Test of Knowledge

Question 1

When prescribing Nystatin what instructions should be given to the patient:
1 - Rinse suspension around the mouth for 2 minutes then retain suspension near the lesion for 2 minutes before swallowing
2 - Rinse suspension around the mouth for 2 minutes then retain suspension near the lesion for 2 minutes before spitting out
3 - Rinse suspension around the mouth then retain suspension near the lesion for 5 minutes before swallowing
4 - Stop use as soon as the lesions have healed
5 - Rinse suspension around the mouth then retain suspension near the lesion for 5 minutes before spitting out
6 - Remove dentures before using the drug

Answer 1

3 - Rinse suspension around the mouth then retain suspension near the lesion for 5 minutes before swallowing
6 - Remove dentures before using the drug

Question 2

After the first trimester, which of the following does not carry a caution note when prescribed for pregnant patients?
1 - Doxycycline
2 - Amoxicillin
3 - Paracetamol
4 - Ibuprofen
5 - Aspirin

Answer 2

2 - Amoxicillin
3 - Paracetamol

Question 3

Fluconazole and miconazole are contraindicated in patients taking which of the following:
1 - NSAIDs
2 - Warfarin
3 - Statins
4 - Chlorhexidene mouthwash
5 - Benzydamine mouthwash

Answer 3

2 - Warfarin
3 - Statins

Question 4

What advice would you give a patient with mucosal ulceration to whom you have prescribed chlorhexidine mouthwash?
1 - Use until lesions have resolved
2 - Spit out after rinsing
3 - Use directly after toothbrushing
4 - Use twice daily

Answer 4

1 - Use until lesions have resolved
2 - Spit out after rinsing
4 - Use twice daily

Question 5

A 54 year old patient attends who is very anxious about dental treatment and asks if it’s possible to prescribe something to manage their anxiety. After discussing it with the patient you decide that you are going to prescribe Diazepam. You should
1 - Only prescribe the minimum number required
2 - Advise the patient to take 5mg 1 hour before the procedure
3 - Start them with a 10mg dose and increase or decrease depending on how they feel
4 - Advise the patient to take 5mg 2 hours before the procedure
5 - Advise the patient that it’s OK to drive to the appointment if they don’t feel drowsy after taking the medication
6 - Double up the dose if they are having an extraction

Answer 5

1 - Only prescribe the minimum number required
4 - Advise the patient to take 5mg 2 hours before the procedure

Question 6

Which two of these antibiotics are most suitable for a 50 year old male taking methotrexate 25mg orally once per week?
1 - Metronidazole
2 - Erythromycin
3 - Doxycycline
4 - Amoxicillin

Answer 6

1 - Metronidazole
2 - Erythromycin

Question 7

A fire risk assessment should include assessment of:
1 - Phone number of the local fire station
2 - Possible fire hazards
3 - Current fire safety measure in place
4 - Location of personnel at risk if a fire breaks out
5 - Storage of flammable liquids in the practice

Answer 7

2 - Possible fire hazards
3 - Current fire safety measure in place
4 - Location of personnel at risk if a fire breaks out
5 - Storage of flammable liquids in the practice

Question 8

The hygienist at the practice is able to carry out normal day to day activities, but suffers from a mental impairment. This is defined as a disability under the Equality Act 2010
1 - True
2 - False

Answer 8

2 - False

Question 9

An 9 year old girl presents at your surgery having sustained a large, sensitive enamel-dentine fracture to her upper permanent central incisor. She attends with her Aunt with whom she is staying on holiday, her parents are not contactable.

What treatment should you carry out?
1 - No treatment
2 - Treatment you consider to be in her best interests
3 - Ideally only treatment that is reversible
4 - An examination only

Answer 9

2 - Treatment you consider to be in her best interests
3 - Ideally only treatment that is reversible

Question 10

All employers must offer a workplace pension scheme by law. As an employer, when a member of staff is in enrolled onto your pension scheme and asks to leave the scheme (also known as “opting out”) you must:
1 - let the staff member leave the pension scheme and refund money they’ve paid if they opt out within 1 month
2 - refuse to let the staff member leave the pension scheme
3 - let the staff member leave the pension scheme without refunding any monies paid in

Answer 10

1 - let the staff member leave the pension scheme and refund money they’ve paid if they opt out within 1 month

Question 11

Instruments should be inspected under an illuminated magnifier
1 - After sterilisation and prior to packaging.
2 - After cleaning and before sterilisation.
3 - If time permits.
4 - If there is visible debris is detected.

Answer 11

2 - After cleaning and before sterilisation.

Question 12

Which of the following is true regarding paracetamol?
1 - Recommended dose for a 3 year old is 240mg four times a day.
2 - Dosage should be no greater than 4g per day in a healthy adult.
3 - It is a NSAID.
4 - Sugar-free paediatric oral suspensions are available.

Answer 12

2 - Dosage should be no greater than 4g per day in a healthy adult.
4 - Sugar-free paediatric oral suspensions are available.

Question 13

Under which of the following circumstances can NHS CPD Allowance be paid to a dentist:
1 - for each list number the dentist has.
2 - for sessions of less than one hour.
3 - that is a VDP.
4 - for any number of sessions per year.
5 - CPDA approved postgraduate courses.
6 - for up to a maximum of 6 sessions in one year.
7 - for a maximum of 6 days in one year.

Answer 13

5 - CPDA approved postgraduate courses.
6 - for up to a maximum of 6 sessions in one year.

Question 14

Which of the following is/ are true of patients taking Rivaroxaban?
1 - Vitamin K can be used as a reversal agent
2 - The INR must be checked within 72 hours of the procedure
3 - Inferior dental blocks are unlikely to cause bleeding
4 - In complex extractions, that day’s doses should be taken at the normal time

Answer 14

3 - Inferior dental blocks are unlikely to cause bleeding

Question 15

In Scotland, you can re-use endo files on the same patient after they have been autoclaved.
1 - True
2 - False

Answer 15

2 - False

Question 16

You are the principal of a dental practice. A former employee, recently dismissed, phones you at the practice to complain that you dismissed them unfairly. What should you do?

Select all that apply:

1 - Contact your Health Board.
2 - Ask the former employee to make a formal written complaint.
3 - Contact the GDC for advice.
4 - Take good written notes detailing the substance of the telephone conversation.
5 - Ignore the call as you have no obligation to enter into discussion with those you do not employ.

Answer 16

2 - Ask the former employee to make a formal written complaint.
4 - Take good written notes detailing the substance of the telephone conversation.

Question 17

Which of the following are not drugs associated with Medication-related Osteonecrosis of the jaw?
1 - Ascorbic Acid
2 - Alendronic Acid
3 - Zoledronic Acid
4 - Acetic Acid
5 - Risedronate Sodium

Answer 17

1 - Ascorbic Acid
4 - Acetic Acid

Question 18

You need to recruit a replacement dental nurse. The previous employee had multiple absences leading to a disruption in the service the practice provides and so you wish to avoid a recurrence. As a preventative measure and to improve the service the practice provides you ask questions about the applicants’ health and absences from work. This is:
1 - Acceptable
2 - Illegal under the Equality Act 2010

Answer 18

2 - Illegal under the Equality Act 2010

Question 19

In relation to CPD allowance;
1 - There is a maximum claim of £1386.60 each year
2 - Courses must be organised within the NHS
3 - It can be claimed for 6 full day courses each year
4 - To qualify courses must satisfy GDC verifiable CPD requirements
5 - Abatement must be applied to the claim where the percentage of total earnings is less than 90% from GDS sources.

Answer 19

1 - There is a maximum claim of £1386.60 each year
4 - To qualify courses must satisfy GDC verifiable CPD requirements
5 - Abatement must be applied to the claim where the percentage of total earnings is less than 90% from GDS sources.

Question 20

With regards to Verifiable CPD, which of the following statements is/are true?
1 - The GDC say you must keep your verifiable CPD records for 5 years after the end of a cycle as they may wish to see it
2 - You must submit all documentary evidence of compliance to the GDC before the 20th of December every year of your CPD cycle
3 - Dentists must comply with the verifiable CPD requirements to maintain their GDC registration
4 - You must obtain certification for all verifiable CPD that you undertake
5 - Only GDC accredited providers can deliver verifiable CPD that you undertake

Answer 20

1 - The GDC say you must keep your verifiable CPD records for 5 years after the end of a cycle as they may wish to see it
3 - Dentists must comply with the verifiable CPD requirements to maintain their GDC registration
4 - You must obtain certification for all verifiable CPD that you undertake

Question 21

How should you manage a patient with epilepsy who is having a seizure?
1 - Administer oxygen if appropriate
2 - Administer glucose
3 - Restrain convulsive movements
4 - Ensure the patient is not at risk of injury
5 - Administer midazolam if fit is repeated or lasts more than 5 minutes

Answer 21

1 - Administer oxygen if appropriate
4 - Ensure the patient is not at risk of injury
5 - Administer midazolam if fit is repeated or lasts more than 5 minutes

Question 22

You have taken a crown impression that involved going subgingivally, with some blood present. Before sending it to the lab do you?:
1 - Let it air dry
2 - Spray it with alcohol
3 - Let the lab disinfect it
4 - Wipe it with a tissue
5 - Run it under a tap only
6 - Run it under cold water until visibly clean and then immerse it in a suitable disinfectant

Answer 22

6 - Run it under cold water until visibly clean and then immerse it in a suitable disinfectant

Question 23

If antibiotics are indicated to treat a spreading infection due to pericoronitis in an adult patient, which is the preferred first line antibiotic? ​
1 - Amoxicillin capsules 500mg. One tablet three times daily for 5 days ​
2 - Amoxicillin capsules 500mg. One tablet three times daily for 3 days ​
3 - Phenoxymethylpenicillin tablets 250mg. Two tablets four times daily for 5 days. ​
4 - Phenoxymethylpenicillin tablets 250mg. Two tablets four times daily for 5 days. ​
5 - Metronidazole tablets 200mg. One tablet three times daily for 5 days
6 - Metronidazole tablets 400mg. One tablet three times daily for 3 days ​

Answer 23

6 - Metronidazole tablets 400mg. One tablet three times daily for 3 days ​

Question 24

According to the NHS GDS 2010 Regulations how many hours of quality improvement activities must a dentist working within the NHS GDS do in a three-year period?
1 - None
2 - 3 hours
3 - 15 hours
4 - 25 hours

Answer 24

3 - 15 hours

Question 25

In the event that a complaint regarding NHS care cannot be resolved through your normal practice complaints procedure it may be escalated through which of the following?: 1 - The GDC Dental Complaints Service 2 - Scottish Public Services Ombudsman 3 - Health Improvement Scotland

Answer 25

2 - Scottish Public Services Ombudsman

Question 26

According to the most recently updated maternity legislation which of the following are true for pregnant employees? 1 - All pregnant staff members are entitled to 52 weeks paid maternity leave. 2 - Undertaking any work related activity during maternity leave will automatically forfeit maternity pay. 3 - To qualify for maternity pay a pregnant staff member must tell her employer by the 15th week before the expected week of childbirth that she is pregnant. 4 - Staff members on returning to work must return to the same job with the same pay and working hours.

Answer 26

3 - To qualify for maternity pay a pregnant staff member must tell her employer by the 15th week before the expected week of childbirth that she is pregnant.

Question 27

When offering an apology as part of your duty of candour: 1 - Be cautious offering an apology, as this is an admission of negligence or a breach of statutory duty 2 - The language should be clear, plain and direct 3 - Responsibility for the apology rests with the ‘responsible person’ 4 - The apology should only be offered after a full investigation and it has been established that you are in the wrong

Answer 27

2 - The language should be clear, plain and direct 3 - Responsibility for the apology rests with the ‘responsible person’

Question 28

For a continuation case where another dentist within the practice takes over the treatment of a patient 1 - You can continue to use the same GP17 form 2 - The first dentist should mark the GP17 form as “fail to return” and the new dentist should always open a new course of treatment 3 - You must keep the paper forms for two years 4 - Prior approval must always be sought before the new dentist takes over

Answer 28

1 - You can continue to use the same GP17 form

Question 29

Under IRR 17 the employer is required to register with which regulatory body?​ 1 - General Dental Council​ 2 - Practitioner Services Dental​ 3 - British Dental Association​ 4 - Health and Safety Executive​

Answer 29

4 - Health and Safety Executive​

Question 30

When taking an intra oral radiograph the minimum recommended distance for the operator from the source of ionising radiation is: 1 - 1m 2 - 1.5m 3 - 1.75m 4 - 2m

Answer 30

2 - 1.5m

Question 31

The incidence of MRONJ 1 - In patients with osteoporosis given a once yearly intravenous infusion of bisphosphonates appears to be no greater than that in patients taking the drug orally 2 - Is 1 case in 1000 in cancer patients treated with anti-resorptive drugs 3 - Is 0-10 cases per 10 000 in osteoporosis patients treated with anti-resorptive drug 4 - Is thought to be increased in patients taking anti-resorptive or anti-angiogenic drugs with prostate cancer and multiple myeloma

Answer 31

1 - In patients with osteoporosis given a once yearly intravenous infusion of bisphosphonates appears to be no greater than that in patients taking the drug orally 3 - Is 0-10 cases per 10 000 in osteoporosis patients treated with anti-resorptive drug 4 - Is thought to be increased in patients taking anti-resorptive or anti-angiogenic drugs with prostate cancer and multiple myeloma

Question 32

As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, which of the following is true about the use of composite resin restorations?​ 1 - They may be placed in anterior teeth for any patient in any circumstances​ 2 - Composite resin fillings may not be placed in posterior teeth unless the patient is under 15 years of age​ 3 - They may be placed in posterior teeth for any patient in any circumstances​

Answer 32

1 - They may be placed in anterior teeth for any patient in any circumstances​

Question 33

Patients who are exempt from payment of NHS Charges include patients who: 1 - are over 65 years old. 2 - are pregnant or nursing mothers until their baby is 12 months old. 3 - are under 26 years old. 4 - have certified exemption from payment because of low income. 5 - all patients with a certified diagnosis of diabetes.

Answer 33

2 - are pregnant or nursing mothers until their baby is 12 months old. 3 - are under 26 years old. 4 - have certified exemption from payment because of low income.

Question 34

When should each Dental Unit Water Line be flushed?​ 1 - Following an Aerosol Generating Procedure only. 2 - Only at the beginning and end of each working day. ​ 3 - At the start and the end of each working day and between patients. ​ 4 - Only at the beginning of each clinical session. ​

Answer 34

3 - At the start and the end of each working day and between patients.

Question 35

Which of the following is/are true for the disposal of non-healthcare waste? 1 - If no other suitable waste bags are available orange bags can be used for non-healthcare waste if the contractor collecting the waste is informed 2 - Non-healthcare waste cannot be collected by the local council 3 - Waste transfer records for non-healthcare waste should be retained for two years 4 - A written record of the transfer of waste is required 5 - Non-healthcare waste is colour coded as black and green stream waste

Answer 35

3 - Waste transfer records for non-healthcare waste should be retained for two years 4 - A written record of the transfer of waste is required 5 - Non-healthcare waste is colour coded as black and green stream waste

Question 36

If a patient regains consciousness following administration of glucagon, they should also be given 10-20 grams of oral glucose. True or False? 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 36

1 - True

Question 37

With appropriate training, which of the following roles can dental nurses undertake under IR(ME)R 2017? 1 - Organiser 2 - Operator 3 - Referrer 4 - Prescriber

Answer 37

? Not organiser + prescriber

Question 38

Which of the following are recognised as being ‘key stages’ in the Duty of Candour procedure? 1 - Providing the person affected with an account of the incident 2 - Arranging a meeting with the person affected / and or their family 3 - Providing a three yearly report on duty of candour 4 - Identifying an appropriate level of financial compensation for any harm caused 5 - Identifying and contacting the relevant person

Answer 38

1 - Providing the person affected with an account of the incident 2 - Arranging a meeting with the person affected / and or their family 5 - Identifying and contacting the relevant person

Question 39

As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, what is the maximum number of additional periodontal visits claimable under item 2(e) in any single course of treatment?​ 1 - 4 2 - 2 3 - 3 4 - 1

Answer 39

3 - 3

Question 40

A patient wants a bridge to replace an upper central incisor that has yet to be extracted. What is the minimum time that the SDR states you should normally wait between the extraction and the construction of the permanent bridge? 1 - 1 week 2 - 4 weeks 3 - 1 month 4 - 3 months 5 - 6 months 6 - 12 months 7 - None of the above

Answer 40

5 - 6 months

Question 41

Which of the following is/are true of GDS Enhanced Skills Allowances? 1 - An equipment allowance may be claimed in years 2 and 4 of each successive four year period in connection with Enhanced Skills Allowance 2 - Enhanced Skills Allowance is payable to any dentist working in the GDS 3 - Enhanced Skills Allowance is only payable in connection with the provision of domiciliary care.

Answer 41

3 - Enhanced Skills Allowance is only payable in connection with the provision of domiciliary care.

Question 42

The main recommendations from the 2013 Francis report of the Mid Staffordshire Trust enquiry included which of the following? 1 - Greater cohesion and staff engagement 2 - A fundamental shift to a person centred culture 3 - Administrators should ensure that the management structures remain to maintain existing processes 4 - Openness, transparency and candour should exist throughout the system 5 - Significantly increased funding for hospital services

Answer 42

1 - Greater cohesion and staff engagement 2 - A fundamental shift to a person centred culture 4 - Openness, transparency and candour should exist throughout the system

Question 43

Which of the following statements are true regarding patients taking Dabigatran (DOAC)? 1 - Low risk procedures can be carried out without any alteration to their medication regime 2 - Elective surgical extractions can be carried out without any change to medication 3 - High risk extractions requires patient to miss their morning dose 4 - Simple extractions requires patient to miss their morning dose

Answer 43

? 1 - Low risk procedures can be carried out without any alteration to their medication regime 3 - High risk extractions requires patient to miss their morning dose 4 - Simple extractions requires patient to miss their morning dose

Question 44

Hand pieces should be: 1 - Decontaminated following manufacturer's instructions (which will include cleaning and sterilisation) at the end of each session 2 - Wiped clean only after each use 3 - Processed in an ultrasonic cleaner at the end of each session 4 - Decontaminated following manufacturer's instructions (which will include cleaning and sterilisation) after each use

Answer 44

4 - Decontaminated following manufacturer's instructions (which will include cleaning and sterilisation) after each use

Question 45

Your DPA (Dental Practice Adviser) Is responsible for:- 1 - Assessing Your VT training programme 2 - Reading your QI reports 3 - Support and clinical advice to your practice 4 - Promoting improvement of care quality in your practice 5 - Give advice and support in QI 6 - Writing DRO reports

Answer 45

3 - Support and clinical advice to your practice 4 - Promoting improvement of care quality in your practice 5 - Give advice and support in QI

Question 46

When making a claim for a surgical extraction: 1 - You must have lifted a muco-periosteal flap 2 - An additional claim can be made for removal of sutures 3 - An appropriate radiograph must be available 4 - An additional claim can be made for Unscheduled Care if the patient presents later the same day with post op haemorrhage

Answer 46

3 - An appropriate radiograph must be available 4 - An additional claim can be made for Unscheduled Care if the patient presents later the same day with post op haemorrhage

Question 47

Employees of your dental practice with at least 6 months continuous service are entitled to which of the following? 1 - At least 5.6 weeks of annual leave, pro rota 2 - Time off for good behaviour. 3 - Paid time off for Christmas Day, Boxing Day and Easter Monday 4 - Paid time off for antenatal appointments

Answer 47

1 - At least 5.6 weeks of annual leave, pro rota 4 - Paid time off for antenatal appointments

Question 48

One of the nurses at the practice has a visual impairment, and feels unsafe walking home alone in the dark. Which of these would be a reasonable adjustment on the part of the practice owner? 1 - Agreeing a flexible working pattern for the nurse affected 2 - Closing the practice before it gets dark 3 - Issuing all staff with torches 4 - Provision of a free transport service to and from work for all staff

Answer 48

1 - Agreeing a flexible working pattern for the nurse affected

Question 49

A child of 15, who is able to understand an explanation, attends your surgery requiring extraction of a carious tooth. The child refuses parental involvement in the decision-making process. Which of the following actions is appropriate? 1 - Avoid any ‘irreversible’ treatment until discussion has taken place with the child’s parents 2 - Seek authority from a person who has care or control of the child but no parental responsibility 3 - Explain the possible consequences of the treatment proposed 4 - Extract the tooth, documenting carefully all discussions

Answer 49

3 - Explain the possible consequences of the treatment proposed 4 - Extract the tooth, documenting carefully all discussions

Question 50

Which of the following statements are true with regard to Continuing Professional Development (CPD)? 1 - Any course with an attendance certificate is verifiable. 2 - The 5-year CPD cycle starts on the 1st of January of the year following your registration with the GDC. 3 - Dentists must complete and keep records of at least 100 hours of CPD over a five-year cycle. 4 - Any courses taken between passing finals and graduation count towards your first five year cycle 5 - The 5-year CPD cycle starts on the day you register with the GDC. 6 - Only clinical courses count towards CPD.

