
A. 5 to 7; 12
B. 5 to 7; 18
C. 8 to 10; 16
D. 8 to 10; 24

Answer 10

D. 8 to 10; 24

EXPLANATION

EPPP-F1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-19 Answer D is correct. The onset and duration of stranger anxiety differs for different children and, as a result, the reported ages for its onset and duration vary somewhat in the literature. However, most authors report the onset as being between 8 and 10 months and the decline to begin at about 24 months of age.

Question 11

In the context of classical conditioning, blocking occurs when:
A. a previously conditioned CS is repeatedly presented with a new US.
B. a previously conditioned CS is repeatedly presented after the US.
C. a new neutral stimulus and a previously conditioned CS are presented together after presentation of the US.
D. a new neutral stimulus and a previously conditioned CS are presented together before presentation of the US.

Answer 11

D. a new neutral stimulus and a previously conditioned CS are presented together before presentation of the US.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-F1-LEA-Classical Conditioning-01 Answer D is correct. Blocking occurs when a new neutral stimulus is simultaneously presented with a previously conditioned stimulus (CS) before presenting the unconditioned stimulus (US). In this situation, the new neutral stimulus will not become a conditioned stimulus and will not elicit a conditioned response when presented alone. This occurs because classical conditioning of the first neutral (conditioned) stimulus blocks classical conditioning of the second neutral stimulus, apparently because the second neutral stimulus does not provide any new information about the occurrence of the unconditioned stimulus.

Question 12

Gina, age 32, comes to therapy with her husband, who tells you that Gina has always been very enthusiastic about her job as a self-employed interior designer but that, lately, “things have gotten out of hand.” He says that about three weeks ago, Gina began jumping from one project to another and hasn’t finished any of them and, as a result, has been fired by all but one of her clients who is a friend and is trying to be patient. Gina says that “things aren’t that bad” and that she feels happier now than she has in a long time. However, she admits that she’s having trouble with work because her “brain is filled with too many ideas.” She states she hasn’t been sleeping much because of her racing thoughts but that she doesn’t feel tired. Gina also says that, in middle school and high school, she sometimes had trouble finishing her homework. The most likely diagnosis for Gina is:
A. bipolar I disorder.
B. bipolar II disorder.
C. cyclothymic disorder.
D. ADHD.

Answer 12

A. bipolar I disorder.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-F1-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-06 Answer A is correct. Gina’s symptoms are most suggestive of bipolar I disorder, which is diagnosed when a person has had at least one manic episode that lasted for at least one week. Gina’s elevated mood, increased goal activity (jumping from one project to another), racing thoughts, and decreased need for sleep are characteristic of a manic episode.

Question 13

A 29-year-old Asian American psychologist who was born and raised in the United States is sometimes complimented on his “good English” by new people he meets. As described by Sue and his colleagues (2007), this type of microaggression is referred to as which of the following?
A. microinsult
B. microassault
C. microinvalidation
D. microaspersion

Answer 13

C. microinvalidation

EXPLANATION

EPPP-F1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-24 Answer C is correct. D. W. Sue and his colleagues distinguish between three types of microaggression: microinvalidation, microinsult, and microassault. Microinvalidations “are characterized by communications that exclude, negate, or nullify the psychological thoughts, feelings, or experiential reality of a person of color” [Racial microaggressions in everyday life: Implications for clinical practice, American Psychologist, 62 (4), 271-286, 2007].

Question 14

Judge, Bono, Ilies, and Gerehardt’s (2002) meta-analysis of the research found that, of the Big Five personality traits, ___________ is the best predictor of leader effectiveness.
A. openness to experience
B. extraversion
C. conscientiousness
D. agreeableness

Answer 14

B. extraversion

EXPLANATION

EPPP-F1-ORG-Organizational Leadership-20 Answer B is correct. Judge, Bono, Ilies, and Gerehardt’s meta-analysis found that extraversion and conscientiousness have the largest correlation coefficients with leader effectiveness (.31 and .28, respectively). (Note that this question is asking specifically about the personality trait that’s most predictive of leader effectiveness. If it asked about the best predictor of job performance across different jobs and performance criteria, the correct answer would have been conscientiousness.)

Question 15

A special education teacher reinforces a student with a token each time the student answers a question she asks him. Once the student is answering every question, she reduces the amount of reinforcement by providing him with a token after every third question that he answers. The procedure being used by the teacher is referred to as:
A. shaping.
B. fading.
C. thinning.
D. extinguishing.

Answer 15

C. thinning.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-F1-LEA-Operant Conditioning-07 Answer C is correct. Reducing the amount of positive reinforcement is referred to as thinning.

Question 16

The DSM-5 diagnosis of gender dysphoria requires:
A. persistent discomfort with one’s assigned gender.
B. a strong and persistent cross-gender identification.
C. discordance between one’s experienced and assigned gender.
D. persistent distress related to one’s sexual orientation

Answer 16

C. discordance between one’s experienced and assigned gender.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-F1-PPA-Sexual Dysfunctions, Gender Dysphoria, and Paraphilic Disorders-21 Answer C is correct. This is the best answer because it’s closest to the DSM-5’s description of gender dysphoria, which states that it’s characterized by “marked incongruence between one’s experienced/expressed gender and assigned gender” (p. 452).

Question 17

Increasing alpha from .01 to .05:
A. increases statistical power and the probability of making a Type I error.
B. increases statistical power and the probability of making a Type II error.
C. decreases statistical power and the probability of making a Type I error.
D. decreases statistical power and the probability of making a Type II error.

Answer 17

A. increases statistical power and the probability of making a Type I error.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-F1-RMS-Overview of Inferential Statistics-09 Answer A is correct. Increasing alpha from .01 to .05 increases the likelihood that the null hypothesis will be rejected. Consequently, if the null hypothesis is true, this increases the probability that a true null hypothesis will be rejected – i.e., it increases the likelihood that a Type I error will occur. Or, if the null hypothesis is false, this increases the probability that a false null hypothesis will be rejected – i.e., it increases statistical power.

Question 18

A therapy client whom you have been seeing for seven weeks is suddenly laid-off from his job and can no longer afford to pay your fee. The client asks if he can barter yard work and minor home repairs for therapy until he’s able to find another job. In terms of ethical guidelines, agreeing to this arrangement would be:
A. unethical.
B. ethical if a fair market value can be established for the client’s work.
C. ethical since it’s a temporary arrangement.
D. ethical if you discuss the possible conflicts with the client before accepting the arrangement.

Answer 18

A. unethical.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-13 Answer A is correct. Bartering is addressed in Standard 6.05 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard III.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which both prohibit bartering when it’s “clinically contraindicated.” In the bartering arrangement described in this question, you would be acting as both therapist and employer, and it would be clinically contraindicated since doing so could affect your objectivity and the therapeutic relationship if you’re dissatisfied with the client’s work.

Question 19

In the context of Dawis and Lofquist’s (1984) theory of work adjustment, a worker’s job satisfaction is determined by the correspondence between the worker’s:
A. interests and the characteristics of the job.
B. vocational identity and ego identity.
C. needs and the reinforcers provided by the job.
D. skills and the skill requirements of the job.

