Test # all

Question 1

What is considered normal health?

Answer 1

normal, fully functional, homeostasis

Question 2

What does ‘Diseased’ refer to?

Answer 2

‘Diseased’ refers to a state of being not normal.

Question 3

What are the three classifications of disease?

Answer 3

Subclinical, Clinical, and Terminal.

Question 4

What is Subclinical disease?

Answer 4

Subclinical disease is below the visible symptoms, often undetected until after the fact.

Question 5

What is Clinical disease?

Answer 5

Clinical disease is characterized by visible symptoms such as coughing, temperature, and sneezing.

Question 6

What is Terminal disease?

Answer 6

Terminal disease is a condition that will lead to death, sometimes resulting in euthanasia.

Question 7

What does Endemic mean?

Answer 7

Endemic refers to common sicknesses that naturally circulate, like the flu.

Question 8

What is an Epidemic?

Answer 8

An Epidemic is a new introduction of disease to a naive population where the entire population is susceptible.

Question 9

What is a Pandemic?

Answer 9

A Pandemic is an epidemic that crosses natural barriers and affects a worldwide population.

Question 10

What are the causes of diseases?

Answer 10

Causes of diseases include genetic, infectious, nutritional, toxic, parasitic, hormonal, injury, and mismanagement.

Question 11

What are anti-disease measures?

Answer 11

Anti-disease measures include prevention and control methods such as sanitation, prophylaxis, vaccination, biosecurity, and disinfection.

Question 12

What is Metaphylactic treatment?

Answer 12

Metaphylactic treatment involves treating a whole herd to minimize the outbreak of disease, regardless of individual illnesses.

Question 13

What is Therapeutic treatment?

Answer 13

Therapeutic treatment is aimed at individuals.

Question 14

What are the capabilities of infectious agents?

Answer 14

Infectious agents can reproduce, survive in the environment or host defenses, be transmitted, and cause disease.

Question 15

What is Quorum sensing?

Answer 15

Quorum sensing describes communication between bacteria populations.

Question 16

What are spore-formers?

Answer 16

Spore-formers are a type of bacteria involved in quorum sensing.

Question 17

What are the environmental controls for bacteria?

Answer 17

Environmental controls for bacteria include sanitation and disinfectants.

Question 18

What are the animal controls for bacteria?

Answer 18

Animal controls include vaccines, bacterins, and toxoids.

Question 19

What is the role of the immune system in the body?

Answer 19

The immune system protects against infectious agents through various mechanisms.

Question 20

What is antibiotic resistance?

Answer 20

Antibiotic resistance occurs when bacteria change target sites to avoid being attacked by antibiotics.

Question 21

How do viruses reproduce?

Answer 21

Viruses must invade a host cell to reproduce, which kills the host cell.

Question 22

What are RNA viruses known for?

Answer 22

RNA viruses are more easily mutable and harder to create effective vaccines for.

Question 23

What are DNA viruses known for?

Answer 23

DNA viruses are more genetically stable and easier to create effective vaccines for.

Question 24

What are the three options for viruses to move within an infected animal?

Answer 24

The three options are viremia, intercellular bridge, and syncytial cell formation.

Question 25

What environment do viruses dislike?

Answer 25

Viruses dislike dry and hot conditions and are susceptible to disinfectants and sunlight.

Question 26

What are parasites?

Answer 26

Parasites are organisms that live on or in other hosts at the expense of the host.

Question 27

What is the lifecycle of Ostertagia Ostertagi?

Answer 27

Ostertagia Ostertagi, known as the brown stomach worm, has a direct lifecycle and causes significant losses in cattle.

Question 28

What is hypobiosis in parasites?

Answer 28

Hypobiosis is a state where parasites receive signals from the environment to determine if conditions are suitable for survival.

Question 29

What are the effects of worm damage on cattle?

Answer 29

Worm damage can lead to reduced feed intake, impaired nutrient utilization, and decreased immunity.

Question 30

Why is deworming important?

Answer 30

Deworming enhances performance, reproduction, milk production, feed efficiency, and weight gain.

Question 31

What is the economic impact of parasites in the cattle industry?

Answer 31

The economic impact is approximately 2 billion dollars lost per year due to decreased productivity and increased expenses.

Question 32

What are external parasites?

Answer 32

External parasites have direct effects on animals and can act as vectors for diseases.

Question 33

What is resistance in the context of parasites?

Answer 33

Resistance occurs when the intended target does not respond to treatment anymore.