Answer 50

2 - The 5-year CPD cycle starts on the 1st of January of the year following your registration with the GDC. 3 - Dentists must complete and keep records of at least 100 hours of CPD over a five-year cycle.

Question 51

When a Duty of Candour incident occurs, the ‘responsible person’ is responsible for: 1 - Carrying out the Duty of Candour procedure 2 - Undertaking any training required by the regulations 3 - Reporting every six months on the duty 4 - Providing training, supervision and support to others carrying out other parts of the procedure

Answer 51

1 - Carrying out the Duty of Candour procedure 2 - Undertaking any training required by the regulations 4 - Providing training, supervision and support to others carrying out other parts of the procedure

Question 52

Prior approval regulations apply to? 1 - All NHS patients 2 - Continuing care patients only 3 - All patients 4 - Capitation patients only

Answer 52

1 - All NHS patients

Question 53

Which of the following are appropriate short term interventions for painful oral ulceration? 1 - Application of a paste made from equal parts of an aspirin and a paracetamol tablet, dissolved slowly at the ulceration site 2 - Use of a benzydamine mouthwash using 15ml every hour and a half in a child under 12 years old 3 - Use of benzydamine oromucosal spray, 4 sprays onto affected area every hour and half in a child under 6 years old 4 - Use of a benzydamine mouthwash using 15ml every hour and a half in an adult 5 - Application of an aspirin tablet dissolved slowly at the ulceration site 6 - Use of benzydamine oromucosal spray, 4 sprays onto affected area every hour and half in an adult

Answer 53

4 - Use of a benzydamine mouthwash using 15ml every hour and a half in an adult 6 - Use of benzydamine oromucosal spray, 4 sprays onto affected area every hour and half in an adult

Question 54

Self-employed associates in the GDS may be entitled to...? 1 - Annual leave payments 2 - Public holiday payments 3 - Maternity payments 4 - Adoptive leave payments 5 - Paternity payments

Answer 54

? 3 - Maternity payments 4 - Adoptive leave payments 5 - Paternity payments

Question 55

The practice has a policy allowing for time off to attend medical appointments. The VDP requires to attend a number of appointments in relation to their gender reassignment, but is refused This is an example of? 1 - Victimisation 2 - Discrimination 3 - Harassment 4 - All of the above 5 - None of the above

Answer 55

2 - Discrimination

Question 56

Select all that apply, Transmission Based Precautions are categorised into: 1 - Droplet 2 - Aerosol 3 - Airborne 4 - Contact

Answer 56

1 - Droplet 3 - Airborne 4 - Contact

Question 57

The subgroup of patients requiring "special consideration" who are at increased risk of infective endocarditis include: 1 - Patients who have acquired valvular heart disease with stenosis 2 - Patients who have had previous infective endocarditis 3 - Patients who have a prosthetic valve replacement 4 - Patients who have had a myocardial infarction in the last 4 weeks 5 - Patients with cyanotic congenital heart disease

Answer 57

2 - Patients who have had previous infective endocarditis 3 - Patients who have a prosthetic valve replacement 5 - Patients with cyanotic congenital heart disease

Question 58

In order to fulfil their terms of service in Scotland, a dentist must 1 - Complete at least one approved project each year during the QI cycle 2 - Carry out a minimum of 15 hours of approved QI activity in each 3 year cycle 3 - Complete more than one type of QI in the QI cycle

Answer 58

2 - Carry out a minimum of 15 hours of approved QI activity in each 3 year cycle

Question 59

Which of the following are true when selling a dental practice? 1 - The price that can be achieved reflects solely the value of the property, equipment and stock. 2 - The dental practice may be sold but the owner may still keep the property by agreement with the purchaser. 3 - You must give notice of a TUPE transfer. 4 - The outgoing practice owner will require to make the staff redundant before the incoming owner can hire them under new contracts.

Answer 59

2 - The dental practice may be sold but the owner may still keep the property by agreement with the purchaser. 3 - You must give notice of a TUPE transfer.

Question 60

If the exposure control fails when taking an intra oral radiograph, causing continuous generation of x-rays, you should: 1 - Inform the RPS/Legal Person 2 - Phone the dental hospital for advice 3 - Switch off the mains supply immediately 4 - Wait until your trainer has the time to help you

Answer 60

1 - Inform the RPS/Legal Person 3 - Switch off the mains supply immediately

Question 61

Which of the following options are suitable to treat a 13-year-old child presenting with mild to moderate toothache? 1 - Paracetamol tablets (500 mg), 1 tablet four times daily 2 - Paracetamol tablets (500 mg), 2 tablets four times daily 3 - Ibuprofen oral suspension (100 mg/5 ml), 300 mg (15 ml) four times daily 4 - Aspirin dispersible tablets (300 mg), 2 tablets four times daily 5 - Dihydrocodeine tablets (30 mg), 2 tablets four times daily 6 - Ibuprofen oral suspension (100 mg/5 ml), 100 mg (5 ml) four times daily

Answer 61

1 - Paracetamol tablets (500 mg), 1 tablet four times daily 3 - Ibuprofen oral suspension (100 mg/5 ml), 300 mg (15 ml) four times daily

Question 62

The current recommended drugs for use in medical emergencies in general practice include which of the following? 1 - Glucose 2 - Midazolam 3 - Salbutamol 4 - Penicillin 5 - Oxygen

Answer 62

1 - Glucose 2 - Midazolam 3 - Salbutamol 5 - Oxygen

Question 63

A fit and healthy 24-year-old patient has the prodromal symptoms of a cold sore on the lower lip. What would be most appropriate to prescribe? 1 - Topical anaesthetic cream 2 - Aciclovir tablets 3 - Carbamazepine tablets 4 - Aciclovir cream 5 - Lidocaine ointment 6 - Miconazole gel

Answer 63

4 - Aciclovir cream

Question 64

What treatment would you give to a conscious 22 year old known diabetic patient who shows signs of hypoglycaemia? 1 - Oral glucose 2 - Adrenaline 3 - Salbutamol 4 - Glyceryl trinitrate 5 - Oxygen

Answer 64

1 - Oral glucose 5 - Oxygen

Question 65

You wish to prescribe miconazole for a patient with angular cheilitis. This may be contraindicated in patients who are also taking which of the following...? 1 - Statins 2 - Aspirin 3 - Oral contraceptives 4 - Penicillin 5 - Warfarin

Answer 65

1 - Statins 5 - Warfarin

Question 66

CPD participation is only verifiable if 1 - CPD providers quality assure the content delivery of CPD 2 - Suggested by an appropriate PDP 3 - The GDC endorses CPD providers 4 - The GDC registers CPD Providers 5 - Only GDC registrants can provide verifiable CPD

Answer 66

1 - CPD providers quality assure the content delivery of CPD

Question 67

Who within the dental team is entitled to Statutory Sick Pay? ​ 1 - Dentist working as an Associate ​ 2 - Dentist working as an Assistant ​ 3 - An employee off for 2 full days 4 - Contracted Trainee Dental Nurse ​

Answer 67

2 - Dentist working as an Assistant ​ 4 - Contracted Trainee Dental Nurse ​

Question 68

Which of the following must be undertaken to satisfy the requirements outlined within the Statement of dental Remuneration for a claim made under item 2(c) where a patient has sextants with BPE codes 3 or 4?​ 1 - PMPR​ 2 - Pocket depth charting of affected sextants​ 3 - BMI recording​ 4 - Recording of risk factors pertinent to periodontal disease​ 5 - Recording of plaque and bleeding scores​

Answer 68

? 2 - Pocket depth charting of affected sextants​ 4 - Recording of risk factors pertinent to periodontal disease​ 5 - Recording of plaque and bleeding scores​

Question 69

Which of the following is/are true of the fire extinguishers in your practice? 1 - Fires extinguishers should be subject to annual safety checks by a competent person 2 - Fire extinguishers should be situated near fire hazards with instructions for use suitably displayed 3 - Fire extinguishers can be purchased from on - line suppliers if they are correctly commissioned in the supplier’s warehouse 4 - Although recommended, there is no legal requirement to have Fire extinguishers in the practice

Answer 69

1 - Fires extinguishers should be subject to annual safety checks by a competent person 2 - Fire extinguishers should be situated near fire hazards with instructions for use suitably displayed

Question 70

The radiation dose to the patient can be reduced by which of the following methods?: 1 - Digital radiography 2 - Rectangular collimation 3 - Increasing film speed 4 - Add lead lining walls

Answer 70

1 - Digital radiography 2 - Rectangular collimation 3 - Increasing film speed

Question 71

With the introduction of Direct Access in May 2013, dental hygienists and therapists can diagnose and treat patients within their scope of practice, without a prescription from a dentist. 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 71

1 - True

Question 72

Which of the following are Development Outcomes for CPD as set out by the GDC? 1 - Maintaining trust and developing professional networks to support and enhance cross disciplinary working for the benefit of patients and their families. 2 - Maintenance and development of knowledge and skill within your field of practice. 3 - Continuously developing skills and knowledge to deliver quality assured dental care for all patient groups. Those patients identified as belonging to Priority Groups (patients with greatest need) may benefit most from registrants with an enhanced portfolio of comprehensive skills. 4 - Maintenance of skills, behaviours and attitudes which maintain patient confidence in you and the dental profession and put patients’ interests first. 5 - Effective management of self, and effective management of others or effective work with others in the dental team, in the interests of patients at all times; providing constructive leadership where appropriate. 6 - Effective communication with patients, the dental team, and others across dentistry, including when obtaining consent, dealing with complaints, and raising concerns when patients are at risk.

Answer 72

2 - Maintenance and development of knowledge and skill within your field of practice. 4 - Maintenance of skills, behaviours and attitudes which maintain patient confidence in you and the dental profession and put patients’ interests first. 5 - Effective management of self, and effective management of others or effective work with others in the dental team, in the interests of patients at all times; providing constructive leadership where appropriate. 6 - Effective communication with patients, the dental team, and others across dentistry, including when obtaining consent, dealing with complaints, and raising concerns when patients are at risk.

Question 73

Which of the following is true for GDS dentists wishing to take time off for maternity leave? 1 - The dentist can elect to not return to providing NHS general dental services at the end of their period of maternity leave without affecting their entitlement to maternity pay 2 - Dental practice owners who undertake NHS dental services may be entitled to claim maternity payments through their schedule during their period of maternity leave 3 - The amount that may be claimed is 50% of their monthly NHS gross income averaged over the last 6 month 4 - Associate dentists who undertake NHS dental services may be entitled to claim maternity payments through their schedule during their period of maternity leave 5 - Assistant dentists who undertake NHS dental services may be entitled to claim maternity payments through their schedule during their period of maternity leave.

Answer 73

2 - Dental practice owners who undertake NHS dental services may be entitled to claim maternity payments through their schedule during their period of maternity leave 4 - Associate dentists who undertake NHS dental services may be entitled to claim maternity payments through their schedule during their period of maternity leave

Question 74

According to the BNF, which of the following are not known to be harmful during pregnancy? 1 - Diclofenac 2 - Amoxicillin 3 - Paracetamol 4 - Fluconazole 5 - Doxycycline

Answer 74

? definitely not 1/5 probably not 4 2 - Amoxicillin 3 - Paracetamol

Question 75

Which of the following statements are true? Self-employed dentists... 1 - Normally have tax deducted by the practice before being paid 2 - Are required to pay income tax on net earnings received from practice 3 - Are subject to PAYE 4 - Are exempt from NI as it is paid by the practice 5 - Are legally responsible for their own accounts 6 - Are required to pay income tax on gross turnover

Answer 75

2 - Are required to pay income tax on net earnings received from practice 5 - Are legally responsible for their own accounts

Question 76

An appropriate prescribing regime for a patient with angular cheilitis is? ​ 1 - Miconozole cream 2% applied to angles of mouth twice daily ​ 2 - Phenoxymethylpenicillin 250mg X2 QID ​ 3 - Sodium fusidate ointment 2% apply to angles of mouth 4 times daily ​ 4 - Aciclovir 800mg tablets should be prescribed 5 times a day for 7 days.

Answer 76

1 - Miconozole cream 2% applied to angles of mouth twice daily ​ 3 - Sodium fusidate ointment 2% apply to angles of mouth 4 times daily ​

Question 77

If an adult patient collapses in the dental practice, the correct sequence of actions is to check for breathing, then call 999 and then check for danger 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 77

2 - False

Question 78

A concerned daughter, of her elderly relative receiving domiciliary care from you at a nursing home, makes a complaint about the treatment you provided for this patient. Which of the following are true?: 1 - You should provide a copy of your complaints procedure policy to complainant 2 - Refer the patient to the nursing home manager who is responsible for the patients' safety and well being 3 - You should mark the complaint as resolved if the complainant decides they do not want to make the complaint a formal one 4 - You should begin a record of the ongoing management of this complaint 5 - You should indicate that any complaint can only be made by the patient themselves

Answer 78

1 - You should provide a copy of your complaints procedure policy to complainant 3 - You should mark the complaint as resolved if the complainant decides they do not want to make the complaint a formal one 4 - You should begin a record of the ongoing management of this complaint

Question 79

As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, if a patient fails to return for treatment where a laboratory made appliance such as a crown or denture has been started but not fitted, how long must the appliance be kept beyond the date of payment of the incomplete fee?​ 1 - 24 months 2 - 6 months 3 - 3 months 4 - 12 months

Answer 79

4 - 12 months

Question 80

What fire safety records should be retained? 1 - Fire drills 2 - Staff training 3 - Checks, maintenance and servicing of fire detection and warning equipment 4 - Phone number for your closest fire station 5 - Log sheet for number of flammable materials on site

Answer 80

1 - Fire drills 2 - Staff training 3 - Checks, maintenance and servicing of fire detection and warning equipment

Question 81

Which statement is true? A dental patient with no known history of cardiovascular medical history suddenly complains of chest pain. 1 - The patient should be made to immediately rest in a flat position to improve circulation 2 - The A-E approach should only be followed if the patient becomes unresponsive 3 - Aspirin 300mg orally, crushed or chewed may be indicated 4 - The risk of a cardiac arrest is negligible if the blood pressure is maintained

Answer 81

3 - Aspirin 300mg orally, crushed or chewed may be indicated

Question 82

When should midazolam be administered during a suspected epileptic fit? 1 - After 10 min continuous fitting 2 - After 5 min continuous fitting 3 - As soon as possible 4 - When the ambulance arrives

Answer 82

? 2 - After 5 min continuous fitting

Question 83

As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, if a patient fails to return for treatment where a laboratory made appliance such as a crown or denture has been started but not fitted, what proportion of the fee may be claimed for the incomplete appliance?​ 1 - 70% 2 - 100% 3 - 10% 4 - 40% 5 - 0%

Answer 83

1 - 70%

Question 84

A warfarinised, pain free, patient requires an extraction and can attend any day and at any time. The patient has a stable INR reading 3.8. Best management would be to treat this patient: 1 - At the local specialist referral unit. 2 - In the late part of the day and late in the working week within 72 hours of having their INR checked. 3 - Any day and at any time as long as their INR has been checked within the last 72 hours. 4 - In the early part of the day and early in the working week within 72 hours of having their INR checked.

Answer 84

4 - In the early part of the day and early in the working week within 72 hours of having their INR checked.

Question 85

When undertaking a COSHH risk assessment how could you identify the hazard classification of a new substance? 1 - Consult the safety data sheet 2 - Contact the supplier directly 3 - Check information on the packaging 4 - COSHH risk assessment does not require classification of hazards

Answer 85

1 - Consult the safety data sheet 2 - Contact the supplier directly 3 - Check information on the packaging

Question 86

Under the Public Services Reform (the Scottish Public Services Ombudsman) Healthcare and Whistleblowing Order 2020, who can raise a concern about NHS services 1 - Trainees and students 2 - NHS volunteers 3 - Former NHS employees 4 - Current employees in a private healthcare setting 5 - Current NHS employees

Answer 86

1 - Trainees and students 2 - NHS volunteers 3 - Former NHS employees 5 - Current NHS employees

Question 87

Which of the following are true in relation to midazolam (select all that apply): 1 - It is the only Controlled Drug which dental practices are justified to stock 2 - It is a Schedule 3 controlled drug 3 - Regulations specify that it must be kept in a locked cupboard 4 - Dentists must have standard operating procedures and adequate controls in place to cover all aspects of the use of midazolam

Answer 87

1 - It is the only Controlled Drug which dental practices are justified to stock 2 - It is a Schedule 3 controlled drug 4 - Dentists must have standard operating procedures and adequate controls in place to cover all aspects of the use of midazolam

Question 88

When applying GDPR, consent of the data subject must be 1 - Separate from other terms and conditions 2 - Specific 3 - Informed 4 - Given freely 5 - Generic

Answer 88

1 - Separate from other terms and conditions 2 - Specific 3 - Informed 4 - Given freely

Question 89

What action should be taken to ensure dental cements are fully removed from instruments without damaging them? 1 - Process in a washer disinfector to remove cement 2 - Use a wire brush to scrub the cement off the instrument 3 - Wipe cements off at chairside before they have time to set 4 - Allow cement to harden onto instruments for better visibility before removal.

Answer 89

3 - Wipe cements off at chairside before they have time to set

Question 90

Which of the following are required to be registered with the GDC 1 - Clinical dental technician 2 - Practice manager 3 - Trainee dental nurse 4 - Qualified dental nurse 5 - LDU technician

Answer 90

1 - Clinical dental technician 4 - Qualified dental nurse

Question 91

Which of the following financial allowances may a dentist working within the NHS GDS claim? 1 - Quality improvement 2 - Staff sick pay. 3 - Practice insurance. 4 - Pressure vessel insurance. 5 - CPDA at approved courses.

Answer 91

1 - Quality improvement 5 - CPDA at approved courses.