Answer 19

C. needs and the reinforcers provided by the job.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-F1-ORG-Career Choice and Development-12 Answer C is correct. Dawis and Lofquist distinguish between satisfaction and satisfactoriness. Satisfaction refers to the employee’s satisfaction with the job and is affected by the match between the employee’s needs and the reinforcers provided by the job. Satisfactoriness refers to the employer’s satisfaction with the employee and is affected by how well the employee’s skills match the skill requirements of the job.

Question 20

A student is asked to give a persuasive speech supporting the death penalty by his Psychology 101 instructor. Even though the other students in the class know the topic was assigned to him, most of them say the student actually supports the death penalty after they listen to his speech. The conclusion of these students illustrates which of the following?
A. ultimate attribution error
B. fundamental attribution error
C. self-serving bias
D. counterfactual thinking

Answer 20

B. fundamental attribution error

EXPLANATION

EPPP-F1-SOC-Social Cognition – Causal Attributions-01 Answer B is correct. Despite knowing that the topic was assigned to the student, most students in the class assumed that the position the student advocated in his speech reflects his actual position. Their assumption is predicted by the fundamental attribution error, which is the tendency to overestimate the role of dispositional factors and underestimate the role of situational factors when making attributions about the behaviors of other people.

Question 21

A four-year-old who is a passenger in his mother’s car says that the moon is following them while they’re driving home from the store after dark. The child’s conclusion best illustrates which of the following?
A. assimilation
B. centration
C. concrete operational thinking
D. symbolic thinking

Answer 21

A. assimilation

EXPLANATION

EPPP-F1-LIF-Cognitive Development-13 Answer A is correct. In this situation, the child is assimilating the apparent movement of the moon into what he already knows – i.e., things that move with you are following you. Even if his mother tries to explain why it appears that the moon is following them, the child is too young to understand (accommodate) this new information. (Note that the child’s explanation is also an example of animism, but that’s not given as an answer to this question.)

Question 22

Overlearning is most useful for:
A. skills and knowledge that will be used frequently on-the-job.
B. skills and knowledge that will be used infrequently on-the-job.
C. teaching tasks that can be divided into subtasks.
D. teaching tasks that must be completed in a particular sequence.

Answer 22

B. skills and knowledge that will be used infrequently on-the-job.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-F1-ORG-Training Methods and Evaluation-09 Answer B is correct. Overlearning refers to learning or practicing beyond the point of mastery and results in automaticity, which occurs when information is recalled or a behavior is performed with little conscious effort or awareness. Automaticity is especially important for tasks that are performed relatively infrequently and when correct performance is essential because errors can have serious negative consequences.

Question 23

Depth perception depends on monocular and binocular cues. Which of the following is a binocular cue?
A. interposition
B. convergence
C. motion parallax
D. linear perspective

Answer 23

B. convergence

EXPLANATION

EPPP-F1-PHY-Sensation and Perception-13 Answer B is correct. Binocular cues depend on both eyes and include retinal disparity and convergence. Monocular cues depend on one eye and include the relative size of objects, the overlap (interposition) of objects, linear perspective, texture gradients, and the relative motion of objects (motion parallax).

Question 24

In the second phase of higher-order conditioning:
A. a neutral stimulus is paired with the US.
B. a neutral stimulus is paired with the CS.
C. the CS is paired with a second US
D. the US is paired with a second CS

Answer 24

B. a neutral stimulus is paired with the CS.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-F1-LEA-Classical Conditioning-02 Answer B is correct. Higher-order conditioning involves treating the initial conditioned stimulus as an unconditioned stimulus and pairing it with a neutral stimulus so that the neutral stimulus also becomes a conditioned stimulus and elicits a conditioned response when presented alone. Note that, when higher-order conditioning involves a second conditioned stimulus, it’s also referred to as second-order conditioning; and, when it involves a third conditioned stimulus, it’s also referred to as third-order conditioning.

Question 25

One of the questions included in a survey asks employees to rate the degree to which the processes used by the company to make decisions about employee raises, bonuses, and promotions are fair. This question assesses employees’ perceptions about which of the following? A. distributive justice B. procedural justice C. normative justice D. interactional justice

Answer 25

B. procedural justice EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-25 Answer B is correct. A distinction is made between three types of organizational justice: distributive, procedural, and interactional. Procedural justice refers to the fairness of the procedures and processes used to determine outcomes.

Question 26

In a positively skewed distribution of scores, the __________ is the lowest score and the __________ is the highest score. A. mode; mean B. mean; mode C. median; mean D. mean; median

Answer 26

A. mode; mean EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-RMS-Types of Variables and Data-01 Answer A is correct. Skewed distributions are asymmetrical with most scores “piled up” in one tail of the distribution and a few scores in the other tail: In a positively skewed distribution, the few scores are in the positive tail (the high end of the distribution); in a negatively skewed distribution, the few scores are in the negative tail (the low end of the distribution) – i.e., the “tail tells the tale.” In both distributions, the mean, median, and mode do not equal the same value: Instead, the mean is in the tail with the few scores, the median is in the middle, and the mode is in the tail containing most of the scores. Consequently, in a positively skewed distribution, the mean is the highest score, the median is the middle score, and the mode is the lowest score. Conversely, in a negatively skewed distribution, the mean is the lowest score, the median is the middle score, and the mode is the highest score.

Question 27

As described by Bronfenbrenner’s ecological theory, a parent’s workplace, the child’s extended family, and the mass media are part of the child’s: A. mesosystem. B. exosystem. C. microsystem. D. macrosystem.

Answer 27

B. exosystem. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LIF-Early Influences on Development – Nature vs. Nurture-02 Answer B is correct. Ecological theory distinguishes between five environmental systems that impact a child’s development: microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, macrosystem, and chronosystem. The exosystem consists of elements in the environment that the child is not in direct contact with but affect the child’s immediate environment. These elements include the parents’ places of work, the extended family, neighbors, mass media, and community health services.

Question 28

A psychologist is developing a reading achievement test for middle school students. She’s likely to obtain the highest reliability for the test if it: A. contains 50 items and the examinees in her tryout sample are homogeneous with regard to reading ability. B. contains 50 items and examinees in her tryout sample are heterogeneous with regard to reading ability. C. contains 25 items and the examinees in her tryout sample are homogeneous with regard to reading ability. D. contains 25 items and examinees in her tryout sample are heterogeneous with regard to reading ability.

Answer 28

B. contains 50 items and examinees in her tryout sample are heterogeneous with regard to reading ability. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-03 Answer B is correct. Longer tests tend to be more reliable than shorter tests, and reliability coefficients are higher when the range of scores obtained by examinees is unrestricted – i.e., when examinees are heterogeneous with regard to the attribute measured by the test.

Question 29

You receive a written request from a former client to send a copy of her file to another psychologist. The client stopped coming to therapy six weeks ago and has not paid for her last two sessions even though you’ve sent her a letter requesting that she do so. Being familiar with ethical guidelines for this situation, you know that withholding a client’s record for nonpayment of fees is: A. always unethical when the record is needed for the client’s treatment. B. always unethical when the record is needed for the client’s emergency treatment. C. ethical only when the client has not responded to multiple requests for payment. D. ethical if the client was informed of this practice during the informed consent process.