Question 34

What are the primary functions of the immune system?

Answer 34

The primary functions are antibody production, cell-mediated immunity, and stimulating memory.

Question 35

What are the two parts of the immune system?

Answer 35

The two parts are the innate (non-specific) and adaptive (specific) immune systems.

Question 36

What is the difference between MLV and killed vaccines?

Answer 36

MLV (modified live vaccines) stimulate full CMI, while killed vaccines are safer but require multiple doses.

Question 37

What is biosecurity?

Answer 37

Biosecurity involves steps taken to reduce the risk of introducing disease from outside sources.

Question 38

What is the pre-patent period?

Answer 38

The pre-patent period is the time between pathogen exposure and the onset of disease signs.

Question 39

What are the steps for pest control in biosecurity?

Answer 39

Steps include controlling insects, minimizing visitor access, and ensuring vehicle cleanliness.

Question 40

What are the types of vaccine claims?

Answer 40

Potential vaccine claims include prevention of infection, prevention of disease, aid in disease prevention, and aid in disease control.

Question 41

What is the likelihood of immunosuppression with certain vaccines?

Answer 41

Less likely to be immunosuppressive

Question 42

What should be avoided to maintain vaccine stability?

Answer 42

Don’t let them freeze because of the adjuvant, it can cause separation which can lead to anaphylactic reactions

Question 43

What is the role of the adjuvant in vaccines?

Answer 43

The adjuvant is essential, enhances the immune response, and has improved antigen presentation

Question 44

What is the risk associated with certain vaccines?

Answer 44

Increased risk of anaphylactic reactions

Question 45

How many doses are typically required for certain vaccines?

Answer 45

Require 2 doses and more frequent vaccination

Question 46

What do both types of vaccines stimulate?

Answer 46

Both stimulate antibody and B cell memory production

Question 47

What are the types of bacterial vaccines?

Answer 47

Live vaccines, Bacterins, Toxoids, Combos, Antitoxins

Question 48

What are Bacterins?

Answer 48

Vaccines against a whole bacteria

Question 49

What are Toxoids targeted to?

Answer 49

Targeted to toxins

Question 50

What do Antitoxins do?

Answer 50

Premade antibiotics, this is not a vaccine, does not stimulate the immune system, and has no memory response

Question 51

What should be considered when vaccinating animals?

Answer 51

Not all animals respond to vaccines the same way, and we strive to protect the majority

Question 52

What are the storage conditions for vaccines?

Answer 52

Store under proper conditions (don't freeze or get too hot), read the label, protect from sunlight

Question 53

What should not be done with vaccines?

Answer 53

Don't mix vaccines together and mix up only what you can use in 1 hour

Question 54

What should be done to mark syringes?

Answer 54

Mark syringes for different vaccines

Question 55

What is important about using vaccine products?

Answer 55

Use products from original containers

Question 56

What should never be done with a used needle?

Answer 56

Never re-enter a bottle with a used needle (this will contaminate the whole bottle)

Question 57

What should not be used with MLVs?

Answer 57

Do not use disinfectant with MLVs

Question 58

Where should injections be administered?

Answer 58

Do not inject products into top butt or leg (inject all products in neck), and use SC whenever possible

Question 59

What is the triangle region used for?

Answer 59

Locate the triangle region for injections

Question 60

What should be ensured regarding needle use?

Answer 60

Make sure you are using proper needle length and diameter

Question 61

What should be observed regarding withdrawal times?

Answer 61

Observe withdrawal times (usually 21 days)

Question 62

What regulates disinfectants?

Answer 62

Regulated by the EPA

Question 63

What does 'cidal' mean?

Answer 63

Cidal means to kill

Question 64

What does 'static' mean?

Answer 64

Static means inhibit growth

Question 65

How effective are disinfectants on dirty surfaces?

Answer 65

Disinfectants don't work on dirty surfaces, you have to clean before disinfecting

Question 66

What does cleaning alone remove in a farm environment?

Answer 66

Cleaning alone removes –90% of bacteria in a farm environment

Question 67

What is necessary for disinfectants to be effective?

Answer 67

Must have sufficient contact time

Question 68

Can disinfectants be applied directly to animals?

Answer 68

Not to be applied to animals directly

Question 69

What does asepsis refer to?

Answer 69

Asepsis- you can't disinfect, just reduce the number of microbes

Question 70

what time is it

Answer 70

it's time for lunch ;)