Question 92

Who has responsibility for Health and Safety in your dental practice? 1 - The Principal Dentist 2 - Assistants 3 - Visiting sales representatives 4 - Cleaners 5 - Nurses 6 - Associates

Answer 92

1 - The Principal Dentist 2 - Assistants 4 - Cleaners 5 - Nurses 6 - Associates

Question 93

As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, is there an upper age restriction on the application of fluoride varnish? 1 - Yes 2 - No

Answer 93

2 - No

Question 94

Under IR(ME)R 2017 who is responsible for entitling staff for aspects of radiography? 1 - The Employer 2 - The Medical Physics Expert 3 - The practice manager 4 - The referrer

Answer 94

1 - The Employer

Question 95

Under the protected characteristic of sex, a woman may not be treated less favourably because she 1 - is breast feeding 2 - has had a baby in the last 26 weeks 3 - is pregnant

Answer 95

1 - is breast feeding 2 - has had a baby in the last 26 weeks 3 - is pregnant

Question 96

Which of the following is/are recommended in relation to mercury safety? 1 - Staff are trained in spillage procedures 2 - Good ventilation in working area 3 - Amalgamator is in tray lined with cling film 4 - Mercury spillage kit is available in practice 5 - Only the dentist can deal with the spillage

Answer 96

1 - Staff are trained in spillage procedures 2 - Good ventilation in working area 4 - Mercury spillage kit is available in practice

Question 97

SIMD category is based on...? 1 - Region 2 - Practice postcode 3 - Health Board 4 - Council area 5 - Patient postcode

Answer 97

5 - Patient postcode

Question 98

Which of the following are true of NHS assistant dentists? Assistants: 1 - Cannot provide treatment under sedation. 2 - Must have all treatment planned and prescribed by another dentist. 3 - Agree their basic terms and conditions with the dentist for whom they are contracted including hours of work and rates of pay. 4 - Enjoy the same range of employment rights as an employee. 5 - Providing NHS care do so under an NHS list number attributed to another dentist.

Answer 98

3 - Agree their basic terms and conditions with the dentist for whom they are contracted including hours of work and rates of pay. 4 - Enjoy the same range of employment rights as an employee. 5 - Providing NHS care do so under an NHS list number attributed to another dentist.

Question 99

A patient undergoes a dental procedure during which local anaesthetic is used. Shortly afterwards he complains of difficulty in breathing with an audible wheeze and a swollen tongue. He is sweaty, the pulse rate is 110’ (regular), capillary refill time is 4 seconds. Chlorphenamine is the first-line drug in this situation. 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 99

2 - False

Question 100

Which of the following are true? 1 - Talking about patients in a place where you may be overheard could constitute a breach of confidentiality 2 - Under normal circumstances, patients should be allowed to withhold their information from others who will be involved in their healthcare 3 - Under normal circumstances, patient information can be shared with their general medical practitioner without first explaining what information is being shared and why 4 - Confidential information about patients may be shared freely after their death

Answer 100

1 - Talking about patients in a place where you may be overheard could constitute a breach of confidentiality 2 - Under normal circumstances, patients should be allowed to withhold their information from others who will be involved in their healthcare

Question 101

How often should a dental practice record that the battery has been checked in their defibrillator? 1 - Weekly 2 - Daily 3 - Monthly 4 - Six-monthly

Answer 101

1 - Weekly

Question 102

Under normal circumstances your local Health Board has a responsibility to investigate in the event a patient makes a complaint directly to them about your service. 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 102

2 - False

Question 103

Which of the following is required when recording verifiable CPD (Continuing Professional Development)? 1 - Speaker name 2 - Course certificate 3 - Number of verifiable hours 4 - Date of course 5 - GDC Number

Answer 103

2 - Course certificate 3 - Number of verifiable hours 4 - Date of course 5 - GDC Number

Question 104

For HM Revenue and Customs the minimum period of time self employed people must retain financial records for is? 1 - 5 years after the 31st January submission deadline of the relevant tax year 2. - Indefinitely 3 - 2 years after the 31st January submission deadline of the relevant tax year 4 - 10 years after the end of the financial year 5 - 5 years after the end of the financial year

Answer 104

1 - 5 years after the 31st January submission deadline of the relevant tax year

Question 105

As an employer, PAYE and NI records for staff should be retained for how long after the end of the tax year they relate to? 1 - 3 years 2 - 5 years 3 - 9 years 4 - 11 years 5 - Indefinately

Answer 105

1 - 3 years

Question 106

Complaints received from which of the following sources should be recorded in your practice's complaints log?: 1 - A complaint from a concerned relative about treatment you provided to their loved one 2 - A complaint from a team member about your unpleasant manner towards a patient attending late for their appointment 3 - A complaint from the Primary Care Trust about your out-of-hours answering machine message 4 - An anonymous complaint 5 - A complaint from a patient about treatment you have provided

Answer 106

1 - A complaint from a concerned relative about treatment you provided to their loved one 4 - An anonymous complaint 5 - A complaint from a patient about treatment you have provided

Question 107

You wish to employ a dental nurse for your practice. As an employer, you must give them a "Wider written statement" of employment particulars within what period of their start date? 1 - three months 2 - one week 3 - four months 4 - two months 5 - one month

Answer 107

4 - two months

Question 108

Which of the following authorities are allowed to routinely inspect NHS patients of GDS and PDS dentists and report on the standard of clinical treatment which has been provided? 1 - The Scottish Dental Reference Service 2 - Health Inspectorate Scotland 3 - Dental Hospital consultants on referral only 4 - Representatives of a defence union 5 - The Health Board Dental Practice Adviser

Answer 108

1 - The Scottish Dental Reference Service

Question 109

A regular patient, who is booked in for an examination, enters your surgery and sits down on the dental chair. By doing this, the patient is consenting to: 1 - A routine simple scale and polish 2 - Routine bitewing radiography 3 - A dental examination 4 - Additional diagnostic tests

Answer 109

3 - A dental examination

Question 110

If an adult patient presents with significant dental anxiety and requires dental treatment you might consider the following approach 1 - Prescription of a premedication of 5mg diazepam to be taken 2 hours before the procedure 2 - Prescription of 50mg diazepam to be taken 2 hours before the procedure 3 - Prescription of 100mg carbamazepine to be taken 2 hours before the procedure 4 - Use acclimatation tools to aid their acceptance of treatment

Answer 110

1 - Prescription of a premedication of 5mg diazepam to be taken 2 hours before the procedure 4 - Use acclimatation tools to aid their acceptance of treatment

Question 111

A patient informs you that they have changed their name and/or sex when they chose to live in a changed gender and that they have had their CHI number changed via their GP. How can you ensure their records remain up to date? 1 - Request a new CHI match using CHI lookup and submit a claim as usual 2 - Ensure their name and/or sex on the practice management software is changed 3 - Send PSD a Patient Detail Amendment form (dental 287 form) before submitting a claim with the patient's new details

Answer 111

2 - Ensure their name and/or sex on the practice management 3 - Send PSD a Patient Detail Amendment form (dental 287 form) before submitting a claim with the patient's new details

Question 112

The Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000 can be applied to: 1 - Patients with acquired brain injury 2 - Adults only over the age of 25 3 - Patients with severe sensory impairment 4 - Patients with Dementia

Answer 112

1 - Patients with acquired brain injury 3 - Patients with severe sensory impairment 4 - Patients with Dementia

Question 113

Your patient, a nine year old boy, requires an extraction but is not in pain. He is accompanied by an adult relative who does not have parental responsibility. To follow legal best practice, how should you proceed? 1 - Delay treatment until parental consent is obtained 2 - Obtain consent from child and proceed with treatment 3 - Obtain consent from relative and proceed with treatment 4 - Proceed with treatment to reduce the risk of a complaint.

Answer 113

1 - Delay treatment until parental consent is obtained

Question 114

According to the GDC Standards on Consent, which of the following are "things that patients might want to know" before consenting to treatment: 1 - The cost of proposed treatment 2 - The likely prognosis 3 - Whether the treatment is guaranteed, how long it is guaranteed for and any exclusions that apply 4 - The treatment available in the UK 5 - The cross-infection control procedures routinely used in the practice 6 - Options for treatment, their risks and potential benefits

Answer 114

1 - The cost of proposed treatment 2 - The likely prognosis 3 - Whether the treatment is guaranteed, how long it is guaranteed for and any exclusions that apply 6 - Options for treatment, their risks and potential benefits

Question 115

Which of the following is not one of the five steps of a Health and Safety Risk Assessment:​ 1 - Review your assessment and update as necessary.​ 2 - Evaluate the risks and decide on precautions (controls).​ 3 - Submit your risk assessments to the Health Board Dental Practice Adviser (DPA).​ 4 - Record your findings and take appropriate action.​ 5 - Identify the hazards.​ 6 - Decide who might be harmed and how.​

Answer 115

3 - Submit your risk assessments to the Health Board Dental Practice Adviser (DPA).​

Question 116

A ‘domiciliary care dentist’ is eligible for payments for all treatments they provide in their assigned care home, in addition to a Care and Treatment Allowance, Equipment Allowance and payments under SDR item 8 'Domiciliary Visit and Recalled Attendance', true or false? 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 116

1 - True

Question 117

Which type of insurance is essential for a dental practice compressor unit and autoclaves? 1 - Sickness and Accident Insurance 2 - Third party liability insurance 3 - Pressure Vessel Insurance 4 - Professional Indemnity Insurance

Answer 117

2 - Third party liability insurance 3 - Pressure Vessel Insurance

Question 118

Which of the following products is/are tailored specifically to provide a dental practitioner with legal advice when dealing with a patient complaint 1 - Sickness and Accident Insurance 2 - Professional Indemnity Insurance 3 - Employers Liability Insurance 4 - Practice Insurance 5 - Public Liability insurance

Answer 118

? not 2 + 3 2 - Professional Indemnity Insurance

Question 119

Sterilised dental instruments (i.e. those which have been processed without packaging) can be stored:- 1 - Uncovered in drawers 2 - In covered trays within cupboards 3 - On work surface in open trays 4 - In sealed pouches

Answer 119

2 - In covered trays within cupboards 4 - In sealed pouches

Question 120

Which statement is true? A dental patient has a generalised, tonic-clonic seizure. 1 - During convulsions the patient’s airway must be protected with the jaw-thrust manoeuvre 2 - Prolonged seizures (>5min) should be treated with subcutaneous injections of Midazolam 3 - Oxygen should only be given if there is underlying respiratory disease 4 - Convulsive movements should not be restrained

Answer 120

4 - Convulsive movements should not be restrained

Question 121

Which of the following antimicrobials is known to have a profound interaction with alcohol? 1 - Erythromycin 2 - Co-amoxiclav 3 - Phenoxymethylpenicillin 4 - Amoxicillin 5 - Metronidazole

Answer 121

5 - Metronidazole

Question 122

Which of the following have antifungal properties? 1 - Chlorhexidine 2 - Metronidazole 3 - Fluconazole 4 - Nystatin 5 - Miconazole

Answer 122

1 - Chlorhexidine 3 - Fluconazole 4 - Nystatin 5 - Miconazole

Question 123

What is a suitable supplemental analgesic for a patient who already takes Naproxen? 1 - Co-codamol 2 - Aspirin 3 - Paracetamol 4 - Ibuprofen

Answer 123

1 - Co-codamol 3 - Paracetamol

Question 124

What are suitable topical treatments for herpes labialis in adults? 1 - Aciclovir cream 2 - Miconazole cream 3 - Sodium fusidate ointment 4 - Miconazole and hydrocortisone cream

Answer 124

1 - Aciclovir cream

Question 125

In a 23 year old patient with severe ANUG 1 - An appropriate drug regimen would be Metronidazole tablets 400mg, three times daily for 5 days 2 - An appropriate drug regimen would be Metronidazole tablets 400mg, three times daily for 3 days 3 - You should avoid ultrasonic scaling as it may be too painful 4 - You should ensure you and your nurse wear an FFP3 mask due to possible inhalation of Fusobacteria 5 - Metronidazole should only be prescribed if the patient has underlying immunodeficiencies

Answer 125

2 - An appropriate drug regimen would be Metronidazole tablets 400mg, three times daily for 3 days

Question 126

The correct order of doffing PPE is: 1 - Eye/face protection, apron/gown, gloves, mask/respirator ​ 2 - Eye/face protection, mask/respirator, apron/gown, gloves 3 - Apron/gown, gloves, eye/face protection, mask/respirator ​ 4 - Gloves, apron/gown, eye/face protection, mask/respirator ​

Answer 126

4 - Gloves, apron/gown, eye/face protection, mask/respirator ​

Question 127

How often should routine testing be carried out on a hand-held x-ray equipment?​ 1 - 2 yearly 2 - Annually 3 - 3 yearly 4 - 6 monthly

Answer 127

2 - Annually

Question 128

Which of the following statements is or are true about verifiable CPD from the 1st of January 2018? 1 - Dentists are required to undertake a minimum of 100 hours in the 5 year cycle. 2 - Dental Therapists and Dental Hygienists require to do a minimum of 80 Hours verifiable CPD in their GDC 5 year cycle. 3 - CPD should meet one or more of the GDC's specified "development outcomes". 4 - Registered Dental Technicians do not have to do any verifiable CPD. 5 - The principle of the following cycle underpins the GDC's recommended approach to CPD: "Plan, do, reflect record."

Answer 128

1 - Dentists are required to undertake a minimum of 100 hours in the 5 year cycle. 3 - CPD should meet one or more of the GDC's specified "development outcomes". 5 - The principle of the following cycle underpins the GDC's recommended approach to CPD: "Plan, do, reflect record."

Question 129

To deregister a patient from an NHS dental list, which of the following forms is completed. 1 - GP21A 2 - GP200 3 - GP220 4 - Regulation 9 5 - GP215

Answer 129

2 - GP200

Question 130

Capitation payments are increased in adults from what age? 1 - 60 years 2 - 65 years 3 - 70 years 4 - 75 years 5 - 80 years

Answer 130

2 - 65 years

Question 131

A registered NHS patient attends concerned about the appearance of their upper lateral incisor. This tooth has become discoloured following root treatment. As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, which of the following NHS options are available to treat this problem?​ 1 - Provision of a composite filling​ 2 - Provision of a porcelain veneer​ 3 - Provision of internal bleaching​ 4 - Provision of a crown​

Answer 131

3 - Provision of internal bleaching​ 4 - Provision of a crown​

Question 132

At what point should waste be segregated? 1 - At the end of the session 2 - Immediately before waste containers are sealed 3 - The disposal contractor will segregate the waste 4 - The point at which it is generated

Answer 132

4 - The point at which it is generated

Question 133

Which of the following statements are correct? To successfully make a claim for maternity payments within the SDR a dentist must:- 1 - Be working full time 2 - Complete a GP203 form 3 - Have been included on a dental list in Scotland for at least 2 years 4 - Transfer registration of their patients to another dentist 5 - Only be taking a maximum of 6 months maternity leave

Answer 133

2 - Complete a GP203 form 3 - Have been included on a dental list in Scotland for at least 2 years 4 - Transfer registration of their patients to another dentist

Question 134

For the purpose of superannuation calculation, what percentage of gross fee income is treated as expenses? 1 - 12.1% 2 - 22.1% 3 - 34.1% 4 - 49.1% 5 - 56.1%

Answer 134

5 - 56.1%

Question 135

You have agreed to provide a root canal treatment for an NHS registered patient for their lower left second molar tooth. This tooth will require a crown as a final restoration. The patient has requested that a metal shell crown should not be placed on this tooth following root treatment and has requested a tooth-coloured crown. As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, which of the following is/are correct?​ 1 - You should provide a tooth-coloured crown under NHS arrangements and submit a claim under item 4(b)​ 2 - You should provide a written treatment plan, including a cost estimate for any proposed treatment ensuring that NHS and private options are clearly stated.​ 3 - You should discuss with the patient the options they have, indicating that they may receive a mixture of NHS and private care for the treatment of this tooth if they wish. 4 - You should explain to the patient that the treatment for this tooth should be provided either entirely under NHS arrangements or entirely privately, mixing is not an option.​ 5 - You must ask this patient to register as a private patient at the practice to access private treatment items such as tooth-coloured crowns on molar teeth.​

Answer 135

2 - You should provide a written treatment plan, including a cost estimate for any proposed treatment ensuring that NHS and private options are clearly stated.​ 3 - You should discuss with the patient the options they have, indicating that they may receive a mixture of NHS and private care for the treatment of this tooth if they wish.

Question 136

Which of the following is/are true of the Health and Safety at Work Act (HSW act)? 1 - Self employed contractors excluded from the terms of the act whilst on the premises 2 - Clinical treatment of patients is covered under the terms of the act 3 - All employed staff are covered by the act whilst on the practice premises 4 - Employees of utility companies or suppliers are covered by the act whilst on the premises 5 - The practice owner can claim exemption from the terms of the act

Answer 136

3 - All employed staff are covered by the act whilst on the practice premises 4 - Employees of utility companies or suppliers are covered by the act whilst on the premises

Question 137

If a patient does not attend the dentist with whom they are registered, after a period of three years which of the following will occur? 1 - The dentist must send a letter to the patient to remind them to make an appointment for a check up. 2 - Payment to the dentist for capitation / continuing care will fall by 50%. 3 - The patients’ registration will lapse. 4 - Payment to the dentist for capitation / continuing care will fall by 80%. 5 - Payment to the dentist for capitation / continuing care will stop.

Answer 137

4 - Payment to the dentist for capitation / continuing care will fall by 80%.

Question 138

A Section 47 Certificate (select any/all correct answers) 1 - Must have the signed consent of the nearest relative 2 - Can be completed on a “Word” document if it follows exactly the wording of the prescribed form 3 - Must be completed on the government’s prescribed form 4 - Must be sent to the Mental Welfare Commission 5 - Must have the signed consent of the proxy

Answer 138

2 - Can be completed on a “Word” document if it follows exactly the wording of the prescribed form

Question 139

What must be provided in terms of first aid in every dental practice? 1 - Adrenaline and Salbutamol Inhalers for treatment of allergic response 2 - An appointed person 3 - An appropriate first aid box 4 - Details and location of local A+E department. 5 - Paracetamol tablets

Answer 139

2 - An appointed person 3 - An appropriate first aid box

Question 140

In relation to dental radiography, which of the following are true 1 - A lead apron should be used to protect the patient during bite wing radiographs 2 - Audit should be used to monitor the quality of radiographs 3 - The justification for taking a radiograph should always be recorded in the notes 4 - A quality assurance system should be used to monitor the processing of exposed radiographic films

Answer 140

2 - Audit should be used to monitor the quality of radiographs 3 - The justification for taking a radiograph should always be recorded in the notes 4 - A quality assurance system should be used to monitor the processing of exposed radiographic films

Question 141

Where should waste amalgam be stored in the dental surgery? 1 - In a specific controlled waste container, lined with Mercury-absorbing foam 2 - In a yellow clinical waste bag 3 - In your wheelie bin 4 - It should not be stored 5 - In a plastic bag filled with water 6 - In a sealed box, containing hypochlorite 7 - In x-ray developer

Answer 141

1 - In a specific controlled waste container, lined with Mercury-absorbing foam

Question 142

Which of the following are true regarding patients taking Clopidogrel requiring an extraction of two adjacent upper premolar teeth 1 - Perform extraction as normal with extra haemostatic precautions 2 - Stop medication 2 days before planned extraction 3 - Expect prolonged bleeding 4 - Stop medication on day of Extraction

Answer 142

1 - Perform extraction as normal with extra haemostatic precautions 3 - Expect prolonged bleeding

Question 143

How long after extraction are you normally required to wait before providing a metal based denture under the NHS? 1 - 1 week 2 - 4 weeks 3 - 1 month 4 - 3 months 5 - 6 months 6 - 12 months 7 - None of the above

Answer 143

4 - 3 months

Question 144

Gypsum waste should be disposed of in the following way? 1 - Yellow stream if contaminated 2 - General waste (black stream) if uncontaminated 3 - Orange stream waste if contaminated 4 - Send to specific recycling / landfill if uncontaminated

Answer 144

1 - Yellow stream if contaminated 4 - Send to specific recycling / landfill if uncontaminated

Question 145

Under the Equality Act, a person could suffer harassment on the grounds of? 1 - Age 2 - Marriage or Civil Partnership 3 - Sexual orientation 4 - None of the above

Answer 145

1 - Age 3 - Sexual orientation

Question 146

When administering local anaesthetic in the practice, it is considered good practice to record which of the following? 1 - CHI number 2 - Drug name 3 - Dosage 4 - Exemption status 5 - Time of prescription 6 - Batch number

Answer 146

2 - Drug name 3 - Dosage 6 - Batch number

Question 147

Which of the following fees may be claimed without prior approval when treating an unregistered adult patient who requires urgent emergency treatment? 1 - Assessment and advice. 2 - Capitation fee. 3 - Provision of a permanent crown on a tooth anterior to the first pre-molar. 4 - Root filling in an anterior tooth. 5 - Appropriate radiographs.