Answer 29

B. always unethical when the record is needed for the client’s emergency treatment. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-12 Answer B is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 6.03 of the APA Ethics Code and Standards II.1 and II.2 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 6.03 states that “psychologists may not withhold records under their control that are requested and needed for a client’s/patient’s emergency treatment solely because payment has not been received.” (Note that withholding client records for nonpayment of fees in any situation may be illegal or inconsistent with institutional regulations, but this question is asking specifically about ethical guidelines.)

Question 30

A reformulated version of the dopamine hypothesis proposes that the negative symptoms of schizophrenia are due to: A. dopamine hyperactivity in certain subcortical areas. B. dopamine hypoactivity in certain subcortical areas. C. dopamine hyperactivity in certain cortical areas. D. dopamine hypoactivity in certain cortical areas.

Answer 30

D. dopamine hypoactivity in certain cortical areas. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-04 Answer D is correct. The research has not provided entirely consistent results but suggests that the factors that contribute to the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia differ: One theory is that the positive symptoms are due to dopamine hyperactivity in subcortical regions of the brain (especially in certain striatal areas), while the negative symptoms are due to dopamine hypoactivity in cortical regions (especially in the prefrontal cortex). See, e.g., R. Kuepper, M. Skinbjerg, and A. Abi-Dargham, The dopamine dysfunction in schizophrenia revisited: New insights into topography and course, in G. Gross and M. A. Geyer (Eds.), Current antipsychotics (pp. 1-26), New York, Springer, 2012.

Question 31

The results of previous research suggest that people who donate money to the Red Cross or other charity to help victims of a disaster are most likely to continue donating money during the next year if the reason they originally donated money was: A. to relieve their own distress caused by the disaster. B. to help relieve the distress of the victims of the disaster. C. because they know a victim of the disaster. D. because they believe it’s their civic responsibility to do so.

Answer 31

B. to help relieve the distress of the victims of the disaster. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-SOC-Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-14 Answer B is correct. This is a difficult question because it refers to a specific study without naming the study. However, if you know that the empathy-altruism hypothesis for prosocial behavior has been found to be more accurate than the negative state relief model, you may have been able to make an “educated guess.” The previous research mentioned in the question was conducted by R. L. Piferi, R. L. Jobe, and W. H. Jones. They found that subjects in their study gave several reasons for donating money or providing other assistance to victims of 9/11 but the altruistic motivation (helping to improve the victims’ well-being) was most predictive of future donations and assistance [Giving to others during national tragedy: The effects of altruistic and egoistic motivations in long-term giving, Journal of Social and Personal Relationships, 23(1), 171-184, 2006].

Question 32

According to Piaget, deferred imitation first becomes evident when babies are between 18 and 24 months of age as the result of which of the following? A. object permanence B. mental representations C. equilibration D. transductive reasoning

Answer 32

B. mental representations EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LIF-Cognitive Development-12 Answer B is correct. Deferred imitation is the ability to imitate a complex action after a period of time when the model is no longer present. According to Piaget, deferred imitation doesn’t occur until the infant can form enduring mental representations, which happens during the final substage of the sensorimotor stage when children are between 18 and 24 months of age.

Question 33

To calculate the standard error of measurement for a newly developed test, you need which of the following? A. the test’s mean and reliability coefficient B. the test’s standard deviation and the sample size C. the test’s standard deviation and validity coefficient D. the test’s standard deviation and reliability coefficient

Answer 33

D. the test’s standard deviation and reliability coefficient EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-02 Answer D is correct. A test’s standard error of measurement is used to construct a confidence interval around an examinee’s obtained score. It’s calculated by multiplying the test’s standard deviation times the square root of 1 minus its reliability coefficient.

Question 34

Following a traumatic brain injury, Carl tends to bump into things on the left side of his body and, when asked to copy a picture of a house, he draws only the right side of the house. Which of the following areas of Carl’s brain was most likely affected by the injury? A. temporal lobe B. parietal lobe C. frontal lobe D. occipital lobe

Answer 34

B. parietal lobe EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-06 Answer B is correct. Carl’s symptoms are characteristic of contralateral neglect, which is caused by damage to the parietal lobe (most often the right parietal lobe). A person with this disorder neglects the side of his/her body opposite the location of the damage and is unaware of objects on that side of his/her body.

Question 35

The Solomon four-group design is used to evaluate the effects of _________ on a study’s internal and external validity. A. history B. differential selection C. attrition D. pretesting

Answer 35

D. pretesting EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-RMS-Research – Internal/External Validity-03 Answer D is correct. Administering a pretest as a part of a research study can threaten the internal and external validity of the study. The Solomon four-group design allows a researcher to determine if the apparent effects of the independent variable on the dependent variable are due to the independent variable or due, at least in part, to exposure to the pretest (i.e., to determine if the study has internal validity). It also allows the researcher to determine if the effects of the independent variable generalize to situations in which a pretest is not administered (i.e., to determine if the study has external validity).

Question 36

Marcia’s (1966) identity development model identifies four identity statuses that differ with regard to: A. ego identity and strength. B. crisis and maturity. C. knowledge and ability. D. crisis and choice.

Answer 36

D. crisis and choice. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-18 Answer D is correct. Marcia identified four identity statuses (diffusion, moratorium, foreclosure, and achievement) that describe identity development in adolescence, with a person’s status being determined by whether or not the person has experienced an identity crisis and made choices with regard to his/her identity (e.g., has chosen a career).

Question 37

The Taylor-Russell tables are used to obtain an estimate of a predictor’s: A. criterion-related validity. B. incremental validity. C. likelihood of causing adverse impact. D. susceptibility to the effects of measurement error.

Answer 37

B. incremental validity. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Employee Selection – Evaluation of Techniques-08 Answer B is correct. The Taylor-Russell tables are used to obtain an estimate of a predictor’s incremental validity for various combinations of criterion-related validity coefficients, base rates, and selection ratios.

Question 38

Fred and Ethel can expect that their newborn infant will begin each sleep period with active sleep, which is most similar to ________ sleep in adults. A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2 C. Stages 3 and 4 D. REM

Answer 38

D. REM EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Memory and Sleep-15 Answer D is correct. Newborn infants sleep longer than older children and adults do, spend more time in active (REM) sleep, and begin the sleep period with active sleep that’s followed by quiet (non-REM) sleep.

Question 39

The behavioral technique known as successive approximation conditioning is also known as: A. shaping. B. chaining. C. higher-order conditioning. D. prompting.

Answer 39

A. shaping. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-08 Answer A is correct. Shaping is also known as successive approximation conditioning because it involves reinforcing successive approximations to the desired behavior until the desired behavior is established.

Question 40

According to Donn Byrne’s (1971) law of attraction, we’re most likely to be attracted to people who: A. are competent after they’ve committed a small blunder. B. initially dislike us but change their minds once they get to know us. C. are familiar because we encounter them frequently. D. provide us with more reinforcement than punishment.

Answer 40

D. provide us with more reinforcement than punishment. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-SOC-Affiliation, Attraction, and Intimacy-11 Answer D is correct. Byrne’s (1971) law of attraction proposes that we’re attracted to people who provide us with more reinforcement than punishment. It also predicts that there’s a positive relationship between attitude similarity and attraction since interacting with people who have similar attitudes is reinforcing because it validates our views and produces good feelings.