Answer 147

1 - Assessment and advice. 3 - Provision of a permanent crown on a tooth anterior to the first pre-molar. 4 - Root filling in an anterior tooth. 5 - Appropriate radiographs.

Question 148

Which of the following additional skills could a trained and indemnified Dental nurse carry out on prescription or under the direction of another registrant? 1 - Topical anaesthetic application on the prescription of a dentist 2 - Oral cancer screening 3 - Light supragingival cleaning not involving an ultrasonic cleaner 4 - Measuring plaque indices 5 - Placing rubber dam

Answer 148

1 - Topical anaesthetic application on the prescription of a dentist 4 - Measuring plaque indices 5 - Placing rubber dam

Question 149

Which of the following statements is true? The dental records of a deceased adult person: 1 - can be disposed of immediately after the death of the patient. 2 - can be accessed by a third party 11 years after the patient's death. 3 - can be disposed of 11 years after patient's death. 4 - can be accessed by certain third parties under The Access to Health Records Act 1990 5 - are not classified as confidential documents.

Answer 149

3 - can be disposed of 11 years after patient's death. 4 - can be accessed by certain third parties under The Access to Health Records Act 1990

Question 150

Which patients would be at higher risk of MRONJ? 1 - Patients with a previous diagnosis on MRONJ 2 - Patients being treated for osteoporosis with bisphosphonates for less than 5 years 3 - Patients being treated for osteoporosis with quarterly or yearly infusions of intravenous bisphosphonates for less than 5 years 4 - Patients being treated with anti-resorptive or anti-angiogenic drugs (or both) as part of the management of cancer

Answer 150

1 - Patients with a previous diagnosis on MRONJ 4 - Patients being treated with anti-resorptive or anti-angiogenic drugs (or both) as part of the management of cancer

Question 151

Each Health Board maintains a ‘dental list’ of those dentists providing general dental services within the board. Which of the following is true? 1 - A dentist can only be listed with one Health Board at any given time. 2 - A dentist can list with a Health Board for the provision of emergency treatment only. 3 - When a dentist resigns from a ‘dental list’ their unused annual leave is taken account of when determining their final payment through their NHS schedule 4 - The ‘dental list’ contains the names of both individual dentists providing direct patient care as well as Dental Bodies Corporate who may manage those providing that care

Answer 151

2 - A dentist can list with a Health Board for the provision of emergency treatment only. 4 - The ‘dental list’ contains the names of both individual dentists providing direct patient care as well as Dental Bodies Corporate who may manage those providing that care

Question 152

Which of the following is/are true regarding procurement of equipment? ​ 1 - Every practice should have a policy for the purchase of re-useable items, single use items and decontamination equipment 2 - Products must be marked to demonstrate compliance with the UK medical devices regulations 2002​ 3 - Items that have the single use symbol can be reused on the same patient if decontaminated. ​

Answer 152

1 - Every practice should have a policy for the purchase of re-useable items, single use items and decontamination equipment 2 - Products must be marked to demonstrate compliance with the UK medical devices regulations 2002​

Question 153

Which of the following are required to be included in the patient information leaflet (PIL)? 1 - Names and date of registration of all Dentists 2 - Information on the services the practice provide 3 - Information about the receptionists in the practice 4 - The name of the person who handles complaints 5 - Policy on cancellation of appointments

Answer 153

1 - Names and date of registration of all Dentists 2 - Information on the services the practice provide 5 - Policy on cancellation of appointments

Question 154

Which of the following is/are true of Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)? 1 - Should be selected after appropriate risk assessment and in consultation with employer and employee 2 - Employers can make a reasonable charge to employees for PPE 3 - Wearing PPE is a personal decision for the employee 4 - It is the employer’s responsibility to ensure PPE is properly looked after

Answer 154

1 - Should be selected after appropriate risk assessment and in consultation with employer and employee 4 - It is the employer’s responsibility to ensure PPE is properly looked after

Question 155

The time limit for the handling of complaints begins from: 1 - The date of receipt of the complaint or the next working date if receipt is on a non-working day 2 - The date the complaint was written by the patient 3 - The date of the initial acknowledgement sent to the patient 4 - The date of the incident that prompted the complaint

Answer 155

1 - The date of receipt of the complaint or the next working date if receipt is on a non-working day

Question 156

How can practitioners, staff and patients best be protected from the possible effects of hazardous materials? 1 - Insist staff wear appropriate PPE 2 - Ensure patients wear safety glasses 3 - Identify the risks of each material 4 - Appropriate staff training 5 - Keep exposure to hazardous materials to a minimum

Answer 156

1 - Insist staff wear appropriate PPE 2 - Ensure patients wear safety glasses 3 - Identify the risks of each material 4 - Appropriate staff training 5 - Keep exposure to hazardous materials to a minimum

Question 157

Which of the following is/are true regarding paternity leave arrangements in General Dental Services? 1 - The dentist must have 26 weeks continuous service immediately preceding the date of birth of the child. 2 - Paid paternity leave may be taken at any time up until the child is 12 months old. 3 - Paternity leave is not available in connection with surrogacy arrangements. 4 - Must be taken in full weeks

Answer 157

1 - The dentist must have 26 weeks continuous service immediately preceding the date of birth of the child. 4 - Must be taken in full weeks

Question 158

A valid claim for treatment under item 2(a) Enhanced preventive advice and treatment ( including Childsmile ) must include: 1 - Alcohol and smoking cessation advice 2 - Dietary advice 3 - Oral hygiene demonstration 4 - PMPR

Answer 158

3 - Oral hygiene demonstration

Question 159

With regard to foreign body airway obstruction (choking) in an adult, which of the following is true? 1 - Coughing shouldn’t be encouraged as this may make the obstruction worse. 2 - Where back blows are ineffective deliver up to 5 abdominal thrusts. 3 - Choking should be suspected if someone is suddenly unable to speak or talk after food. 4 - If someone becomes unresponsive, start CPR.

Answer 159

2 - Where back blows are ineffective deliver up to 5 abdominal thrusts. 3 - Choking should be suspected if someone is suddenly unable to speak or talk after food. 4 - If someone becomes unresponsive, start CPR.

Question 160

Which statement is true? During CPR in an adult 1 - spontaneous eye-opening or active limb movement in the patient are definite signs of life 2 - 2 effective rescue breaths should be delivered before starting chest compressions 3 - in the dental practice, mouth-to-mouth ventilation is usually recommended 4 - 5-8 min of effective chest compressions should be given before an automated external defibrillator (AED) is applied 5 - The compression to ventilation ratio in an adult is 30:2During CPR in an adult

Answer 160

1 - spontaneous eye-opening or active limb movement in the patient are definite signs of life 5 - The compression to ventilation ratio in an adult is 30:2During CPR in an adult

Question 161

Fire safety records that must be kept in practice are: 1 - The name of local fire safety officer 2 - Maintenance and service of equipment 3 - Training records 4 - Number of false alarms per year 5 - Fire doors and lighting

Answer 161

2 - Maintenance and service of equipment 3 - Training records 5 - Fire doors and lighting

Question 162

Which of the following are true when providing a patient with a decision letter on the outcome of their complaint? 1 - Further communications from the patient should be ignored. 2 - If the patient is not happy with the outcome, the practice should refer the matter to the GDC. 3 - The practice complaints record should be updated with the outcome. 4 - Contact details for the Scottish Public Services Ombudsman should be provided in the event that the patient remains dissatisfied. 5 - You should direct the complainant to contact the local health board if they are unhappy with the outcome.

Answer 162

3 - The practice complaints record should be updated with the outcome. 4 - Contact details for the Scottish Public Services Ombudsman should be provided in the event that the patient remains dissatisfied.

Question 163

In patients having daily injections of Tinzaparin Sodium for prophylaxis of deep vein thrombosis who require a surgical extraction 1 - Sutures should not be placed due to the increased risk of bleeding from trauma to the gingivae 2 - The patient's haematologist should be consulted prior to the extraction visit 3 - The patients can be treated without any adjustment to the frequency of injections 4 - The patient should stop the injections for 24 hours before and for 12 hours following the extraction 5 - The patient should be encouraged to take ibuprofen for post op pain

Answer 163

3 - The patients can be treated without any adjustment to the frequency of injections

Question 164

A patient attends a scheduled appointment to complete the planned root treatment of an upper incisor tooth. The patient has mild symptoms of periapical periodontitis associated with this tooth, but the tooth is not broken. You decide to complete the treatment as planned. As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, which of the following is/are claimable within this visit?​ 1 - Item 3(f) – Endodontic Treatment ( Incisor/Canine/Lower Premolar)​ 2 - Item 1(c) – Unscheduled Assessment and Treatment​ 3 - Item 1(b) - Review Examination​ 4 - Item 1(d) – Intra-oral Radiograph​

Answer 164

1 - Item 3(f) – Endodontic Treatment ( Incisor/Canine/Lower Premolar)​ 4 - Item 1(d) – Intra-oral Radiograph​

Question 165

Which of the following is/are true regarding sterilisation of dental instruments? 1 - An N type autoclave assures sterilisation of handpieces 2 - When purchasing new handpieces you should ensure that they can withstand thermal disinfection and steam sterilisation 3 - Automated handpiece cleaning machines are an effective means of disinfecting handpieces.

Answer 165

2 - When purchasing new handpieces you should ensure that they can withstand thermal disinfection and steam sterilisation

Question 166

A patient is 15 years of age with no special medical or dental needs, and requires a DO restoration in a lower first molar. It would be appropriate to provide a composite restoration under NHS regulations: True or False? 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 166

2 - False

Question 167

Regarding the treatment of an HIV patient, he/she should?: 1 - Be seen at the end of the day to allow decontamination 2 - Not be seen at all 3 - Be seen normally during the day 4 - Be referred to the dental hospital

Answer 167

3 - Be seen normally during the day

Question 168

The preferred method of sterilisation of instruments in primary care dental practices is: 1 - Steam sterillisation at 121-125oC for at least 20 minutes 2 - Steam sterilisation at 134-137oC for at least 3 minutes 3 - Soaking in hypochlorite disinfectant 4 - Cleaning with detergent and water 5 - Spraying with a proprietary chemical agent according to manufacturers instructions

Answer 168

2 - Steam sterilisation at 134-137oC for at least 3 minutes

Question 169

If the conduct of a dental receptionist falls below the expected standard in the workplace the employing dentist could be held responsible? 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 169

1 - True

Question 170

Which of the following is true when assessing if a patient is at risk of MRONJ 1 - The risk is reduced if the patient is taking Alendronic Acid with Prednisolone 2 - Patients taking Zoledronic acid for treatment of cancer are at higher risk 3 - If the patient is currently taking Denosumab they are at increased risk. 4 - There is no evidence that MRONJ risk will be reduced if the patient permanently stops taking bisphosphonate drugs prior to invasive dental procedures 5 - Anti-angiogenic drugs are not thought to remain in the body for extended periods of time

Answer 170

2 - Patients taking Zoledronic acid for treatment of cancer are at higher risk 3 - If the patient is currently taking Denosumab they are at increased risk. 4 - There is no evidence that MRONJ risk will be reduced if the patient permanently stops taking bisphosphonate drugs prior to invasive dental procedures 5 - Anti-angiogenic drugs are not thought to remain in the body for extended periods of time

Question 171

Your patient, for whom you are providing a denture, fails to return for his bite registration. What is the fee that may be claimed from the work undertaken? 1 - 0% of gross fee 2 - 70% of gross fee 3 - 33% of gross fee 4 - 50% of gross fee

Answer 171

2 - 70% of gross fee

Question 172

As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, what is the prior approval limit? 1 - £384​ 2 - £516​ 3 - £720 4 - £600 ​ 5 - £254​

Answer 172

4 - £600 ​

Question 173

For incidents that are serious enough to warrant reporting to the Health and Safety Executive which of the following is/are true? 1 - Written record of reported injuries and dangerous occurences to be kept 2 - A written report of the incident must be sent to your defence organisation 3 - Employers must report a listed occupational disease to the HSE if they, or an employee is diagnosed with such a condition and the sufferer has been doing the listed work activities 4 - Written report of the incident to be sent to the GDC 5 - For an accident at work, serious enough to warrant reporting, a report should be received by the Health and Safety Executive within 10 days

Answer 173

1 - Written record of reported injuries and dangerous occurences to be kept 3 - Employers must report a listed occupational disease to the HSE if they, or an employee is diagnosed with such a condition and the sufferer has been doing the listed work activities 5 - For an accident at work, serious enough to warrant reporting, a report should be received by the Health and Safety Executive within 10 days

Question 174

The GDC recommend that Medical Emergencies CPD is done at least...? 1 - Every 6 months 2 - Every year 3 - Every two years 4 - Every three years 5 - After each collapse

Answer 174

2 - Every year

Question 175

Under which of the following circumstances may patient information be divulged? 1 - A dental insurance company request with written consent 2 - A husband wishes to pay his wife's bill for dental treatment and enquires how much it amounts to. 3 - A patient has transferred to another practice and wishes to have a copy of all of her treatment records to take with her 4 - A school head teacher suspects a child is playing truant. The child says he was attending the dentist. The head teacher asks the dental clinic if the child had an appointment at the time in question

Answer 175

1 - A dental insurance company request with written consent 3 - A patient has transferred to another practice and wishes to have a copy of all of her treatment records to take with her

Question 176

A claim for orthodontic assessment should be written on which form? 1 - GP14 2 - GP17(O) 3 - GP34 4 - GP17 5- GP04

Answer 176

2 - GP17(O)

Question 177

Which of the following is/are true of latex products in the dental practice? 1 - A medical emergency as a result of latex allergy is a reportable disease under RIDDOR (1995) 2 - Latex products are not subject to COSHH (2002) regulations 3 - COSHH regulations restrict the use of powdered latex gloves 4 - It is recommended that all dental practices should have a policy for the use of Natural Rubber Latex products in order to protect staff from developing NRL allergy 5 - Non latex products should be supplied if a member of staff is proven to be allergic to latex

Answer 177

1 - A medical emergency as a result of latex allergy is a reportable disease under RIDDOR (1995) 3 - COSHH regulations restrict the use of powdered latex gloves 4 - It is recommended that all dental practices should have a policy for the use of Natural Rubber Latex products in order to protect staff from developing NRL allergy 5 - Non latex products should be supplied if a member of staff is proven to be allergic to latex

Question 178

First Aid is covered by the Health and Safety at Work Act. Which of the following is/are true? 1 - On graduation, Dentists are deemed qualified First Aiders under the terms of the HSW Act 2 - Employers are obliged to provide adequate first aid cover for staff during domiciliary visits 3 - All practices must have an "Appointed Person" for First Aid 4 - If no eye wash solution is available, tap water can be used as emergency irrigant

Answer 178

2 - Employers are obliged to provide adequate first aid cover for staff during domiciliary visits 3 - All practices must have an "Appointed Person" for First Aid 4 - If no eye wash solution is available, tap water can be used as emergency irrigant

Question 179

Which of the following must be fulfilled when obtaining valid consent for dental treatment?: 1 - Proposed treatment explained in terms patient can understand 2 - Consent must be voluntary 3 - Costs involved to the patient of alternatives (if appropriate) 4 - Consequences of not proceeding with treatment explained 5 - Risk and benefits of all alternative treatment 6 - The dentist knows which treatment is best for the patient

Answer 179

1 - Proposed treatment explained in terms patient can understand 2 - Consent must be voluntary 3 - Costs involved to the patient of alternatives (if appropriate) 4 - Consequences of not proceeding with treatment explained 5 - Risk and benefits of all alternative treatment

Question 180

Which of the following are true in relation to employer's liability insurance: 1 - You must be covered for at least £5 million 2 - You may be fined £2500 for every day that you are not adequately insured 3 - A hard copy must be provided to all employees 4 - Certificates must be retained for 40 years 5 - The policy may be purchased through an insurance broker

Answer 180

1 - You must be covered for at least £5 million 2 - You may be fined £2500 for every day that you are not adequately insured 4 - Certificates must be retained for 40 years 5 - The policy may be purchased through an insurance broker

Question 181

Which of the following are considered drugs for emergency use? 1 - Paracetamol 2 - Midazolam buccal liquid 3 - Aspirin 4 - Adrenaline 5 - Oral glucose

Answer 181

2 - Midazolam buccal liquid 3 - Aspirin 4 - Adrenaline 5 - Oral glucose

Question 182

The antibiotic most frequently associated with the adverse effect of antibiotic associated colitis is...? 1 - Erythromycin 2 - Metronidazole 3 - Doxycycline 4 - Penicillin 5 - Clindamycin

Answer 182

5 - Clindamycin

Question 183

Which of the following should not be given to asthmatic patients? 1 - Paracetamol 2 - Metronidazole 3 - Ibuprofen 4 - Amoxicillin 5 - Erythromycin

Answer 183

3 - Ibuprofen

Question 184

What treatment would you give to a 55 year old male patient with a history of angina who complains of severe chest pain? 1 - Glyceryl trinitrate 2 - Chlorphenamine 3 - Adrenaline 4 - Salbutamol 5 - Oxygen

Answer 184

1 - Glyceryl trinitrate 5 - Oxygen

Question 185

Which of the following statements are true? 1 - The maximum daily dose of paracetamol for a 5 year old child is 900mg 2 - The maximum daily dose of diclofenac for an adult is 300mg. 3 - The maximum daily dose of ibuprofen for an adult is 2.4g. 4 - Paracetamol and ibuprofen can be given alternately to children provided the maximum recommended dose for each drug is not exceeded. 5 - The maximum daily dose of paracetamol for an adult is 4g.

Answer 185

3 - The maximum daily dose of ibuprofen for an adult is 2.4g. 4 - Paracetamol and ibuprofen can be given alternately to children provided the maximum recommended dose for each drug is not exceeded. 5 - The maximum daily dose of paracetamol for an adult is 4g.

Question 186

In the event of death in service, members of the NHS Pension Scheme are entitled to which of the following benefits:- 1 - Your widow/widower paid a pension for life. 2 - Funeral costs 3 - An allowance for children under 17 or in full time education 4 - Cash lump sum payable to your estate. 5 - Payment of outstanding practice loans

Answer 186

1 - Your widow/widower paid a pension for life. 3 - An allowance for children under 17 or in full time education 4 - Cash lump sum payable to your estate.

Question 187

Following a needlestick injury, what is the first thing that should be done? 1 - Put pressure on the wound to stop the bleeding 2 - Encourage bleeding by squeezing above the wound and wash injury thoroughly with warm water and soap 3 - Clean the wound with alcohol gel 4 - Tell the patient 5 - Tell the principal / VT Trainer

Answer 187

2 - Encourage bleeding by squeezing above the wound and wash injury thoroughly with warm water and soap

Question 188

Your Dental Nurse who has been employed with you for a year tells you that she is pregnant and would like to know the rules relating to maternity leave and pay. Which of the following is/are true: 1 - The earliest that Statutory Maternity Leave can be taken is 11 weeks before the expected week of childbirth, unless the baby is born early. 2 - The employee can be required to provide proof of pregnancy to take Statutory Maternity Leave. 3 - Eligible employees can take up to a maximum of 25 weeks of Statutory Maternity Leave. 4 - The employee can be required to provide proof of pregnancy to obtain Statutory Maternity Pay. 5 - You may dismiss her fairly as she has not yet been employed for 2 years provided the reason is not related to her pregnancy.

Answer 188

1 - The earliest that Statutory Maternity Leave can be taken is 11 weeks before the expected week of childbirth, unless the baby is born early. 4 - The employee can be required to provide proof of pregnancy to obtain Statutory Maternity Pay. 5 - You may dismiss her fairly as she has not yet been employed for 2 years provided the reason is not related to her pregnancy.

Question 189

In relation to First Aid in the Dental Practice, which of the following are true? 1 - A notice should be prominently displayed indicating the location of the First Aid kit. 2 - Health and Safety regulations state an employer has a duty to make adequate first aid provision for employees. 3 - A First Aid kit must contain a full range of emergency drugs. 4 - First Aid kits must be available in each treatment area.

Answer 189

1 - A notice should be prominently displayed indicating the location of the First Aid kit. 2 - Health and Safety regulations state an employer has a duty to make adequate first aid provision for employees.

Question 190

Resin-retained bridge under the NHS: 1 - Can be used to replace molar teeth to aid chewing 2 - Can normally only be provided 12 months after the extraction of any tooth to be replaced by the bridge 3 - Can normally only be provided in patients 17 years and over at the start of treatment 4 - Can only be claimed where study models are available

Answer 190

3 - Can normally only be provided in patients 17 years and over at the start of treatment 4 - Can only be claimed where study models are available

Question 191

Which of the following should the first aid box in your dental practice contain? 1 - Sterile eye pads. 2 - Aspirin. 3 - Adrenaline 1ml ampoule of 1:1000. 4 - Salbutamol inhaler. 5 - Unmedicated wound dressings.

Answer 191

1 - Sterile eye pads. 5 - Unmedicated wound dressings.

Question 192

The GDC considers that a small number of dental professionals do not require any indemnity or insurance. Please indicate for each of the following which statements is/are true? 1 - Registrants who are adoptive parents( first year of adoption) or on maternity leave and up to one year after the birth of a child are all exempt from the requirement to have indemnity during the maternity leave. 2 - Registrants on maternity leave and up to one year after the birth of a child are exempt from the requirement to have indemnity during the maternity leave. 3 - If you are completely sure that you do not need indemnity or insurance for your role, you must still submit a declaration each year when you are renewing your registration. 4 - Registrants who are not working and those who work in completely non-clinical roles, and whose employers do not require them to have indemnity or insurance may be exempt for the need to have insurance or indemnity. 5 - Registrants on maternity leave are exempt from the requirement to have indemnity during the maternity leave.

Answer 192

3 - If you are completely sure that you do not need indemnity or insurance for your role, you must still submit a declaration each year when you are renewing your registration. 4 - Registrants who are not working and those who work in completely non-clinical roles, and whose employers do not require them to have indemnity or insurance may be exempt for the need to have insurance or indemnity.

Question 193

Mercury is a poison, but is a commonly used element in dentistry. Which of the following is/are true with regard to mercury in Dental Practice? 1 - Under current regulations Practices are obliged to fit amalgam separators to suction motors 2 - Collection of waste Amalgam or Mercury can only be carried out by licensed persons and consignment notes must be kept for 3 years 3 - COSHH regulations state that employing dentists must carry out a risk assessment for ALL employees with regard to Mercury 4 - Water contaminated with waste amalgam can be discharged into the normal sewer if a current Scottish Environmental Protection Agency (SEPA) licence is held 5 - Recycling air conditioning systems in surgeries are not recommended

Answer 193

1 - Under current regulations Practices are obliged to fit amalgam separators to suction motors 2 - Collection of waste Amalgam or Mercury can only be carried out by licensed persons and consignment notes must be kept for 3 years 3 - COSHH regulations state that employing dentists must carry out a risk assessment for ALL employees with regard to Mercury 5 - Recycling air conditioning systems in surgeries are not recommended

Question 194

Which of the following routine maintenance checks should you carry out on a regular basis? 1 - Warning lights 2 - Exposure setting 3 - The counterbalance for maintaining the position of the x-ray tube 4 - Audible alarms

Answer 194

1 - Warning lights 3 - The counterbalance for maintaining the position of the x-ray tube 4 - Audible alarms

Question 195

The arm of your new X-ray machine fails and the head crashes on to the work surface below. No one is hurt and you immediately switch off the machine at the mains. Which official body is it necessary to contact? 1 - The MDDUS 2 - The Medicines and Healthcare Products Regulatory Agency 3 - The Health Protection Agency 4 - The Health and Safety Executive

Answer 195

2 - The Medicines and Healthcare Products Regulatory Agency

Question 196

With respect to writing-up patients' records which of the following statements are true? 1 - It is good practice to delegate this task to a nurse in order to save time 2 - Only patient medical history needs to be recorded 3 - The examining/treating clinician is liable for maintaining his/her own records 4 - Liability rests with all partners in a partnership to ensure a system is in place

Answer 196

3 - The examining/treating clinician is liable for maintaining his/her own records

Question 197

Which of the following tasks must be done daily for a Washer Disinfector? 1 - Check Spray Arms and nozzles are freely rotating 2 - Cleaning efficacy/protein residue testing 3 - Download previous days data from data logger 4 - Check for adequate detergent levels 5 - Remove and clean Strainers and Filters

Answer 197

1 - Check Spray Arms and nozzles are freely rotating 4 - Check for adequate detergent levels 5 - Remove and clean Strainers and Filters

Question 198

You diagnose a patient with shingles, what is the advised treatment regime? 1 - 800mg aciclovir, 1 tablet 5 times daily for 7 days 2 - 800mg aciclovir, 1 tablet 5 times daily for 5 days 3 - refer patient to GP in addition to aciclovir 4 - give appropriate advice on NSAIDs and allow the virus to run its course, as it is self-limiting

Answer 198

1 - 800mg aciclovir, 1 tablet 5 times daily for 7 days 3 - refer patient to GP in addition to aciclovir

Question 199

Abatement percentage for Continuing Professional Development Allowance (CPDA) depends on which of the following? 1 - The practice split between private and NHS income 2 - The number of sessions claimed up to 6 sessions per year 3 - The individual GDP's split between private and NHS income 4 - The number of sessions claimed up to 6 sessions per year and the GDP's individual split between private and NHS income 5 - The number of sessions claimed over 6 sessions per year

Answer 199

3 - The individual GDP's split between private and NHS income

Question 200

Since 2008, new entrants to healthcare who carry out exposure prone procedures should have been tested for? 1 - Human Immunodeficiency virus 2 - Herpes simplex 3 - Hepatitis B 4 - Malaria 5 - Hepatitis C

Answer 200

1 - Human Immunodeficiency virus 3 - Hepatitis B 5 - Hepatitis C

Question 201

In addition to their "highly recommended" topics the GDC "recommend that you keep up to date by doing CPD in the following areas:" select all that are correct. 1 - Oral cancer: improving early detection 2 - Risk Management 3 - Dental Public Health 4 - Complaint handling 5 - Prescribing and Denal therapeutics (pharmacology) 6 - Record keeping 7 - Safeguarding vulnerable adults 8 - Legal and ethical issues 9 - Oral Health Promotion

Answer 201

1 - Oral cancer: improving early detection 4 - Complaint handling 7 - Safeguarding vulnerable adults 8 - Legal and ethical issues

Question 202

Childsmile is a national programme operating in all Health Boards across Scotland, which of the below is NOT a component of the programme? 1 - Childsmile Core Brushing 2 - Childsmile Home 3 - Childsmile Practice 4 - Childsmile School 5 - Childsmile Nursery

Answer 202

2 - Childsmile Home

Question 203

For a General Dental Practice to be deemed NHS committed and receive the maximum payment in relation to the General Dental Practice allowance they have to fulfill the following criteria (select all that apply): 1 - Have been satisfactorily inspected by the Health Board within the last 3 years. 2 - All dentists within the practice meet, and continue to meet their NHS terms of service. 3 - Have retained no fewer than 80% of their registered NHS patients compared to their 1st July 2022 baseline. 4 - Participate in a weekend emergency scheme. 5 - Derive no more than 10% of gross income from the provision of private treatment.

Answer 203

1 - Have been satisfactorily inspected by the Health Board within the last 3 years. 2 - All dentists within the practice meet, and continue to meet their NHS terms of service. 3 - Have retained no fewer than 80% of their registered NHS patients compared to their 1st July 2022 baseline.

Question 204

The partner of a patient phones asking you to confirm the time of their appointment the following day. Do you...? 1 - Tell them you cannot give this information without permission from the patient 2 - Tell them you can only respond to written requests for information 3 - Confirm the appointment time 4 - Ask for a number to ring them back to check they are who they claim

Answer 204

1 - Tell them you cannot give this information without permission from the patient

Question 205

Automated external defibrillation requires placing one electrode 1cm below the left clavicle and one electrode on the right side of the chest of the patient 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 205

2 - False

Question 206

What measures are appropriate after a mercury spillage? 1 - Remove gross spillage with small brush and scoop 2 - Place all spillage into a sealed container 3 - Wear rubber gloves and a mask 4 - Spread flowers of sulphur over affected area 5 - Use a fine nozzle of the vacuum cleaner 6 - Collect gross debris with an alcohol wipe 7 - Use the aspirator of the dental unit

Answer 206

1 - Remove gross spillage with small brush and scoop 2 - Place all spillage into a sealed container 3 - Wear rubber gloves and a mask 4 - Spread flowers of sulphur over affected area

Question 207

Cardiac compressions during CPR in an adult, should be interrupted every 4 minutes to check for signs of life 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 207

2 - False

Question 208

A five year old patient is at increased risk of dental caries. Which of the following is an appropriate regime? 1 - Sodium Fluoride Mouthwash (0.05%) 10ml, once daily 2 - Sodium Fluoride Oral drops (0.37%) 7 drops (0.25 mg F-) daily 3 - Sodium Fluoride Toothpaste 1450ppm 4 - Sodium Fluoride Varnish application, four times a year

Answer 208

4 - Sodium Fluoride Varnish application, four times a year

Question 209

A contract to provide NHS dentistry between a patient and a dentist may be terminated in which of the following circumstances?: 1 - By dentist giving Health Board 3 months notice 2 - When the patient changes their address 3 - By immediate de-registration because patient violent (with police involvement) 4 - When transferring patient to another dentist

Answer 209

1 - By dentist giving Health Board 3 months notice 3 - By immediate de-registration because patient violent (with police involvement) 4 - When transferring patient to another dentist

Question 210

Following a reaction to the administration of local anaesthetic, anaphylaxis can be excluded if there is no visible rash 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 210

2 - False

Question 211

According to ICO Guidance, how often should Privacy Policies be updated 1 - Yearly 2 - Monthly 3 - Regularly 4 - Biannually

Answer 211

3 - Regularly

Question 212

A prescription for chlorhexidine can... 1 - Only be written and signed by a dental surgeon 2 - Be written and signed by a registered dental nurse 3 - Be written by a dental nurse and signed by a dental surgeon 4 - Be written and signed by a qualified dental nurse

Answer 212

3 - Be written by a dental nurse and signed by a dental surgeon

Question 213

Which of the following are true in relation to the HSE recommendations for the contents of a minimum first aid kit 1 - Eye pads 2 - Glucose tablets 3 - Individually wrapped triangular bandages, preferably sterile 4 - Adrenaline ampoules 5 - Scalpel blades and handle 6 - Safety pins 7 - Individually wrapped, unmedicated wound dressings 8 - Disposable gloves

Answer 213

1 - Eye pads 3 - Individually wrapped triangular bandages, 6 - Safety pins 7 - Individually wrapped, unmedicated wound dressings 8 - Disposable gloves

Question 214

When considering apportionment of fees in an associate agreement, a ‘sliding scale’: 1 - may be renegotiated by mutual consent. 2 - is defined, monitored and regulated by the BDA. 3 - is illegal under NHS regulations. 4 - is agreed between the associate and the principal at the start of the term of the Associate Agreement. 5 - allows the associate, at the start of each month to determine the percentage of the fees given to the principal. 6 - allows the principal, at the start of each month, to determine the percentage of the fees given to the associate.

Answer 214

1 - may be renegotiated by mutual consent. 4 - is agreed between the associate and the principal at the start of the term of the Associate Agreement.

Question 215

If antibiotics are indicated to treat a spreading dental abscess in an adult which of the following is the preferred first line antibiotic where compliance is expected to be good? 1 - Phenoxymethylpenicillin tablets 250mg. Two tablets four times daily for 5 days. 2 - Phenoxymethylpenicillin tablets 250mg. One tablet four times daily for 5 days ​ 3 - Amoxicillin capsules 500mg. One tablet three times daily for 5 days 4 - Amoxicillin capsules 250mg. One tablet three times daily for 5 days

Answer 215

1 - Phenoxymethylpenicillin tablets 250mg. Two tablets four times daily for 5 days.

Question 216

Which of the following statements is or are true about verifiable CPD from the 1st of January 2018? 1 - The requirement to align CPD activity with specific development outcomes. 2 - The GDC gives specific advice about how CPD hours should be spread across the 5 year cycle. 3 - The requirement for all dentists to have a personal development plan (PDP). 4 - Dental professionals have to declare non-verifiable CPD to the GDC.

Answer 216

1 - The requirement to align CPD activity with specific development outcomes. 2 - The GDC gives specific advice about how CPD hours should be spread across the 5 year cycle. 3 - The requirement for all dentists to have a personal development plan (PDP).

Question 217

An 'HC1' form is used... 1 - To claim refund of NHS Charges 2 - To explain all the help that a patient may be able to get with health costs 3 - To apply for help under the NHS Low Income Scheme 4 - To certify that a patient qualifies for full help with payment of dental charges

Answer 217

3 - To apply for help under the NHS Low Income Scheme

Question 218

By law, Civil Partnership is a protected characteristic, but marriage is not 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 218

2 - False

Question 219

Which of the following procedures can a Dental Therapist carry out either directly or under the prescription of a Dentist? 1 - Carry out oral cancer screening 2 - Prescribe radiographs 3 - Administer infiltration and inferior dental block anaesthesia 4 - Place preformed crowns on deciduous teeth 5 - Carry out simple (non surgical) extractions on adults

Answer 219

1 - Carry out oral cancer screening 2 - Prescribe radiographs 3 - Administer infiltration and inferior dental block anaesthesia 4 - Place preformed crowns on deciduous teeth

Question 220

If a Dental Practitioner is unsure if a patient who is deemed incompetent under the Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000 has a welfare proxy, he/she could establish the identity of any proxy by contacting a number of authorities. These include: 1 - The patient's doctor 2 - The Office of the Public Guardian (Scotland) 3 - The Police 4 - Social Services

Answer 220

1 - The patient's doctor 2 - The Office of the Public Guardian (Scotland) 4 - Social Services

Question 221

A General Dental Practitioner would be required to notify which of the following incidents to the Health & Safety Executive? 1 - A dental receptionist of the practice slips on wet tiles at the surgery entrance breaking her leg and causing her to be hospitalised for 4 days 2 - In the course of the removal of an impacted third molar the elevator slips and the patient's lingual nerve is damaged 3 - Despite having received a series of vaccinations against hepatitis an associate discovers that he is e-antigen positive 4 - After a flying piece of amalgam hit a dental nurse's eye she had a painful night & lost sleep. Her mother complained before she returned the next day. She fully recovered by the end of the week. 5 - The compressor in the practice goes on fire due to an electrical short circuit causing the surgery to have to close for a few days because of smoke damage from the ignited clinical waste

Answer 221

1 - A dental receptionist of the practice slips on wet tiles at the surgery entrance breaking her leg and causing her to be hospitalised for 4 days 5 - The compressor in the practice goes on fire due to an electrical short circuit causing the surgery to have to close for a few days because of smoke damage from the ignited clinical waste

Question 222

When applying GDPR, a data protection officer must 1 - Be a member of staff 2 - be registered with the GDC 3 - Be a lawyer 4 - have knowledge of the data protection law

Answer 222

4 - have knowledge of the data protection law

Question 223

Regarding acceptable portable appliance testing (PAT): 1 - Appliances should be labelled and certified after testing 2 - It needs to be repeated every 12months 3 - It must be carried out by a competent person 4 - Records of testing should be retained 5 - Must have fixed wire testing completed at the same time

Answer 223

1 - Appliances should be labelled and certified after testing 3 - It must be carried out by a competent person 4 - Records of testing should be retained

Question 224

How often should routine testing be carried out on CBCT equipment?​ 1 - 3 Yearly where a suitable QA test object is available​ 2 - Annually where a suitable QA test object is available​ 3 - Annually where a suitable QA test object is not available.​ 4 - 3 yearly where a suitable QA test object is not available​

Answer 224

1 - 3 Yearly where a suitable QA test object is available​

Question 225

As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, which of the following is/are true about sedation under NHS arrangements?​ 1 - Item 6(b) Sedation may be claimed for each visit in which a patient requires sedation for dental treatment​ 2 - Item 6(a) Sedation Assessment may not be claimed without an accompanying claim for item 6(b) Sedation in the same course of treatment.​ 3 - Item 6(b) may be claimed where a combination of more than one sedative agent is used within an appointment.​ 4 - Item 6(b) Sedation may not be claimed where the same operator is administering sedation and providing treatment in the same appointment.​

Answer 225

1 - Item 6(b) Sedation may be claimed for each visit in which a patient requires sedation for dental treatment​

Question 226

If an adult patient collapses in the dental practice, head-tilt and chin-lift should be used to open the airway and may relieve airway obstruction 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 226

1 - True

Question 227

Which of the below is NOT an indication to carry out pulp therapy on a primary molar? 1 - Dental abscess 2 - Radiographic signs of pulpal involvement 3 - Tooth close to exfoliation 4 - Irreversible pulpitis

Answer 227

3 - Tooth close to exfoliation

Question 228

If at any time a staff member suspects a failure in equipment and there is a continuous generation of x-rays, what immediate action should you take?​ 1 - The mains supply should be turned off and only reused after it has been checked by an engineer. ​ 2 - The main supply should be turned off and the machine only reused if the resultant radiograph is graded as "Acceptable“​ 3 - The mains supply should be turned off and MPE contacted for advice​ 4 - The RPS should be informed and the RPA contacted for further advice​ 5 - The RPS should be informed and the MPE contacted for further advice​

Answer 228

1 - The mains supply should be turned off and only reused after it has been checked by an engineer. ​ 4 - The RPS should be informed and the RPA contacted for further advice​

Question 229

Your patient is a deep sea fisherman. You are allowed to proceed immediately with treatment which normally requires confirmation of prior approval if this patient is leaving the country for a minimum period of? 1 - 1 week 2 - 2 weeks 3 - 3 weeks 4 - 4 weeks 5 - 2 months 6 - 3 months 7 - 6 months

Answer 229

4 - 4 weeks

Question 230

The acronym COSHH stands for..? 1 - Committee on Safety, Health and Hygiene 2 - Committee for Oral Standards of Health and Hygiene 3 - Control of Substances Hazardous to Health 4 - Committee on Sources of Health Hazards

Answer 230

3 - Control of Substances Hazardous to Health

Question 231

Which of the following are true regarding COSHH assessment? 1 - The BDA is responsible for providing a COSHH assessment of practices 2 - Records of the assessment should always be kept 3 - Failure to comply with the regulations constitutes an offence and is subject to penalties under the Health and Safety at Work Act 4 - Your indemnifier (e.g. MDDUS) is responsible for providing a COSHH assessment of your practice 5 - Dental staff should be aware of the risks involved with hazardous substances and be trained in handling them correctly

Answer 231

2 - Records of the assessment should always be kept 3 - Failure to comply with the regulations constitutes an offence and is subject to penalties under the Health and Safety at Work Act 5 - Dental staff should be aware of the risks involved with hazardous substances and be trained in handling them correctly