Question 41

The 2016 National Survey of Drug Use and Health found that the largest percentage of respondents ages 12 to 17 reported using which of the following in the past month and past year? A. cigarettes B. psychotherapeutics (nonmedical use) C. alcohol D. marijuana

Answer 41

C. alcohol EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LIF-Physical Development-07 Answer C is correct. Consistent with prior surveys, the 2016 National Survey of Drug Use and Health (SAMHSA, 2017) found that the largest percentage of individuals ages 12 to 17 said they used alcohol during the previous month and the previous year. (Note that this is also true for individuals ages 18 to 25 and ages 26 and older, with individuals in these age groups reporting even higher rates of alcohol use than individuals ages 12 to 17.)

Question 42

A new psychology instructor concludes that she must be “an incredibly boring and incompetent teacher” because, during her first introductory psychology class, two of the 65 students in the class walked out of the lecture hall before the period was over. As described by Aaron Beck, the teacher’s conclusion illustrates which of the following? A. emotional reasoning B. arbitrary inference C. magnification D. personalization

Answer 42

B. arbitrary inference EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-16 Answer B is correct. Beck described arbitrary inference as a cognitive distortion that occurs when a person draws a conclusion based on inadequate evidence.

Question 43

The numerator of the F-ratio produced by a one-way ANOVA is a measure of variability in dependent variable scores that’s due to: A. treatment effects only. B. error only. C. treatment effects plus error. D. treatment effects minus error.

Answer 43

C. treatment effects plus error. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-11 Answer C is correct. The F-ratio is calculated by dividing the mean square between (MSB) by the mean square within (MSW). MSB is a measure of variability due to a combination of treatment effects plus error, while MSW is a measure of variability due to error only. When MSB is divided by MSW, this produces the F-ratio which provides an estimate of treatment effects.

Question 44

Several studies have found that extreme scores on the F, K, and L scales of the MMPI-2 distinguish between parents going through child custody evaluations who do and do not have symptoms of which of the following? A. substance use disorder B. parental alienation syndrome C. borderline personality disorder D. malingering

Answer 44

B. parental alienation syndrome EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PAS-MMPI-2-01 Answer B is correct. Several studies have found that parents undergoing child custody evaluations who have symptoms of parental alienation syndrome are more likely than those without symptoms to respond defensively to the MMPI-2 as evidenced by higher-than-normal scores on the L and K scales and lower-than-normal scores on the F scale. See, e.g., R. M. Gordon, R. Stoffey, and J. Bottenelli, MMPI-2 findings of primitive defenses in alienating parents, The American Journal of Family Therapy, 36, 211-228, 2008.

Question 45

Carstensen, Gottman, and Levenson (1995) investigated the emotional climate of long-term marriages and found that __________ married couples engaged in less negative start-up sequences than other married couples. A. dissatisfied middle-aged B. dissatisfied older C. satisfied middle-aged D. satisfied older

Answer 45

B. dissatisfied older EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-22 Answer B is correct. L. L. Carstensen, J. M. Gottman, and R. W. Levenson found that dissatisfied older married couples were less likely than dissatisfied middle-aged couples and satisfied older and middle-aged couples to engage in “negative start up” – i.e., they were less likely to respond to their partners’ expressions of neutral affect with expressions of anger, disgust, or other negative emotions during discussions. Based on this finding, these investigators conclude that older dissatisfied married couples have gained some control over the expression and escalation of negative emotions in their interactions [Emotional behavior in long-term marriage, Psychology and Aging, 10(1), 140-149, 1995].

Question 46

While developing a new test of job knowledge, a test developer administers the test items to a sample of 50 recently hired employees. Based on the results, he eliminates a few items and changes several other items to increase the test’s reliability and validity. When he readministers the test along with a measure of job performance to the same sample, he obtains a criterion-related validity coefficient of .65. If he then administers the test and measure of job performance to a different sample of 50 recently hired employees, he’s most likely to obtain a validity coefficient that is: A. greater than .65. B. less than .65. C. greater or less than .65. D. equal to .65.

Answer 46

B. less than .65. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-TES-Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-10 Answer B is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you have to recognize that the test developer cross-validated the test when she administered it to a new sample and know that validity coefficients tend to be lower for the cross-validation sample than for the original sample. This is referred to as “shrinkage,” and it occurs because all the chance factors that contributed to the correlation between the job knowledge test (predictor) and measure of job performance (criterion) for the sample that was used to develop the test are not likely to be present in the cross-validation sample.

Question 47

In the context of divorce, the “sleeper effect” refers to: A. the delayed negative effects of parental divorce on boys that become apparent when they form friendships in high school. B. the delayed negative effects of parental divorce on girls that become apparent when they’re establishing romantic relationships in late adolescence and young adulthood. C. the negative effects of parental remarriage on girls that do not become apparent until late adolescence. D. the positive effects of parental remarriage on boys that become apparent during early adolescence.

Answer 47

B. the delayed negative effects of parental divorce on girls that become apparent when they’re establishing romantic relationships in late adolescence and young adulthood. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LIF-School and Family Influences-24 Answer B is correct. Wallerstein and Blakeslee (1989) reported that many of the girls in their studies seemed to adjust well to the divorce of their parents during childhood but then developed emotional and behavioral problems in late adolescence and adulthood – e.g., they engaged in risky and self-destructive behaviors, became sexually promiscuous and involved in unsatisfactory relationships, and were excessively worried about betrayal and abandonment in close relationships.

Question 48

The term “shrinking retrograde amnesia” refers to: A. the tendency of remote long-term memories to be affected more than recent memories by a head injury. B. the tendency of recent long-term memories to be affected more than remote memories by a head injury. C. the return of more recent long-term memories before older long-term memories following a head injury that caused retrograde amnesia. D. the return of older long-term memories before more recent long-term memories following a head injury that caused retrograde amnesia.

Answer 48

D. the return of older long-term memories before more recent long-term memories following a head injury that caused retrograde amnesia. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-19 Answer D is correct. The recovery of long-term memories following a traumatic brain injury ordinarily involves “shrinking retrograde amnesia” in which more distant (remote) memories return first.

Question 49

A person whose symptoms meet the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for alcohol withdrawal is least likely to exhibit which of the following? A. generalized tonic-clonic seizures B. nystagmus C. transient hallucinations or illusions D. autonomic hyperactivity

Answer 49

B. nystagmus EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PPA-Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders-24 Answer B is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of alcohol withdrawal requires the presence of two or more of the following symptoms after cessation or reduction of heavy and prolonged alcohol use: autonomic hyperactivity, hand tremor, insomnia, nausea or vomiting, transient hallucinations or illusions, psychomotor agitation, anxiety, and generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Nystagmus is one of the diagnostic criteria for alcohol intoxication.

Question 50

A researcher conducts a study to determine if there are gender differences in acceptance as a graduate student into the six largest departments at a university. To analyze the data she collects in this study, the researcher will use which of the following? A. one-way ANOVA B. two-way ANOVA C. single-sample chi-square test D. multiple-sample chi-square test

Answer 50

D. multiple-sample chi-square test EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-10 Answer D is correct. The first and second steps in identifying the appropriate statistical test are identifying the study’s independent and dependent variables and the scale of measurement of the dependent variable. This study has two variables – gender and department – and gender can be viewed as the independent variable and department as the dependent variable. The dependent variable – department – is a nominal variable. The chi-square test is the appropriate test for analyzing nominal data and, when a study has two or more variables, the multiple-sample chi-square test is used. Keep in mind that, for the chi-square test, you count the total number of variables regardless of whether they’re independent or dependent variables: The multiple-sample chi-square test is used when the study has two or more variables, and the single-sample chi-square test is used when a study is a descriptive study and has only one variable.