Question 232

According to the SDCEP guidelines: 1 - 5% Sodium Fluoride varnish should not be reapplied to a child’s teeth within 48 hours of a previous application 2 - If a child is at increased risk of dental caries they should have 5% Sodium Fluoride varnish applications 4 times per year 3 - If 5% Sodium Fluoride Varnish is applied before 10am, teeth should be brushed that evening before going to bed 4 - The correct dose of a varnish containing 22,600ppm Fluoride is 0.25ml for a child between 2 and 5 years 5 - A child with mild asthma should not receive more than 2 applications of 5% Sodium Fluoride per year

Answer 232

2 - If a child is at increased risk of dental caries they should have 5% Sodium Fluoride varnish applications 4 times per year 4 - The correct dose of a varnish containing 22,600ppm Fluoride is 0.25ml for a child between 2 and 5 years

Question 233

Which of these is defined as a protected characteristic within employment legislation? 1 - Age 2 - Sex 3 - Marriage and Civil Partnership 4 - Being left handed

Answer 233

1 - Age 2 - Sex 3 - Marriage and Civil Partnership

Question 234

If you dismiss an employee, they are entitled to a written statement giving details of the reasons for their dismissal: 1 - When requested, for those who have been employed by you for over two years 2 - For anyone dismissed while on statutory maternity leave, whether the statement has been requested or not 3 - In all cases where they have been employed for over a year 4 - For anyone dismissed while on statutory maternity leave, regardless of how long they have worked for you 5 - Within 5 days of a request

Answer 234

2 - For anyone dismissed while on statutory maternity leave, whether the statement has been requested or not 4 - For anyone dismissed while on statutory maternity leave, regardless of how long they have worked for you

Question 235

In regards to CBCT, which of the following is / are correct?​ 1 - No training is required in order to justify, perform or interpret CBCT examination or make referrals ​ 2 - Additional training is required in order to justify, perform or interpret CBCT examinations 3 - Practical training in use of the imaging software will be required

Answer 235

2 - Additional training is required in order to justify, perform or interpret CBCT examinations 3 - Practical training in use of the imaging software will be required

Question 236

True or false? If an epileptic seizure occurs, where possible, the patient should be given oxygen at a flow rate of 15 litres/minute 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 236

1 - True

Question 237

The practice of dentistry without a current professional indemnity or insurance...? 1 - Is a criminal offence. 2 - Would lead to a Professional Conduct Committee Investigation 3 - Would constitute a breach of civil law 4 - Would prevent a dental student from graduating

Answer 237

2 - Would lead to a Professional Conduct Committee Investigation

Question 238

According to the SDR, a permanent fixed bridge would not normally be provided until which of the following post-extraction periods has elapsed? 1 - 1 week 2 - 4 weeks 3 - 1 month 4 - 3 months 5 - 6 months 6 - 12 months 7 - None of the above

Answer 238

5 - 6 months

Question 239

Which of the following injuries are reportable to the Health and Safety Executive? 1 - An employee is killed at work 2 - Patient has a heart attack in the practice 3 - An employee contracts a work related disease 4 - An injury resulting from electric shock in the practice 5 - A patient attacks a member of staff

Answer 239

1 - An employee is killed at work 3 - An employee contracts a work related disease 4 - An injury resulting from electric shock in the practice

Question 240

Unless an extension is agreed by all parties involved, how quickly should you aim to resolve patient complaints that require investigation 1 - 3 working days 2 - 7 working days 3 - 10 working days 4 - 20 working days 5 - 28 working days

Answer 240

4 - 20 working days

Question 241

Which of the following should you administer if an adult patient developed anaphylaxis while in your surgery? 1 - Adrenaline, 1.0 ml (1:80000) by intramuscular injection 2 - Adrenaline, 0.1 ml (1:1000) by intramuscular injection 3 - Adrenaline, 0.5 ml (1:1000) by intramuscular injection 4 - Adrenaline, 1.0 ml (1:80000) by intravenous injection 5 - Adrenaline, 0.1 ml (1:1000) by intravenous injection 6- Adrenaline, 0.5 ml (1:1000) by intravenous injection

Answer 241

3 - Adrenaline, 0.5 ml (1:1000) by intramuscular injection

Question 242

In a healthy adult patient with a localised dental abscess with no evidence of spreading infection or systemic involvement, which of the following is appropriate first-line treatment? 1 - Prescribe amoxicillin 2 - Drain pus in the dental abscess by extraction of the tooth or through the root canals 3 - Drain pus in the dental abscess by extraction of the tooth or through the root canals and prescribe amoxicillin 4 - Drain pus in the dental abscess by extraction of the tooth or through the root canals and prescribe phenoxymethylpenicillin (Penicillin V) 5 - Prescribe phenoxymethylpenicillin (Penicillin V)

Answer 242

2 - Drain pus in the dental abscess by extraction of the tooth or through the root canals

Question 243

The maximum daily dose of ibuprofen for an adult is? 1 - 0.4g 2 - 3.4g 3 - 2.4g 4 - 1.4g

Answer 243

3 - 2.4g

Question 244

A dentate patient, not taking any other medication, presents with Angular Cheilitis. Which is the most appropriate first line treatment?: 1 - Miconazole (1%) Cream 2 - Miconazole (2%) and Hydrocortisone (1%) Ointment 3 - Miconazole (2%) Cream 4- Miconazole (1%) and Hydrocortisone (1%) Cream

Answer 244

3 - Miconazole (2%) Cream

Question 245

Which of the following does not carry a caution note when used in patients who receive warfarin therapy? 1 - Paracetamol 2 - Metronidazole 3 - Ibuprofen 4 - Clarithromycin 5 - Aspirin

Answer 245

1 - Paracetamol

Question 246

Regulations exist governing the disposal of waste from Dental Practices. Which of the following are true? 1 - Special waste containers should be filled as full as possible to prevent movement of the clinical waste in transit. 2 - All waste can be uplifted by the council as long as prior arrangements have been made. 3 - Records relating to the collection of special (Orange ,Yellow and Red stream) waste should be kept for 3 years. 4 - Waste disposal firms in Scotland that uplift special waste must be registered with the Scottish Environmental Protection Agency. 5 - Waste containers are colour coded for the different waste streams.

Answer 246

3 - Records relating to the collection of special (Orange ,Yellow and Red stream) waste should be kept for 3 years. 4 - Waste disposal firms in Scotland that uplift special waste must be registered with the Scottish Environmental Protection Agency. 5 - Waste containers are colour coded for the different waste streams.

Question 247

Which of the following statements are correct around dental unit water lines? ​ 1 - They should be flushed for 1-2 minutes at the start and end of each day. ​ 2 - A written procedure is necessary for the management of dental unit water lines.​ 3 - They should be flushed for 2-4 minutes at the start and end of each day and for 30 seconds after use. 4 - They do not need to be flushed between patients. ​

Answer 247

2 - A written procedure is necessary for the management of dental unit water lines.​ 3 - They should be flushed for 2-4 minutes at the start and end of each day and for 30 seconds after use.

Question 248

Doxycycline dispersible tablets 1 - can enhance the anticoagulant effect of warfarin 2 - are licensed for treatment of oral ulceration in adults 3 - can be prescribed to a 12 year old patient 4 - are always effective in treating patients with recurrent aphous ulceration

Answer 248

1 - can enhance the anticoagulant effect of warfarin 3 - can be prescribed to a 12 year old patient

Question 249

The Acronym RIDDOR stands for:​ 1 - Reporting of Injuries, Diseases, and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations 2 - Reporting of Incidences involving Dangerous Dental Occupational Risks​ 3 - Regulation of incidences, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Reporting​ 4 - Regulation of Incidences, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrence Risks 5 - Recommendations for Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Reporting​

Answer 249

1 - Reporting of Injuries, Diseases, and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations

Question 250

How frequently should members of the dental team familiarise themselves with the local rules?​ 1 - every 2 years 2 - Annually​ 3 - on starting employment 4 - 6 monthly

Answer 250

2 - Annually​ 3 - on starting employment

Question 251

Under the Working Time (Amendment) Regulations 2007 employees have the right to which of the following 1 - 5.6 weeks paid leave per year (from 1st April 2009) 2 - Paid time off on public holidays 3 - All bank holidays off 4 - Payment for untaken statutory leave entitlement on termination of employment 5 - 4.8 weeks paid leave per year (from 1st April 2009)

Answer 251

1 - 5.6 weeks paid leave per year (from 1st April 2009) 4 - Payment for untaken statutory leave entitlement on termination of employment

Question 252

What regulation applies to a needlestick injury? 1 - Regulation 9 2 - RIDDOR regulation 3 - IRMER regulation 4 - Dangerous Drugs Act 5 - COSHH regulation

Answer 252

2 - RIDDOR regulation

Question 253

Under which of the following circumstances are Personal Dosimeters a requirement in practice? 1 - The operator takes more than 100 intra oral films per week. 2 - The practice does not have a digital imaging system. 3 - If the operator takes more than 50 panoral films per week. 4 - If it is not possible for the operator to remain outside the controlled area when films are exposed. 5 - If the operator is pregnant.

Answer 253

1 - The operator takes more than 100 intra oral films per week. 3 - If the operator takes more than 50 panoral films per week.

Question 254

NHS Scotland complaints handling procedure recommends that straightforward complaints should be dealt with: 1 - Involving your defence union at the earliest opportunity 2 - By "early resolution" within 5 days 3 - At the practice reception desk 4 - By involving the Scottish Public Services Ombudsman at the earliest possible stage 5 - By advising the patient to contact the GDC in the first instance 6 - By "early resolution" within 10 days

Answer 254

2 - By "early resolution" within 5 days

Question 255

NSAIDS eg aspirin or Ibuprofen have an increased bleeding risk due to which effect? 1 - Impair platelet function to various extents 2 - Cause thrombocytopenia 3 - By reducing preprothrombin conversion 4 - Causing factor VIII deficiency

Answer 255

? 1 - Impair platelet function to various extents

Question 256

GDPR applies to 1 - Only Scottish businesses 2 - Controllers and Processors 3 - Controllers only 4 - Processors only

Answer 256

2 - Controllers and Processors

Question 257

A patient attends for the provision of F/F dentures but does not return after the try-in stage. What is the minimum number of complete calendar months from when the patient last attended that you should wait before claiming your fee? 1 - 1 month 2 - 2 months 3 - 3 months 4 - 6 months 5 - 12 months

Answer 257

2 - 2 months

Question 258

GDC guidelines state that any practicing dentist involved in advising or treating patients must also hold which of the following insurances? 1 - Practice Insurance 2 - Professional Indemnity Insurance 3 - Public Liability Insurance 4 - Sickness and Accident Insurance

Answer 258

2 - Professional Indemnity Insurance

Question 259

Which of the following items should be included in Infection Control Policies? 1 - Hand Hygiene 2 - Compressor maintenance log book 3 - Personal protective equipment 4 - Immunisation of staff 5 - Waste Management

Answer 259

1 - Hand Hygiene 3 - Personal protective equipment 4 - Immunisation of staff 5 - Waste Management

Question 260

You add a clasp to an existing denture (8 months old) to aid retention. Which of the following are correct? 1 - You can only charge the patient privately for this 2 - You can claim an NHS fee for the clasp 3 - You cannot claim an NHS fee as it forms part of the original claim 4 - You can claim an NHS fee for the clasp and an impression

Answer 260

2 - You can claim an NHS fee for the clasp

Question 261

GDPR gives data subjects which of the following 1 - the right to object to processing in certain circumstances 2 - the right to complain to the Information Commissioner 3 - the right to withdraw consent at any time (where relevant) 4 - the right to restrict processing in certain circumstances 5 - the opportunity to access limited information belonging to others upon payment of an appropriate fee

Answer 261

1 - the right to object to processing in certain circumstances 2 - the right to complain to the Information Commissioner 3 - the right to withdraw consent at any time (where relevant) 4 - the right to restrict processing in certain circumstances

Question 262

Adherence to which of the following regulations is required to ensure compliance with Health and Safety Law? 1 - CPD 2 - COSSH 3 - COSHH 4 - RIDDOR 5 - CPR

Answer 262

3 - COSHH 4 - RIDDOR

Question 263

A patient (who has no special medical needs) attends your practice and is 14 years of age at the examination. She requires an occlusal restoration on a lower first molar. However, by the time the restoration is placed she has turned 15, so it would be appropriate to place an amalgam restoration under NHS regulations 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 263

2 - False

Question 264

From the 1st of January 2018: For a dentist, how many hours of verifiable CPD are required by the GDC in a 5 year cycle? 1 - 20 2 - 50 3 - 75 4 - 100 5 - None

Answer 264

4 - 100

Question 265

The GDC website lists the circumstances under which registrants are exempt from declaring that they have indemnity or insurance. True or False? 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 265

2 - False

Question 266

When working as an associate for a Dental Body Corporate listed on the first part of the Dental List you are entitled to claim the same allowances as an associate working for a traditional partnership-owned practice. 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 266

1 - True

Question 267

What is “Duty of Candour”? 1 - Discussion of NHS Rules and regulations relevant to the patients treatment. 2 - Discussion of treatment options for the patient. 3 - Discussion of adverse incidents involving the patient. 4 - Discussion of complaints procedure with the patient.

Answer 267

3 - Discussion of adverse incidents involving the patient.

Question 268

Which of the following qualify as yellow stream special waste? 1 - Disposable syringes 2 - Extracted teeth with amalgam 3 - Scalpel blades 4 - Highly infectious waste or blood 5 - Lead foils from x-ray film packets

Answer 268

1 - Disposable syringes 3 - Scalpel blades 4 - Highly infectious waste or blood

Question 269

Under GDPR, what is considered special category data 1 - Ethnic origin 2 - Race 3 - Name 4 - Marital status

Answer 269

1 - Ethnic origin 2 - Race

Question 270

The monthly NHS schedule issued by Practitioner Services to non-salaried GDS dentists with a list number gives details of which of the following? 1 - Capitation and Continuing Care payments to the list number. 2 - Details of any claims that have been subject to adjustments by Practitioner services. 3 - Total gross payments to the list number processed for the month. 4 - Patients transferred outwith the practice. 5 - Superannuation payments deducted at source. 6 - Patients about to be asked to attend for DRO inspection.

Answer 270

1 - Capitation and Continuing Care payments to the list number. 2 - Details of any claims that have been subject to adjustments by Practitioner services. 3 - Total gross payments to the list number processed for the month. 4 - Patients transferred outwith the practice. 5 - Superannuation payments deducted at source.

Question 271

Which of the following is/are true of The Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) Regulations 2002:​ 1 - Potentially infected blood and body fluids are covered by the regulations.​ 2 - Ionising Radiation is covered by the regulations.​ 3 - Mercury in dental practices is covered by specific legislation and not by the COSHH regulations.​ 4 - Asbestos is not covered by the regulations.​

Answer 271

1 - Potentially infected blood and body fluids are covered by the regulations.​ 4 - Asbestos is not covered by the regulations.​

Question 272

Except in special cases, under IRR 2017, the maximum annual effective dose for employees aged 18 years or over is: 1 - 10mSV per annum 2 - 20mSV per annum 3 - 10mGy per annum 4 - 20mGy per annum

Answer 272

2 - 20mSV per annum

Question 273

Who has primary responsibility for a VDP's dental notes being written up correctly? 1 - VDP 2 - Dental Nurse 3 - Practice Principal 4 - Practice Manager 5 - Trainer

Answer 273

1 - VDP

Question 274

A patient (who has no special medical needs) attends your practice and is 15 years of age at the examination. She requires an occlusal restoration on a lower first molar, and has turned 16 by the time the restoration is placed. It would be appropriate to place an amalgam restoration under NHS regulations: True or False? 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 274

1 - True

Question 275

What criteria should be considered where there is a foreseeable risk of legionella within a workplace? 1 - Water pipes are a mixture of copper and plastic 2 - Is the water temperature in all or part of the system between 20°C and 45°C? 3 - Are there deposits that support bacterial growth visible (e.g. biofilm)? 4 - Water is used to make hot drinks for staff 5 - Is water stored or recirculated as part of the system? 6 - Can water droplets be produced and dispersed (e.g. aerosols)?

Answer 275

2 - Is the water temperature in all or part of the system between 20°C and 45°C? 3 - Are there deposits that support bacterial growth visible (e.g. biofilm)? 5 - Is water stored or recirculated as part of the system? 6 - Can water droplets be produced and dispersed (e.g. aerosols)?

Question 276

An associate is..?: 1 - A self-employed worker 2 - An employee of the practice he/she works in 3 - Working under a list number of the practice principal 4 - Working under his/her own list number 5 - Free to leave their practice without prior notice

Answer 276

1 - A self-employed worker 4 - Working under his/her own list number

Question 277

Which of the following is/are true of Fire Risk Management in Dental Practices:​ 1 - A fire alarm system if present must legally be connected to an external monitoring organisation. 2 - A fire action notice should be displayed in the practice.​ 3 - A fire drill should be carried out at least every year.​ 4 - A member of the practice team must be nominated to inspect and maintain fire extinguishers.​ 5 - Staff should be trained in what to do in the event of a fire.​

Answer 277

2 - A fire action notice should be displayed in the practice.​ 3 - A fire drill should be carried out at least every year.​ 5 - Staff should be trained in what to do in the event of a fire.​

Question 278

You plan to change the pay rates in your dental practice. During the process you fail to inform employees about development opportunities and sources of support. This is: 1 - Illegal under the Equality Act 2010 2 - Acceptable

Answer 278

2 - Acceptable

Question 279

Written consent is always required for? 1 - Multiple abutment bridgework 2 - Extensive restorative treatment 3 - Simple conservative dentistry under a local anaesthetic 4 - Orthodontic treatment 5 - Treatment under a GA 6 - Extraction of lower 8's under LA

Answer 279

5 - Treatment under a GA

Question 280

Some complaints require relatively little investigation. You should aim to complete such an Early Stage resolution within: 1 - 5 working days 2 - 7 working days 3 - 2 working days 4 - 14 working days

Answer 280

1 - 5 working days

Question 281

As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, a claim under item 2(c) for periodontal assessment must include a 6 point pocket chart of affected teeth.​ 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 281

1 - True

Question 282

Which of the following patient information is considered personal and therefore subject to GDC guidelines pertaining to confidentiality? 1 - Non-payment of fees/account history 2 - Appointment times/attendances 3 - Name/Address/Registration with practice 4 - Previous Dental History 5 - None of the above

Answer 282

1 - Non-payment of fees/account history 2 - Appointment times/attendances 3 - Name/Address/Registration with practice 4 - Previous Dental History

Question 283

Which of the following additional skills could a trained and indemnified Dental nurse carry out on prescription or under the direction of another registrant? 1 - Light supragingival cleaning not involving an ultrasonic cleaner 2 - Apply topical anaesthetic to the prescription of a dentist 3 - Measuring plaque indices 4 - Carry out oral cancer screening 5 - Placing rubber dam

Answer 283

2 - Apply topical anaesthetic to the prescription of a dentist 3 - Measuring plaque indices 5 - Placing rubber dam

Question 284

Which statement is true? Adults with an asthma attack 1 - may benefit from salbutamol, given through a spacer device 2 - should not be given more than 5 doses of salbutamol to prevent adverse drug effects 3 - who are unresponsive and have a respiratory rate of 2-3 breaths/ min should be treated with high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreathing (trauma) mask 4 - will require an ambulance only when cyanosis develops

Answer 284

1 - may benefit from salbutamol, given through a spacer device

Question 285

With regard to types of Reportable Injuries (RIDDOR), which of the following is/are true ? 1 - Accidents to members of the public or others who are not at work need not be reported if they result in an injury and the person is taken directly from the scene of the accident to hospital for treatment to that injury. 2 - Accidents must be reported where they result in an employee or self-employed person being away from work, or unable to perform their normal work duties, for more than seven consecutive days as the result of their injury. 3 - The report must be made within 15 days of the accident. 4 - A report must be submitted to the HSE online within 48 hours of the accident. 5 - Accidents must be recorded, but not reported where they result in a worker being incapacitated for more than three consecutive days.