Question 51

According to Howard et al.’s (1986) dose-effect model, about _____% of therapy clients experience an improvement in symptoms by the eighth therapy session. A. 15 B. 35 C. 50 D. 75

Answer 51

C. 50 EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-19 Answer C is correct. K. I. Howard, M. S. Krause, and D. E. Orlinsky found that about 50% of psychotherapy clients show improvement by the sixth to eighth therapy session, 75% by the 26th session, and 85% after a little over a year (The dose-effect relationship in psychotherapy, American Psychologist, 41, 159-164, 1986).

Question 52

Which of the following individuals is at greatest risk for developing tardive dyskinesia as the result of taking an antipsychotic drug as a treatment for schizophrenia? A. a 70-year-old woman B. a 25-year-old woman C. a 60-year-old man D. a 20-year-old man

Answer 52

A. a 70-year-old woman EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-23 Answer A is correct. The risk for tardive dyskinesia is related to age and gender with older adults and women being at the greatest risk. Therefore, of the people listed in the answers, a 70-year-old woman is most likely to develop this disorder when taking an antipsychotic drug. See, e.g., B. Fadem and S. Simring, Psychiatry recall (2nd ed.), Philadelphia, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2004.

Question 53

According to Carl Rogers, people often respond to incongruence with which of the following? A. denial or distortion B. distortion or rationalization C. avoidance or confrontation D. a failure identity

Answer 53

A. denial or distortion EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-02 Answer A is correct. According to Rogers, people often react to incongruence between self and experience defensively by denying that the experience occurred or distorting the experience so it’s more consistent with the self.

Question 54

Which of the following measures of personality was derived from Jung’s personality typology? A. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator B. NEO Personality Inventory C. Thematic Apperception Test D. Edwards Personal Preference Schedule

Answer 54

A. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PAS-Other Measures of Personality-03 Answer A is correct. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) is based on Jung’s personality typology and provides information on four bipolar personality dimensions: introversion-extraversion (I, E), sensing-intuition (S, N), thinking-feeling (T, F), and judging-perceiving (J, P).

Question 55

Conduction aphasia is characterized by: A. impaired comprehension, fluent aphasia, anomia, and impaired repetition. B. impaired comprehension, nonfluent aphasia, anomia, and impaired repetition. C. relatively intact comprehension, fluent aphasia, anomia, and impaired repetition. D. relatively intact comprehension, nonfluent aphasia, anomia, and unimpaired repetition.

Answer 55

C. relatively intact comprehension, fluent aphasia, anomia, and impaired repetition. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-07 Answer C is correct. Conduction aphasia is characterized by relatively intact comprehension with fluent speech that contains many errors, anomia, and impaired repetition. It’s caused by damage to the arcuate fasciculus, which connects Wernicke’s area to Broca’s area.

Question 56

Research by Patterson and his colleagues at the Oregon Social Learning Center led to the development of an intervention for aggressive, antisocial behavior in children that focuses primarily on: A. identifying and replacing children’s cognitive biases. B. teaching children to monitor and control aggressive behaviors. C. teaching parents effective parenting strategies. D. improving the social bonds between parents and their children.

Answer 56

C. teaching parents effective parenting strategies. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-23 Answer C is correct. Patterson and his colleagues (e.g., Patterson, Reid, & Dishion, 1992) found that aggression and other antisocial behaviors in children were related to coercive family interactions that become progressively more coercive over time, with parents using increasingly harsh punishments and children becoming more disruptive and aggressive. Their Parent Management Training – Oregon Model (PMTO) was designed to stop this cycle by providing parents with therapy to help them deal better with stress and teaching them effective parenting skills.

Question 57

The distribution of scores obtained by 200 college undergraduates on an introductory psychology final exam is positively skewed. If the scores obtained by these students are converted to percentile ranks, the resulting distribution will be: A. normally shaped. B. positively skewed. C. flat (rectangular). D. leptokurtic.

Answer 57

C. flat (rectangular). EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-TES-Test Score Interpretation-11 Answer C is correct. Percentile rank distributions are always flat regardless of the shape of the raw score distribution because percentile ranks are evenly distributed throughout the range of scores: The same number of scores fall between the percentile ranks of 1 and 10, 11 and 20, 21 and 30, etc.

Question 58

Dr. Wendy Wundt is supervising an intern, Lloyd L., who has recently not shown up for two of his therapy appointments with clients. In addition, one of the intern’s clients has complained to Dr. Wundt that the intern sometimes seems like he’s not listening to her and has made several sexually suggestive comments during sessions. If Dr. Wundt terminates Lloyd’s internship because of these behaviors: A. she will have acted ethically because of the serious nature of Lloyd’s unacceptable behaviors. B. she will have acted ethically if she informs Lloyd of the reasons for the termination. C. she will have acted ethically only if she has directly observed Lloyd engage in unacceptable behaviors with clients. D. she will have acted ethically only if she first provides Lloyd with a plan to remediate his unacceptable behaviors and Lloyd continues to engage in those behaviors.

Answer 58

D. she will have acted ethically only if she first provides Lloyd with a plan to remediate his unacceptable behaviors and Lloyd continues to engage in those behaviors. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-19 Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with the provisions of Standard 7.06 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standard II.26 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which require psychologists to provide supervisees with timely feedback. Although neither Code directly addresses the termination of internships, doing so without having provided an intern with feedback and opportunities to correct undesirable behaviors would violate these standards and the “spirit” of the Codes. Note that answer C is not the best answer because, while supervisors should base their evaluations of interns on actual behaviors rather than hearsay (e.g., on behaviors they have actually observed), observation of the behaviors would not be sufficient justification for terminating an internship without providing the intern with feedback and a remediation plan.

Question 59

The Strong Interest Inventory (SII) provides scores on all the following general occupational themes except: A. realistic. B. social. C. investigative. D. creative.

Answer 59

D. creative. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PAS-Interest Inventories-12 Answer D is correct. The SII includes several scales including General Occupational Themes, which provides scores on Holland’s six occupational themes: realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional. (Although creative is a synonym for artistic, creative is the best answer to this question because it’s not identical to the name of the theme assessed by the SII.)

Question 60

The risk for developing agranulocytosis, a potentially fatal blood disorder, is greatest for which of the following antipsychotic drugs? A. chlorpromazine B. fluphenizine C. risperidone D. clozapine

Answer 60

D. clozapine EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-22 Answer D is correct. Agranulocytosis is a potential side effect of several antipsychotics but most often occurs with clozapine use. See, e.g., W. Austin and M. A. Boyd, Psychiatric and mental health nursing for Canadian practice (2nd ed.), Philadelphia, Wolters Kluwer/Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2010.

Question 61

A child who has received a diagnosis of ADHD will likely obtain the lowest score on the WISC-V’s: A. Working Memory Index. B. Visual Spatial Index. C. Processing Speed Index. D. Verbal Comprehension Index.

Answer 61

C. Processing Speed Index. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-05 Answer C is correct. Children with ADHD included in the WISC-V standardization sample obtained the lowest mean score on the Processing Speed Index followed by, in order from lowest to highest score, the Working Memory, Fluid Reasoning, Visual Spatial, and Verbal Comprehension Indexes (D. Wechsler, WISC-V: Technical and interpretive manual supplement, Bloomington, MN, PsychCorp, 2014).

Question 62

The predictions made by McGregor (1960) about Theory X and Theory Y managers is most consistent with which of the following? A. self-fulfilling prophecy effect B. Hawthorne effect C. self-serving bias D. ultimate attribution error

Answer 62

A. self-fulfilling prophecy effect EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Organizational Theories-13 Answer A is correct. According to McGregor, a supervisor’s beliefs about subordinates’ work-related attitudes and behaviors determine how the supervisor acts toward subordinates which, in turn, affects how subordinates behave. In other words, the supervisor’s beliefs about subordinates have a self-fulfilling prophecy effect on their job performance.

Question 63

In Ainsworth’s (Ainsworth et al., 1978) “strange situation,” an infant with a(n) ____________ attachment pattern clings to his/her mother, is very upset when she leaves, and is angry and rejects her when she returns. Mothers with this attachment pattern are usually ____________. A. resistant; rejecting/unresponsive or intrusive/overstimulating B. resistant; inconsistent in their caregiving C. avoidant; rejecting/unresponsive or intrusive/overstimulating D. avoidant; inconsistent in their caregiving

Answer 63

B. resistant; inconsistent in their caregiving EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-20 Answer B is correct. A baby with insecure/resistant (ambivalent) attachment stays close to his/her mother, is distressed when she leaves, and may be angry and resist her attempts at contact when she returns. Mothers of these children are inconsistent in their caregiving.

Question 64

Multicultural awareness leads to __________ when it causes a clinician to attribute a client’s presenting problem to the client’s cultural background without considering the possibility that the problem could be due to an unrelated issue or condition. A. confirmatory bias B. fundamental attribution bias C. theme interference D. diagnostic overshadowing

Answer 64

D. diagnostic overshadowing EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-25 Answer D is correct. Diagnostic overshadowing occurs when a clinician attributes a client’s mental or physical symptoms to a salient characteristic or condition without considering that the symptoms could be due to a disorder that’s unrelated to that characteristic or condition. Cultural/racial overshadowing is a type of diagnostic overshadowing that occurs when a clinician assumes that a client’s presenting problem is due to the client’s cultural or racial background and doesn’t consider the possibility that it’s due to an unrelated factor. See, e.g., N. N. Singh (Ed.), Handbook of evidence-based practices in intellectual and developmental disabilities (pp. 11-40), Switzerland, Springer International, 2016.

Question 65

Compared to cones, rods are more: A. important for color vision. B. important for peripheral vision. C. responsible for visual acuity. D. responsible for vision in bright light.

Answer 65

B. important for peripheral vision. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Sensation and Perception-12 Answer B is correct. Cones and rods are the two types of photoreceptors in the eye. Cones work best in bright light and are responsible for visual acuity (sharpness and precise detail) and the perception of color. Rods do not perceive color but are most important for peripheral vision and are responsible for vision in dim light.

Question 66

When a predictor has a reliability coefficient of .64, you can conclude that its criterion-related validity coefficient can be no larger than: A. .36. B. .64. C. .80. D. 1.0.

Answer 66

C. .80. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-TES-Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-09 Answer C is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know that a predictor’s criterion-related validity coefficient can be no larger than the square root of its reliability coefficient. When the predictor’s reliability coefficient is .64, this means it’s validity coefficient can be no larger than the square root of .64, which is .80. Note that, on the EPPP, if you have to determine the square root of a number, it will be an “easy” number like .81, .64, or .49. You do NOT have to know how to calculate a square root.

Question 67

Which of the following is ordinarily one of the last self-conscious emotions to emerge? A. guilt B. embarrassment C. jealousy D. empathy

Answer 67

A. guilt EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-21 Answer A is correct. Embarrassment, envy (jealousy), and empathy are the first self-conscious emotions to emerge at about 18 to 24 months of age. These emotions are followed by pride, shame, and guilt at about 30 to 36 months of age.

Question 68

Donald Super’s life-space/life-span career theory is based on the assumption that people choose careers that reflect their: A. basic needs. B. basic interests. C. career concepts. D. self-concepts.

Answer 68

D. self-concepts. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Career Choice and Development-11 Answer D is correct. Self-concept is a central concept in Super’s theory and refers to how people perceive themselves and their situations. According to Super, a person’s self-concept influences and is influenced by his/her career development process and is the major determinant of the person’s career decisions.

Question 69

Reality therapy is based on choice theory which proposes that people have five genetically encoded needs. These needs include all the following except: A. survival. B. freedom. C. intimacy. D. power.

Answer 69

C. intimacy. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-04 Answer C is correct. The five basic innate needs identified by choice theory are love and belonging, power, fun, freedom, and survival. Although “intimacy” might be considered a substitute for “love and belonging,” it’s not the correct answer because the other three answers are identical to the language associated with choice theory and reality therapy.

Question 70

Research suggests that which of the following is the most effective treatment for migraine headache? A. temperature biofeedback B. neurofeedback C. temperature biofeedback plus relaxation training D. neurofeedback plus relaxation training

Answer 70

C. temperature biofeedback plus relaxation training EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-18 Answer C is correct. The research has not provided entirely consistent results, but most studies have found that the combination of temperature (thermal) biofeedback and relaxation training (e.g., autogenic training) is more effective than either intervention alone. Note that there’s also evidence that blood-volume pulse feedback is even more effective than the combination of temperature biofeedback and relaxation training. See, e.g., Y. Nestoriuc and A. Martin, Efficacy of biofeedback for migraine: A meta-analysis, Pain, 128, 111-127, 2007

Question 71

A young child uses the word “dog” to refer only to the family dog and not to other dogs. This is an example of which of the following? A. holophrastic error B. telegraphic error C. underextension D. under-regularization

Answer 71

C. underextension EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LIF-Language Development-09 Answer C is correct. Underextension occurs when children apply a word only to a specific person, object, or event rather than to all of the people, objects, or events it applies to. In contrast, overextension occurs when children use a word too broadly – i.e., when they apply it to people, objects, or events it does not apply to.

Question 72

According to Kirkpatrick’s (1998) evaluation model, ___________ criteria provide the least valuable information about the effects of a training program. A. results B. behavior C. reaction D. learning

Answer 72

C. reaction EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Training Methods and Evaluation-10 Answer C is correct. Kirkpatrick’s evaluation model distinguishes between four levels of training program evaluation that can be arranged in order from least to most informative: reaction criteria, learning criteria, behavior criteria, and results criteria.

Question 73

According to Janis (1982) groupthink is least likely to occur when the group leader: A. offers his/her opinion about the best solution to the problem at the beginning of the group meeting. B. encourages each group member to express his/her opinion during group meetings. C. fosters and supports a high degree of group cohesiveness when the group is first formed. D. assigns the role of facilitator to the most experienced group member.