Answer 285

2 - Accidents must be reported where they result in an employee or self-employed person being away from work, or unable to perform their normal work duties, for more than seven consecutive days as the result of their injury. 3 - The report must be made within 15 days of the accident. 5 - Accidents must be recorded, but not reported where they result in a worker being incapacitated for more than three consecutive days.

Question 286

A practitioner profile is available from Practitioner Services to all list numbers in Scotland on an annual basis. Which of the following information does this report contain? 1 - The range of annual NHS GDS gross earnings for all list numbers in Scotland. 2 - Comparisons for items of treatment carried out on the list number compared to the average for the Health Board area and Scotland as a whole. 3 - Gross NHS earnings for the list number. 4 - NHS Patient registrations for the list number 5 - The percentage of private dental work carried out of the total gross earnings for the list number.

Answer 286

2 - Comparisons for items of treatment carried out on the list number compared to the average for the Health Board area and Scotland as a whole. 3 - Gross NHS earnings for the list number. 4 - NHS Patient registrations for the list number

Question 287

Which of the following is/are true under the terms of the Health and Safety at Work Act? 1 - The employer must provide any Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) deemed necessary by a risk assessment 2 - The employer must provide training in the correct use of PPE 3 - An employer can charge the employee for PPE 4 - Latex gloves are covered by COSHH regulations 5 - Protective Clothing can be worn to and from work as long as it is covered by an appropriate coat

Answer 287

1 - The employer must provide any Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) deemed necessary by a risk assessment 2 - The employer must provide training in the correct use of PPE 4 - Latex gloves are covered by COSHH regulations

Question 288

Any proposed treatment should always be discussed fully with the patient to ensure that informed consent is obtained. In addition, the GDC advises that written consent should also be obtained for which of the following procedures? 1 - NHS treatment under IV sedation 2 - NHS treatment requiring prior approval 3 - NHS treatment under general anaesthetic 4 - Private treatment under IV sedation 5 - NHS orthodontic treatment 6 - Private treatment under general anaesthetic 7 - Private treatment when the patient is registered under the NHS 8 - NHS treatment under inhalation sedation

Answer 288

1 - NHS treatment under IV sedation 3 - NHS treatment under general anaesthetic 4 - Private treatment under IV sedation 6 - Private treatment under general anaesthetic 8 - NHS treatment under inhalation sedation

Question 289

Portable electrical equipment in practice must undergo: 1 - PAT testing 2 - Fixed wire testing 3 - Monthly voltage testing 4 - Formal visual inspection

Answer 289

1 - PAT testing 4 - Formal visual inspection

Question 290

Which statement is true? The type of suction device shown in the image 1 - Should only have its component parts assembled once an emergency has occurred 2 - Is the preferred suction device when the patient is in the dental chair 3 - Can be used when mains electricity fails or the patient is remote to the dental chair aspirator 4 - Must not be used during a cardiac arrest situation 5 - Can be effectively used to remove large solid objects from the upper airway

Answer 290

3 - Can be used when mains electricity fails or the patient is remote to the dental chair aspirator

Question 291

As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, which of the following is/are true of item 3(i) Pulpotomy?​ 1 - This item may be provided on any deciduous tooth​ 2 - This item must be accompanied by appropriate radiographs​ 3 - This item is only available to be provided to patients under 15 years of age​ 4 - This item may be provided on permanent incisors and canines​

Answer 291

1 - This item may be provided on any deciduous tooth​

Question 292

Should manual cleaning be required, the recommended product to use is a: 1 - Detergent 2 - Disinfectant 3 - Anti-Microbial

Answer 292

1 - Detergent

Question 293

When recording consent, which of the following statements should always apply? 1 - The records should include medical history, any radiographs taken 2 - Accurate and legible records be kept 3 - Any antisocial habits be noted 4 - Notes on patient discussions should be made

Answer 293

1 - The records should include medical history, any radiographs taken 2 - Accurate and legible records be kept 4 - Notes on patient discussions should be made

Question 294

If a patient has been violent and abusive which of the following actions are appropriate? 1 - Complete any outstanding treatment for the patient, where this is possible 2 - De-register the patient immediately 3 - Inform the police 4 - Inform the Health Board

Answer 294

2 - De-register the patient immediately 3 - Inform the police 4 - Inform the Health Board

Question 295

The dental nurse you have just interviewed and appointed then informs you that she is 2 months pregnant. What should you do? Select all that apply. 1 - Contact your second choice candidate from your list and offer them the job instead. 2 - Inform the newly appointed nurse that you cannot guarantee their Health and Safety during their pregnancy and allow them to reconsider their acceptance of the job offer. 3 - Offer the newly appointed nurse a written contract of employment after the birth of their baby. 4 - Inform the unsuccessful candidates that you appreciated their attendance at interview but that they were unfortunately unsuccessful. 5 - Provide them with a written contract within the normal time frame.

Answer 295

4 - Inform the unsuccessful candidates that you appreciated their attendance at interview but that they were unfortunately unsuccessful. 5 - Provide them with a written contract within the normal time frame.

Question 296

According to the Pressure System Safety Regulations 2000(PSSR) which of the following is/are true? 1 - Refrigerators are covered by the regulations 2 - Dental Compressors are not covered by the regulations 3 - Autoclaves are covered by the regulations 4 - Dental Delivery system units are not covered by the regulations 5 - Washer disinfectors are covered by the regulations

Answer 296

3 - Autoclaves are covered by the regulations 4 - Dental Delivery system units are not covered by the regulations

Question 297

GDPR stands for 1 - Generic Data Protection Regulations 2 - General Data Processing Regulations 3 - General Data Protection Regulations 4 - Generic Data Processing Regulations

Answer 297

3 - General Data Protection Regulations

Question 298

Which of the following are true in relation to Assistantships? 1 - Assistants cannot sign NHS prescriptions 2 - The principal is responsible for the assistants' clinical outcomes 3 - The assistant is covered by the principal's indemnity insurance 4 - None of the above

Answer 298

? not 4 and not 1+2 and not 2 +3 1 - Assistants cannot sign NHS prescriptions 2 - The principal is responsible for the assistants' clinical outcomes 3 - The assistant is covered by the principal's indemnity insurance

Question 299

What statements are true for patients presenting with trigeminal neuralgia in general practice?​ 1 - Amoxicillin should be prescribed to rule out infection. 2 - Aciclovir 800mg tablets should be prescribed 5 times a day for 7 days. 3 - 100mg Carbamazepine twice a day can be prescribed for 10 days. ​ 4 - After a prescription of Carbamazepine is given, an urgent referral should be made to GP or Oral Med for LFT's and FBC's. ​

Answer 299

3 - 100mg Carbamazepine twice a day can be prescribed for 10 days. ​ 4 - After a prescription of Carbamazepine is given, an urgent referral should be made to GP or Oral Med for LFT's and FBC's.

Question 300

The "key signs" of hypoglycaemia include (select all that apply) 1 - Cyanosis 2 - Lowered systolic blood pressure 3 - Aggression 4 - Bradycardia (<70bpm) 5 - Confusion 6 - Sweating

Answer 300

3 - Aggression 5 - Confusion 6 - Sweating

Question 301

Which of the following should be advised for an adult patient who presents in good health but has a mild early herpes labialis? 1 - Aciclovir cream 5% five times a day for 5 days 2 - Amphotericin lozenges 10mg 4 times a day for 10 days 3 - Metronidazole tablets 200mg three times a day for 5 days 4 - Aciclovir tablets 200mg five times a day for 5 days

Answer 301

1 - Aciclovir cream 5% five times a day for 5 days

Question 302

What should you prescribe to treat mild to moderate toothache in a 35 year old male with no other medical conditions? 1 - Paracetamol 2 - Ibuprofen 3 - Amoxicillin 4 - Diazepam 5 - Carbamazepine

Answer 302

1 - Paracetamol 2 - Ibuprofen

Question 303

Which of the following is an appropriate antifungal medication for a patient taking warfarin? 1 - Penicillin 2 - Nystatin 3 - Miconazole 4 - Metronidazole 5 - Fluconazole

Answer 303

2 - Nystatin

Question 304

Which of the following increase the anticoagulant effect of warfarin? 1 - Metronidazole 2 - Fluconazole 3 - Miconazole 4 - Aciclovir cream

Answer 304

1 - Metronidazole 2 - Fluconazole 3 - Miconazole

Question 305

Which of the following agents have an antifungal effect? 1 - Diclofenac 2 - Aciclovir 3 - Tetracycline 4 - Miconazole 5 - Chlorhexidine 6 - Benzydamine Hydrochloride 7 - Nystatin

Answer 305

4 - Miconazole 5 - Chlorhexidine 7 - Nystatin

Question 306

A patient presents to your practice with what you think is undiagnosed trigeminal neuragia. Which of the following is/are true: 1 - Carbemazepine tablets 100mg can be prescribed to otherwise healthy adult patients without consulting a Oral Medicine Consultant 2 - Treatment should be delayed until the diagnosis is confirmed 3 - Patients prescribed Carbemazepine should be referred for a full blood count and liver function tests 4 - The patients current medication should be inspected prior to prescribing Carbemazepine 5 - In children you should prescribed Carbemazepine 50mg to be taken 2 x daily

Answer 306

1 - Carbemazepine tablets 100mg can be prescribed to otherwise healthy adult patients without consulting a Oral Medicine Consultant 3 - Patients prescribed Carbemazepine should be referred for a full blood count and liver function tests 4 - The patients current medication should be inspected prior to prescribing Carbemazepine

Question 307

The GDC has identified a number of areas which "are highly recommended to do as part of the minimum verifiable CPD requirement" What are these areas? 1 - Complaint handling 2 - Legal and ethical issues 3 - Radiography and radiation protection 4 - Risk management 5 - Oral cancer: improving and early detection 6 - Disinfection and decontamination 7 - Medical emergencies

Answer 307

3 - Radiography and radiation protection 6 - Disinfection and decontamination 7 - Medical emergencies

Question 308

A nine-year-old child presents at your practice with pain and spreading swelling from a dental abscess. The child is not amenable to local anaesthesia, and you wish to refer. The child is also allergic to penicillin. Which of the following regimens are recommended in the SDCEP guidance on prescribing? 1 - Metronidazole 100mg. One to be taken 3 times a day for 5 days 2 - Phenoxymethylpenicillin (penicillin V) 125mg/5ml. Two 5ml spoonfuls four times a day for 5 days 3 - Doxycycline 100mg. Two capsules to be taken on day 1, then one capsule to be taken daily for 6 days 4 - Metronidazole 200mg. One to be taken 3 times a day for 5 days

Answer 308

1 - Metronidazole 100mg. One to be taken 3 times a day for 5 days

Question 309

Under the NHS repairs to dentures are...? 1 - Free, but only if no impression is required 2 - Free 3 - Free, but only if denture is less than 12 months old 4 - Free only to those exempt from charges

Answer 309

? or 4 (not 3) 2 - Free

Question 310

Members of staff who are pregnant should inform?​ 1 - Employer and Radiation protection adviser​ 2 - Medical physics expert only​ 3 - Employer and Medical physics expert​ 4 - Employer and Radiation protection supervisor​

Answer 310

4 - Employer and Radiation protection supervisor​

Question 311

Which of the following actions are required practice when dealing with GDS complaints procedures? 1 - One person given responsibility for handling complaints (and a deputy) 2 - Substance of the complaint must be investigated thoroughly 3 - Records should be kept of all complaints and responses etc. 4 - Both the views of the patient and dentist/staff heard 5 - Automatically pass the complaint to the Health Board within 10 working days

Answer 311

1 - One person given responsibility for handling complaints (and a deputy) 2 - Substance of the complaint must be investigated thoroughly 3 - Records should be kept of all complaints and responses etc. 4 - Both the views of the patient and dentist/staff heard

Question 312

Which of the following are part of the evidence required to make CPD verifiable? 1 - Have a speaker who is registered with the General Dental Council. 2 - Have concise educational aims and anticipated outcomes. 3 - Have a certificate authenticated by the GDC logo. 4 - Have clinical content. 5 - Continue for at least 3 and a half hours. 6 - Have no more than 12 participants. 7 - Identifiable GDC development outcomes 8 - Have the opportunity to provide feedback.

Answer 312

2 - Have concise educational aims and anticipated outcomes. 7 - Identifiable GDC development outcomes 8 - Have the opportunity to provide feedback.

Question 313

A dental patient has a generalised, tonic-clonic seizure. Convulsive movements should not be restrained and it may not be required to transfer the patient to a hospital once they have recovered. 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 313

1 - True

Question 314

Your professional indemnity / insurance may be invalidated by?: 1 - Receiving a complaint from the GDC 2 - Failure to pay your subscriptions on time 3 - Failure to declare an accurate claim / case history on application 4 - Failure to maintain your GDC registration

Answer 314

2 - Failure to pay your subscriptions on time 3 - Failure to declare an accurate claim / case history on application 4 - Failure to maintain your GDC registration

Question 315

How long should hand hygiene take to perform when using a Hand Rub for non-surgical clinical procedures? 1 - 10-20 seconds 2 - 40-60 seconds 3 - 20-30 seconds 4 - 30-40 seconds 5 - 10 seconds

Answer 315

3 - 20-30 seconds

Question 316

The annual effective dose limit in IRR 2017 for any employee aged 18 years or over is: 1 - 2 mSV per annum 2 - 20mSv per annum 3 - 200mSv per annum 4 - 2000mSv per annum

Answer 316

2 - 20mSv per annum

Question 317

When sending work to the dental laboratory the following steps must be undertaken 1 - Place the impression in a bag. Seal the bag. Place the bag in an impervious sealable container 2 - Label the item showing decontamination status 3 - Rinse the impression or appliance under running water to remove any obvious blood, saliva or debris 4 - Pack securely and label as biological material before uplift 5 - Soak in a disinfection solution compatible with the material. Follow manufacturers’ instruction regarding use of solution, contact time and further rinsing

Answer 317

2 - Label the item showing decontamination status 3 - Rinse the impression or appliance under running water to remove any obvious blood, saliva or debris 5 - Soak in a disinfection solution compatible with the material. Follow manufacturers’ instruction regarding use of solution, contact time and further rinsing

Question 318

Under NHS General Dental Services Regulations all drugs used in the care and treatment of patients must be supplied on prescription using a GP14 form. True False Under NHS General Dental Services Regulations all drugs used in the care and treatment of patients must be supplied on prescription using a GP14 form. 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 318

2 - False

Question 319

Where you have provided care and treatment for a patient , what is the maximum length of time after completion of treatment you have to send the electronic claim form for payment? 1 - 1 month 2 - 3 months 3 - 6 months 4 - 1 year 5 - 15 months 6 - 2 years

Answer 319

2 - 3 months

Question 320

A fourteen year old boy attends your surgery with severe toothache. How should you proceed?: 1 - Ask him to go away and come back with a parent 2 - Examine him, fully explain the treatment and proceed if you are happy he understands 3 - Give him antibiotics and an appointment to return 4 - Deal with him as quickly as possible

Answer 320

2 - Examine him, fully explain the treatment and proceed if you are happy he understands

Question 321

The subscription fee to some Professional Indemnity Organisations...?: 1 - Cost can vary according to the type of treatment provided 2 - Is allowable as an expense for tax purposes 3 - Is free for the first year post Vocational Training 4 - Is included in your registration with the General Dental Council 5 - Is cheaper after the age of 55

Answer 321

1 - Cost can vary according to the type of treatment provided 2 - Is allowable as an expense for tax purposes

Question 322

Under the current Health and Safety legislation which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the employer? 1 - Ensuring the Health and Safety Law poster is displayed 2 - Asking employees daily if there have been any Health and Safety breaches 3 - Health and Safety Risk Assessments 4 - Preparing a Health and Safety policy 5 - To ensure the employees understand their responsibilities with regards to Health and Safety in the practice

Answer 322

2 - Asking employees daily if there have been any Health and Safety breaches

Question 323

GDPR gives data subjects which of the following 1 - the right to have inaccurate personal data rectified, or completed if it is incomplete 2 - the right to be informed about the collection and the use of their personal data 3 - the right to access personal data and supplementary information 4 - the right to erasure (to be forgotten) in certain circumstances 5 - the right to access the healthcare information for an elderly relative

Answer 323

1 - the right to have inaccurate personal data rectified, or completed if it is incomplete 2 - the right to be informed about the collection and the use of their personal data 3 - the right to access personal data and supplementary information 4 - the right to erasure (to be forgotten) in certain circumstances

Question 324

Which Certificate of Insurance must be clearly displayed within a dental practice?: 1 - Employers Liability Insurance 2 - Building Insurance 3 - Professional Indemnity Insurance 4 - Sickness and Accident Insurance

Answer 324

1 - Employers Liability Insurance

Question 325

Which of the following elements of a record are covered by the Data Protection Act, if it is all that is held on a practice computer based management system? 1 - Clinical photos 2 - Payment History 3 - Patient's telephone number and address 4 - Telephone Log 5 - Family members and relationships

Answer 325

1 - Clinical photos 2 - Payment History 3 - Patient's telephone number and address 4 - Telephone Log 5 - Family members and relationships

Question 326

When working within the NHS, veneers: 1 - Can be claimed on lower incisors 2 - Can only be claimed when a veneer is being replaced 3 - Can be claimed on upper first premolars 4 - Cannot be claimed again by the same dentist for the same tooth within 11 complete calendar months, unless replacement is required as a result of trauma

Answer 326

2 - Can only be claimed when a veneer is being replaced 4 - Cannot be claimed again by the same dentist for the same tooth within 11 complete calendar months, unless replacement is required as a result of trauma

Question 327

Your patient has periodontitis with BPE codes of 3 in some sextants. You have carried out a 2(c) Periodontal Assessment and Treatment under the SDR. With the prescription of appropriate periodontal reviews, what is the minimum number of months that can elapse until you are able to make a further claim under item 2(c)?​ 1 - 2 complete calendar month 2 - 3 complete calendar month 3 - 11 complete calendar month 4 - 9 complete calendar month 5 - 1 complete calendar month

Answer 327

1 - 2 complete calendar month

Question 328

Which of the following statements is/are true? In the NHS General Dental Services where an NHS patient is registered with a dentist, that dentist or other dentist in the same practice… 1 - Must provide written details of any private treatment proposed to a registered NHS patient 2 - Is required to give four months notice of resignation from an NHS list number 3 - Can refuse to provide certain items of treatment contained within the SDR 4 - Can treat a 16 year old patient under a continuing care agreement

Answer 328

1 - Must provide written details of any private treatment proposed to a registered NHS patient

Question 329

If an amalgam restoration fails within which period of time are you obliged to replace it free of charge and without claiming payment? 1 - 6 months 2 - 36 complete calendar months 3 - 12 months 4 - 1 month 5 - 2 years

Answer 329

3 - 12 months

Question 330

A practitioner profile is available from Practitioner Services to all list numbers in Scotland on an annual basis. Which of the following information does this report contain? 1 - The percentage of private dental work carried out of the total gross earnings for the list number. 2 - The range of annual NHS GDS gross earnings for all list numbers in Scotland. 3 - Gross NHS earnings for the list number. 4 - NHS Patient registrations for the list number 5 - Comparisons for items of treatment carried out on the list number compared to the average for the Health Board area and Scotland as a whole.