Answer 73

B. encourages each group member to express his/her opinion during group meetings. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Organizational Decision-Making-21 Answer B is correct. Janis proposes that group leaders can reduce the risk for groupthink by remaining neutral in the beginning of a discussion, encouraging members to express their opinions, appointing a member to play devil’s advocate, and bringing in outside opinions.

Question 74

Research investigating the accuracy of the Mini-Mental State Exam (MMSE) for identifying neurocognitive disorder suggests that it produces: A. similar rates of false positives for European Americans, African Americans, and Hispanic Americans. B. a higher rate of false positives for European Americans than for African Americans and Hispanic Americans. C. higher rates of false positives for African Americans and Hispanic Americans than for European Americans. D. higher rates for false positives for African Americans and Hispanic American than for European Americans only when education level is not controlled.

Answer 74

C. higher rates of false positives for African Americans and Hispanic Americans than for European Americans. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PAS-Clinical Tests-09 Answer C is correct. In their frequently cited study, M. Bohnstedt, P. J. Fox, and N. D. Kohatsu found that older European American adults obtained MMSE scores less indicative of neurocognitive disorder than did older African American and Hispanic American adults even when education level, occupation, age, sex, and other variables were controlled. However, there were no differences among these groups when diagnoses were made by clinicians [Correlates of Mini-Mental Status Examination scores among elderly demented patients: The influence of race-ethnicity, Journal of Clinical Epidemiology, 47(12), 1381-1387, 1994].

Question 75

When reading text that has multiple typographical errors, you don’t notice the errors and are able to read and understand the text’s meaning. This ability is best explained by which of the following? A. bottom-up processing B. top-down processing C. serial processing D. parallel processing

Answer 75

B. top-down processing EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Sensation and Perception-11 Answer B is correct. The ability to read and understand text that contains multiple errors is attributable to top-down processing which occurs when the brain uses pre-existing knowledge and expectations to interpret perceptual information. When reading text with typographical errors, you may not even notice the errors because you unconsciously and automatically correct them while reading.

Question 76

With regard to stimulus control, a positive discriminative stimulus: A. is a secondary reinforcer. B. is a backup reinforcer. C. signals that a behavior will not be reinforced. D. signals that a behavior will be reinforced.

Answer 76

D. signals that a behavior will be reinforced. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LEA-Operant Conditioning-05 Answer D is correct. A positive discriminative stimulus signals that reinforcement will be delivered following the performance of a particular behavior, while a negative discriminative stimulus signals that reinforcement will not be delivered.

Question 77

According to Gaertner and Dovidio (1986), aversive racism is characterized by a: A. belief that minorities violate traditional American values. B. desire to maintain the status quo. C. combination of egalitarian values and anti-minority feelings. D. combination of personal self-interest and group identity.

Answer 77

C. combination of egalitarian values and anti-minority feelings. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-SOC-Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-13 Answer C is correct. Aversive racism is a form of covert (subtle) racism that combines a belief in egalitarian principles and support for racial equality with negative attitudes and emotions toward members of a racial minority group. Note that answer A describes symbolic racism which is another form of covert racism.

Question 78

Which of the following is least likely to be a symptom of a stroke involving the middle cerebral artery? A. expressive aphasia B. bilateral vision loss C. contralateral ataxia and weakness D. apraxia

Answer 78

B. bilateral vision loss EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-20 Answer B is correct. Symptoms of a stroke involving the middle cerebral artery often include those listed in answers A, C, and D. Vision loss is associated with strokes that involve the posterior cerebral artery, which supplies blood to the occipital lobe (i.e., the lobe that contains the visual cortex).

Question 79

Dr. Hannigan has just started seeing a husband and wife in therapy. The husband’s insurance covers individual therapy but not couple or family therapy, and the couple cannot afford to pay for therapy themselves. If Dr. Hannigan bills the insurance company for individual therapy for the husband, he has acted: A. ethically since he is, in fact, providing therapy to the husband. B. ethically since the couple wouldn’t be able to pay for therapy themselves. C. ethically since this is common practice. D. unethically.

Answer 79

D. unethically. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-16 Answer D is correct. Billing an insurance company for a reimbursable form of therapy instead of the non-reimbursable form that’s actually being provided is insurance fraud and is both illegal and unethical.

Question 80

As predicted by the transtheoretical model, which of the following interventions is likely to be least useful for clients in the contemplation stage. A. dramatic relief B. self-liberation C. environmental reevaluation D. self-reevaluation

Answer 80

B. self-liberation EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Brief Therapies-05 Answer B is correct. Clients in the precontemplation or contemplation stage benefit from consciousness raising, dramatic relief, and environmental manipulation. In addition, self-reevaluation is useful for helping people in the contemplation stage transition to the preparation stage. Self-liberation is useful for helping people in the preparation stage transition to the action stage.

Question 81

To determine if “test unfairness” is the reason why a selection test is having an adverse impact on older job applicants, you would: A. compare the validity coefficients of the test for older and younger workers in the validation sample. B. compare the selection test and job performance scores obtained by older and younger workers in the validation sample. C. determine if the job performance scores obtained by older workers in the validation sample were affected by criterion contamination. D. determine if the selection test scores obtained by older and younger workers in the validation sample were affected by rater biases.

Answer 81

B. compare the selection test and job performance scores obtained by older and younger workers in the validation sample. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Employee Selection – Evaluation of Techniques-06 Answer B is correct. As defined by the EEOC, “test unfairness” occurs when members of one group consistently obtain lower scores on a selection test or other employment procedure but the score difference is not reflected in differences in scores obtained by different groups on a measure of job performance.

Question 82

The Position Analysis Questionnaire is: A. a structured questionnaire that provides the information needed to compare worker activities for different jobs. B. a structured questionnaire that provides the information needed to identify worker behaviors associated with very successful and very unsuccessful performance for a particular job. C. an open-ended questionnaire that provides the information needed to compare worker activities for different jobs. D. an open-ended questionnaire that provides the information needed to identify worker behaviors associated with very successful and very unsuccessful performance for a particular job.

Answer 82

A. a structured questionnaire that provides the information needed to compare worker activities for different jobs. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-01 Answer A is correct. The Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) is a structured worker-oriented job analysis questionnaire that addresses six categories of work activity: information input, mental processes, work output, relationships with other people, job context, and other characteristics. Because these activities are general, the PAQ can be used for a variety of jobs, and it allows an employer to compare activities across different jobs.

Question 83

An accumulation of neuritic plaques and neurofibrillary tangles in the entorhinal cortex, hippocampus, and amygdala is associated with which of the following? A. neurocognitive disorder due to HIV infection B. neurocognitive disorder due to Parkinson’s disease C. neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease D. frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder

Answer 83

C. neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-27 Answer C is correct. Neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease has been linked to a progressive accumulation of extracellular amyloid-predominant neuritic plaques and intracellular tau-predominant neurofibrillary tangles in the areas of the brain listed in this question.

Question 84

The scores obtained by 35 students on a math exam and a physics exam are converted to ranks. To determine the degree of association between the two sets of ranks, the appropriate correlation coefficient is which of the following? A. biserial B. point biserial C. Spearman D. Pearson

Answer 84

C. Spearman EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-RMS-Correlation and Regression-06 Answer C is correct. Knowing that “Spearman” refers to the Spearman rank-order correlation coefficient would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. As its name suggests, it’s used to determine the correlation between rank-ordered data.

Question 85

There’s some evidence that the brains of children with comorbid ADHD and Tourette’s disorder differ with regard to the size of certain regions in the __________ from the brains of children with Tourette’s disorder only. A. hypothalamus B. reticular activating system C. pons D. basal ganglia

Answer 85

D. basal ganglia EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-02 Answer D is correct. Knowing that abnormalities in the basal ganglia have been linked to both ADHD and Tourette’s disorder would have helped you to identify the correct answer even if you’re unfamiliar with the specific research addressed in this question. While the research is not entirely consistent, there’s some evidence that the caudate nucleus and other structures of the basal ganglia are smaller in individuals with comorbid Tourette’s disorder and ADHD than they are in individuals with Tourette’s disorder only. See, e.g., B. S. Peterson, Neuroimaging studies of Tourette syndrome: A decade of progress. Advances in Neurology, 85, 179-196, 2001.

Question 86

An advocate of __________ is most likely to agree that time-and-motion studies are an effective way to identify the best way to perform a job. A. Katz and Kahn’s open-system theory B. Taylor’s scientific management C. McGregor’s Theory X D. Herzberg’s two-factor theory

Answer 86

B. Taylor’s scientific management EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Organizational Theories-14 Answer B is correct. Taylor (1911), the founder of scientific management, identified several management practices that he believed would maximize organizational efficiency and productivity. One of these is using scientific methods (e.g., time-and-motion studies) to determine the best way to do a job.

Question 87

According to Sherif and Hovland’s (1961) social judgment theory, an “internal anchor” is: A. a person’s attitude toward an issue prior to hearing a persuasive message about that issue. B. the route (central or peripheral) a person uses when listening to a persuasive message. C. a person’s level of mental discomfort when faced with conflicting attitudes or a conflicting attitude and behavior. D. the strength of a person’s attitude before being exposed to arguments against his/her position and counterarguments that refute those arguments.

Answer 87

A. a person’s attitude toward an issue prior to hearing a persuasive message about that issue. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-05 Answer A is correct. Social judgment theory is based on the assumption that the effectiveness of a persuasive message depends on a person’s current position (the person’s internal anchor), and it distinguishes between three “latitudes” that represent different degrees of similarity between the person’s position and the position advocated by a persuasive message. If you aren’t familiar with the term “internal anchor,” you may have been able to identify this answer as the correct one using the process of elimination: Central and peripheral routes (answer B) are addressed by the elaboration likelihood model, mental discomfort caused by conflicting attitudes and a conflicting attitude and behavior (answer C) is addressed by cognitive dissonance theory, and providing a person with weak arguments against his/her attitude and counterarguments refuting those arguments (answer D) is relevant to the attitude inoculation hypothesis.

Question 88

The involuntary, jerky movements associated with Huntington’s disease are caused by deterioration of cells in which of the following? A. suprachiasmatic nucleus B. cerebellum C. globus pallidus D. pons

Answer 88

C. globus pallidus EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-21 Answer C is correct. Even if you’re unfamiliar with the specific area of the brain associated with the involuntary, jerky movements characteristic of Huntington’s disease, knowing that Huntington’s disease has been linked to abnormalities in the basal ganglia and that the globus pallidus is one of the basal ganglia structures would have enabled you to identify the correct answer to this question.

Question 89

Of the dopaminergic pathways, the ________ pathway is known to be most important for emotion and mood, motivation, and reinforcement. A. mesocortical B. mesolimbic C. tuberoinfundibular D. nigrostriatal

Answer 89

B. mesolimbic EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Nervous System, Neurons, and Neurotransmitters-08 Answer B is correct. If you’re unfamiliar with the pathways listed in the answers, you may have been able to identify the correct answer (mesolimbic pathway) as long as you recalled that the limbic system is responsible for various aspects of emotion. The mesolimbic pathway is also referred to as the reward circuit because it’s involved in reward-seeking behaviors, including addiction to certain drugs (e.g., nicotine and opiates). The mesocortical pathway is involved in executive cognitive functions; the tuberoinfundibular pathway is involved in hormone regulation; and the nigrostriatal pathway is involved in the production of movement.

Question 90

Which of the following is most useful for identifying the behavioral anchors that are incorporated into behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS)? A. needs analysis B. organizational analysis C. paired comparison technique D. critical incident technique

Answer 90

D. critical incident technique EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-03 Answer D is correct. Knowing that behavioral anchors are descriptions of specific job behaviors that represent good, average, and poor performance would have helped you identify the critical incident technique as being most useful for developing BARS. Note that, while the critical incident technique is ordinarily used to identify extreme behaviors (i.e., very successful and very unsuccessful behaviors), the terms “critical incident” and “critical incident technique” are sometimes used more generally to refer to descriptions of specific job-related behaviors.

Question 91

According to Freud, from about three to six years of age, children are in the phallic stage of psychosexual development. For Erikson, the negative outcome for children in Freud’s phallic stage of development is which of the following? A. inferiority B. mistrust C. shame D. guilt

Answer 91

D. guilt EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-14 Answer D is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know that, in terms of age, Freud’s phallic stage corresponds to Erikson’s initiative vs. guilt stage. According to Erikson, a successful outcome of this psychosocial stage of development is a sense of purpose and direction, while the unsuccessful outcome is a sense of guilt.

Question 92

As the result of a traumatic brain injury, a 48-year-old man exhibits a number of symptoms that include poor decision-making, a lack of empathy, blunted emotional responses, and confabulation. These symptoms are most likely to be the result of damage to which region of the prefrontal cortex? A. ventromedial prefrontal cortex B. dorsolateral prefrontal cortex C. orbitofrontal cortex D. parietodorsal cortex

Answer 92

A. ventromedial prefrontal cortex EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-04 Answer A is correct. For the EPPP, you want to be familiar with the symptoms associated with damage to the three regions of the prefrontal cortex listed in answers A, B, and C. The symptoms listed in this question are characteristic of damage to the ventromedial prefrontal cortex. Damage to the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex (answer B) is likely to produce deficits in working memory, impaired judgment and insight, and poor planning ability, while damage to the orbitofrontal cortex (answer C) is likely to cause impulsivity, aggressive and antisocial behaviors, social inappropriateness, and emotional lability. The parietodorsal cortex (answer D) is not a region of the prefrontal cortex.

Question 93

Eric Kandel and his associates originally used which of the following as subjects to study neuronal changes associated with habituation, sensitization, and classical conditioning? A. rats B. cats C. sea slugs D. protozoans

Answer 93

C. sea slugs EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Memory and Sleep-14 Answer C is correct. Kandel and his associates (e.g., Kandel, 1976) used sea slugs (Aplysia) as subjects for their research on neuronal changes associated with learning and memory because sea slugs have a simple nervous system that consists of a small number of large neurons.

Question 94

Which of the following is an example of a morpheme? A. ba-ba B. sh C. do D. d

Answer 94

C. do EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LIF-Language Development-08 Answer C is correct. Morphemes are the smallest units of language that have meaning and cannot be broken down into smaller parts. They include free morphemes that can stand alone as a word (e.g., do, dog) and bound morphemes that must be combined with at least one other morpheme to form a word (e.g., ing, er). Phonemes (e.g., sh, d) are the smallest units of sound that can be understood in a language.