Answer 330

3 - Gross NHS earnings for the list number. 4 - NHS Patient registrations for the list number 5 - Comparisons for items of treatment carried out on the list number compared to the average for the Health Board area and Scotland as a whole.

Question 331

How long should clinical dental records be retained? 1 - Indefinitely 2 - For 10 years, for adults 3 - 11 years in all cases 4 - For 11 years for children or until their 21st birthday (whichever is longer)

Answer 331

2 - For 10 years, for adults

Question 332

An adult patient presents with denture stomatitis in the upper arch. The local measures to be used in the first instance include: 1 - Reline the denture with an alternative denture material 2 - Advise patient to clean dentures thoroughly by soaking in chlorhexidine mouthwash 3 - Advise patient to brush the palate daily 4 - Advise patient to leave dentures out as often as possible during the treatment period 5 - Prescribe co-amoxiclav 250mg three times a day for five days

Answer 332

2 - Advise patient to clean dentures thoroughly by soaking in chlorhexidine mouthwash 3 - Advise patient to brush the palate daily 4 - Advise patient to leave dentures out as often as possible during the treatment period

Question 333

Under prescription, which of the following treatments can be carried out by therapists? 1 - Extractions of primary teeth 2 - Extractions of permanent teeth 3 - Pulpotomies on primary teeth 4 - Single surface fillings in any tooth 5 - Root surface debridement

Answer 333

1 - Extractions of primary teeth 3 - Pulpotomies on primary teeth 4 - Single surface fillings in any tooth 5 - Root surface debridement

Question 334

You have decided to prescribe antibiotics for a 40 year old patient with sinusitis. What drug regime is advised? 1 - 100mg Doxycycline capsules, 1 capsule to be taken daily for 5 days 2 - 100mg Doxycycline capsules, 2 capsules on first day followed by 1 capsule daily for 4 days 3 - 250mg Pen V tablets, 2 tablets to be taken 4 times daily for 7 days 4 - 250mg Pen V tablets, 2 tablets to be taken 4 times daily for 5 days

Answer 334

2 - 100mg Doxycycline capsules, 2 capsules on first day followed by 1 capsule daily for 4 days 4 - 250mg Pen V tablets, 2 tablets to be taken 4 times daily for 5 days

Question 335

In order to register for Data Protection you must pay an annual fee to... 1 - The Data Protection Council (also known as the Information Council) 2 - The Data Protection Commissioner (also known as the Information Commissioner) 3 - The Data Protection Agency (also known as the Information Agency) 4 - Practitioner Services Division

Answer 335

2 - The Data Protection Commissioner (also known as the Information Commissioner)

Question 336

Which of the following groups can be entitled to take radiographs with appropriate training? 1 - Dental Receptionists 2 - Registered Dental Nurses 3 - Dental Hygienists 4 - Dental Therapists 5 - Clinical Dental Technicians

Answer 336

2 - Registered Dental Nurses 3 - Dental Hygienists 4 - Dental Therapists 5 - Clinical Dental Technicians

Question 337

In the event of a notifiable radiographic incident involving unintended doses to a patient which requires a detailed investigation, the report should be submitted to Healthcare Improvement Scotland (HIS) within what time frame?​ 1 - 12 weeks​ 2 - 8 weeks​ 3 - 4 weeks​ 4 - 52 weeks​

Answer 337

1 - 12 weeks​

Question 338

Which of the following are appropriate medications for treatment of trigeminal neuralgia? 1 - Doxycycline 2 - Triamcinolone 3 - Penicillin 4 - Hydrocortisone 5 - Carbamazepine

Answer 338

5 - Carbamazepine

Question 339

When referring a registered patient to another dentist, which of the following should the first dentist provide? 1 - NHS or Private indicated in the referral. 2 - Details of the oral condition of the patient. 3 - A prior approval form. 4 - A full copy of the patient’s records. 5 - Reason for the referral.

Answer 339

1 - NHS or Private indicated in the referral. 2 - Details of the oral condition of the patient. 5 - Reason for the referral.

Question 340

Natural Rubber Latex (NRL) is a potent allergen and is still widely used in dentistry. Which of the following apply to NRL? 1 - Staff members with an allergy to NRL are unable to work in a clinical environment. 2 - Suspected cases of NRL allergy should be investigated by the General Medical Practitioner or Occupational Health Service. 3 - if a staff member is proven NRL allergic, the practice should carry out a risk assessment and switch to non-latex products if appropriate to reduce risk to the individual. 4 - Individuals with a history of asthma, hayfever or flexural eczema have a higher incidence of allergy to NRL.

Answer 340

2 - Suspected cases of NRL allergy should be investigated by the General Medical Practitioner or Occupational Health Service. 3 - if a staff member is proven NRL allergic, the practice should carry out a risk assessment and switch to non-latex products if appropriate to reduce risk to the individual. 4 - Individuals with a history of asthma, hayfever or flexural eczema have a higher incidence of allergy to NRL.

Question 341

As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, what is the maximum number of radiographs that may be claimed within a single course of treatment?​ 1 - 8 2 - 12 3 - No maximum stated 4 - 16 5 - 10

Answer 341

3 - No maximum stated

Question 342

Which of the following is/are true of the management of healthcare waste in the dental practice? 1 - Waste amalgam should be placed in the container supplied and disposed of in the red stream waste 2 - Used and empty amalgam capsules can be disposed of through the orange waste stream 3 - Dressing, swabs and used personal protective equipment e.g. gloves and masks should be disposed of as orange stream (low risk) waste 4 - Teeth with amalgam fillings are classified as yellow stream (high risk) waste 5 - Working cast models are disposed of in the black waste stream

Answer 342

1 - Waste amalgam should be placed in the container supplied and disposed of in the red stream waste 3 - Dressing, swabs and used personal protective equipment e.g. gloves and masks should be disposed of as orange stream (low risk) waste

Question 343

NHS Regulations state that a practice leaflet must include: 1 - Opening hours/when dentist(s) will usually be in attendance 2 - Details of any disabled access or facilities 3 - Names, sex, date(s) of registration(s) and dental qualifications of all dentists 4 - Practice appointment cancelation policy 5 - Fail to attend charges

Answer 343

1 - Opening hours/when dentist(s) will usually be in attendance 2 - Details of any disabled access or facilities 3 - Names, sex, date(s) of registration(s) and dental qualifications of all dentists

Question 344

A patient owes £310 in relation to dental treatment you have provided and has not responded to multiple reminders. Which of the following are true?: 1 - If a court finds in your favour, it will also arrange relevant enforcement action 2 - The Scottish Courts' "Simple Procedure" could be used in an attempt to recover a debt of this amount 3 - The same amount must be deducted from the receptionists pay 4 - You will be responsible for the cost of any enforcement action that you take following a favourable court judgement

Answer 344

2 - The Scottish Courts' "Simple Procedure" could be used in an attempt to recover a debt of this amount 4 - You will be responsible for the cost of any enforcement action that you take following a favourable court judgement

Question 345

As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, which of the following is/are true about sedation under NHS arrangements?​ 1 - Item 6(a) Sedation Assessment may not be claimed without an accompanying claim for item 6(b) Sedation in the same course of treatment.​ 2 - Item 6(b) Sedation may be claimed for each visit in which a patient requires sedation for dental treatment​ 3 - Item 6(b) Sedation may not be claimed where the same operator is administering sedation and providing treatment in the same appointment.​ 4 - Item 6(b) may be claimed where a combination of more than one sedative agent is used within an appointment.​

Answer 345

2 - Item 6(b) Sedation may be claimed for each visit in which a patient requires sedation for dental treatment​

Question 346

Mr Tsang attends his dentist, a visit instigated by his wife Mrs Tsang. Mrs Tsang is embarrassed that her husband is not tolerating his lower denture and would like the dentist to make a new denture. As a POA for Finance and Welfare, Miriam’s responsibilities do not entitle her to: 1 - Demand the treatment that she feels he needs is carried out. 2 - Represent her husband’s previous wishes and past beliefs. 3 - Ensure that whatever capacity the patient has remaining is taken into account. 4 - Consent to treatment on behalf of the granter.

Answer 346

1 - Demand the treatment that she feels he needs is carried out.

Question 347

A patient attends for unscheduled care with a lost filling. You provide and definitive filling for this tooth in that visit. You may claim item 1(c) Unscheduled care assessment and treatment along with the appropriate code and fee for the permanent filling provided. 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 347

2 - False

Question 348

As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, amalgam fillings may be placed in incisor or canine teeth under NHS arrangements with the informed consent of the patient. 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 348

2 - False

Question 349

When carrying out periodontal treatment for a patient in your care, which of the below should you record in the patient's notes? 1 - Results of the BPE 2 - Self-reported oral hygiene habits 3 - Lifestyle factors 4 - Details of referrals 5 - The suggested treatment plan and details of cost 6 - Name of previous practitioner 7 - Specific periodontal complaints e.g. bleeding gums

Answer 349

1 - Results of the BPE 2 - Self-reported oral hygiene habits 3 - Lifestyle factors 4 - Details of referrals 5 - The suggested treatment plan and details of cost 7 - Specific periodontal complaints e.g. bleeding gums

Question 350

As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, claims for the replacement of failed fissure sealants for patients with special care needs can only be made where the patient is under 18 years of age. ​ 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 350

2 - False

Question 351

Which of the following items constitute PPE in a dental practice? 1 - Aprons 2 - Rubber Dam 3 - Masks/Visors 4 - Gloves

Answer 351

1 - Aprons 3 - Masks/Visors 4 - Gloves

Question 352

Which of the following statements is true regarding automated external defibrillation during cardiac arrest? 1 - 2 min of chest compressions should be given initially before defibrillation 2 - AED devices must never be used by untrained helpers 3 - It is often not required if effective CPR (chest compressions and ventilation) is provided by the helpers 4 - Current guidelines recommend ECG analysis every 2 min

Answer 352

4 - Current guidelines recommend ECG analysis every 2 min

Question 353

Which of the following could be appropriate for the management for mucosal ulceration in a 10-year-old child? 1 - Benzydamine mouthwash, 0.15% 2 - Sodium fluoride mouthwash, 0.05% 3 - Benzydamine oromucosal spray, 0.15% 4 - Chlorhexidine mouthwash, 0.2%

Answer 353

3 - Benzydamine oromucosal spray, 0.15% 4 - Chlorhexidine mouthwash, 0.2%

Question 354

Before which of these treatments should warfarinised patients have their INR checked? 1 - Biopsy 2 - Impressions for partial denture 3 - Recording of B.P.E. 4 - Supragingival scaling of calculus 5 - Detailed 6 point full periodontal examination 6 - Orthograde endodontics

Answer 354

1 - Biopsy 5 - Detailed 6 point full periodontal examination

Question 355

The maximum daily dose of paracetamol for an adult is? 1 - 2g 2 - 6g 3 - 8g 4 - 4g

Answer 355

4 - 4g

Question 356

In an adult patient who has dental pain and has active peptic ulcer disease, which of following analgesics should you prescribe? 1 - Ibuprofen 2- Aspirin 3 - Diclofenac 4 - Paracetamol 5 - Carbamazapine

Answer 356

4 - Paracetamol

Question 357

Which of the following is / are correct? 1 - Lidocaine 0.2% with 1:80,000 adrenaline is a dental local anaesthetic. 2 - Plain lidocaine provides more pronounced dental anaesthesia than lidocaine with adrenaline. 3 - Lidocaine 2% with 1:80,000 adrenaline is a dental local anaesthetic. 4 - Prilocaine 3% with felypressin is used as a dental local anaesthetic. 5 - Lidocaine must be stored at 5 degrees centigrade.

Answer 357

3 - Lidocaine 2% with 1:80,000 adrenaline is a dental local anaesthetic. 4 - Prilocaine 3% with felypressin is used as a dental local anaesthetic.

Question 358

A dentist with an NHS list number must notify the Health Board if he/she intends to be absent from the practice for a period exceeding? 1 - 7 Days 2 - 14 Days 3 - 21 Days 4 - 28 Days

Answer 358

4 - 28 Days

Question 359

As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, a fee may be claimed under item 1(f) Study Models where models are recorded in a digital only format. ​ 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 359

1 - True

Question 360

Which of the following are defined as protected characteristics, according to the Equality Act 2010? 1 - Colour blindness 2 - Gender 3 - Sexual orientation 4 - Race 5 - Left handedness

Answer 360

? (not 1+2+3+4) 2 - Gender 3 - Sexual orientation 4 - Race

Question 361

As a PAYE registered employer, you should: 1 - choose whether to operate PAYE yourself or pay a payroll provider to do it for you 2 - tell HMRC when a new employee joins 3 - tell HMRC if an employee reaches state pension age 4 - run annual reports at the end of the tax year 5 - Transfer a new employee’s tax code using their P45

Answer 361

1 - choose whether to operate PAYE yourself or pay a payroll provider to do it for you 2 - tell HMRC when a new employee joins 3 - tell HMRC if an employee reaches state pension age 4 - run annual reports at the end of the tax year

Question 362

What is the minimum number of staff working in a practice (including associates and DCPs) for it to have to undertake a written Health and Safety Policy? 1 - 5 2 - 10 3 - 20 4 - 25 5 - 50

Answer 362

1 - 5

Question 363

Patients who are taking the novel oral anticoagulant Dabigatran: 1 - Should take their evening dose at the normal time only if it has been 5 hours since they had a high risk procedure 2 - Should miss their morning dose if having a biopsy 3 - Should take their morning dose if they are having a scale and polish 4 - Should stop taking the drug for 2 days following implant placement

Answer 363

2 - Should miss their morning dose if having a biopsy 3 - Should take their morning dose if they are having a scale and polish

Question 364

Which of the following items should be disposed of as orange healthcare (clinical) waste? 1 - Instrument packaging opened during treatment 2 - Cotton wool rolls 3 - Face masks 4 - Gloves 5 - Extracted teeth with amalgam

Answer 364

1 - Instrument packaging opened during treatment 2 - Cotton wool rolls 3 - Face masks 4 - Gloves

Question 365

In a 4 year old immunocompromised child presenting with Primary Herpetic Gingivostomatitis, which of the following aciclovir preparations is recommended? 1 - Oral Suspension 200mg/5ml 200mg 3 x daily 2 - Oral Suspension 200mg/5ml 200mg 5 x daily 3 - Oral Suspension 200mg/10ml 100mg 3 x daily 4 - Oral suspension 200mg/10ml 200mg 3 x daily

Answer 365

2 - Oral Suspension 200mg/5ml 200mg 5 x daily

Question 366

According to SDCEP, which of these dental procedures carry a higher risk of bleeding complications? 1 - Root surface debridement 2 - Extraction of 2 incisor teeth 3 - Dental implant surgery 4 - Periradicular surgery 5 - Inferior dental block administration

Answer 366

? ( not 2+3+4) 3 - Dental implant surgery 4 - Periradicular surgery

Question 367

Which statements are true for patients taking daily aspirin? ​ 1 - Extensive treatment should be carried out in one visit. 2 - Treat without interruption of medication. ​ 3 - Ask patient to stop taking aspirin on the morning of treatment. ​ 4 - Use local haemostatic measures. ​

Answer 367

2 - Treat without interruption of medication. ​ 4 - Use local haemostatic measures

Question 368

Which of the following pieces of information might help a patient to make a decision when consenting to a course of treatment? 1 - Why you think a particular treatment is necessary and appropriate for the patient 2 - Whether treatment is guaranteed, and any exclusions that might apply 3 - The consequences, risks and benefits of the treatment proposed 4 - Promoting the simplest option for the dentist to perform

Answer 368

1 - Why you think a particular treatment is necessary and appropriate for the patient 2 - Whether treatment is guaranteed, and any exclusions that might apply 3 - The consequences, risks and benefits of the treatment proposed

Question 369

An adult patient presents with denture stomatitis and drug treatment is required. Which of the following may be appropriate drug regimes?Prescription of... 1 - Miconazole oromucosal gel (20mg/ml), pea sized amount after food four times daily 2 - Penicillin V (250mg), four times daily for 5 days 3 - Fluconazole capsules (50mg), 1 capsule daily for 7 days 4 - Triamcinolone dental paste (10g) four times daily until symptoms disappear 5 - Erythromycin (250mg), four times daily for 5 days

Answer 369

1 - Miconazole oromucosal gel (20mg/ml), pea sized amount after food four times daily 3 - Fluconazole capsules (50mg), 1 capsule daily for 7 days

Question 370

Which of the following is/are true regarding SDR Item 1(c) Unscheduled care assessment and treatment? 1 - Item 1(c) may be claimed in the same course of treatment as item 7(e) when repairing a broken denture. 2 - Item 1(c) may be claimed in the same course of treatment as item item 1(d) Intraoral Radiograph 3 - Item 1(c) may be added to any routine course of treatment claim when in connection with unscheduled care you have provided. 4 - Item 1(c) may be claimed in the same course of treatment as item item 8 Domiciliary visit and recalled attendance

Answer 370

2 - Item 1(c) may be claimed in the same course of treatment as item item 1(d) Intraoral Radiograph 4 - Item 1(c) may be claimed in the same course of treatment as item item 8 Domiciliary visit and recalled attendance

Question 371

The occupational exposure for mercury is 25 ug/m3 (micrograms per cubic metre). To minimise exposure which of the following are appropriate? 1 - Open a window 2 - Use recycling air conditioning systems 3 - Close window but use fan to circulate air 4 - Ventilate the room to the outside

Answer 371

1 - Open a window 2 - Use recycling air conditioning systems

Question 372

If drug treatment is required for acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, which of the following is the drug regimen of choice for non-severe infection in adult patients? 1 - Metronidazole tablets (400 mg), 1 tablet three times daily for 3 days 2 - Metronidazole tablets (400 mg), 1 tablet three times daily for 5 days 3 - Metronidazole tablets (400 mg), 1 tablet three times daily for 7 days 4 - Phenoxymethylpenicillin tablets (penicillin V) (250 mg), 2 tablets three times daily for 3 days 5 - Phenoxymethylpenicillin tablets (penicillin V) (250 mg), 2 tablets three times daily for 5 days 6 - Phenoxymethylpenicillin (penicillin V) tablets (250 mg), 2 tablets three times daily for 7 days

Answer 372

1 - Metronidazole tablets (400 mg), 1 tablet three times daily for 3 days

Question 373

Which of the following are GDC registered dentists required to do annually?: 1 - Pay the ARF by 31st Dec 2 - Make an indemnity declaration 3 - Complete a CPD statement 4 - Attend practice meetings 5 - Complete appraisal

Answer 373

1 - Pay the ARF by 31st Dec 2 - Make an indemnity declaration 3 - Complete a CPD statement

Question 374

The definition of a person's race includes? 1 - Nationality 2 - Ethnic origin 3 - Colour 4 - Accent

Answer 374

1 - Nationality 2 - Ethnic origin 3 - Colour

Question 375

How many hours CPD in relation to managing medical emergencies does the GDC highly recommend per 5 year cycle: 1 - 2 2 - 20 3 - 10 4 - 5

Answer 375

3 - 10

Question 376

IR(ME)R 2017 is enforced by which organisation in Scotland? 1 - Healthcare Improvement Scotland 2 - Care Quality Commission 3 - Health and Safety Executive

Answer 376

1 - Healthcare Improvement Scotland

Question 377

A patient arrives at the practice requiring a prescription. The patient is registered with another dentist at the practice who is on holiday for two weeks. How should you proceed? 1 - Refer the patient to a pharmacist 2 - Write an appropriate NHS prescription for the patient 3 - Ask the patient to refer to their own dentist when he/she returns from holiday 4 - Write an appropriate private prescription for the patient 5 - Refer the patient to their general medical practitioner

Answer 377

2 - Write an appropriate NHS prescription for the patient

Question 378

You suspect a patient registered with you under a continuing care agreement is infected with HIV. The patient shows no evidence of ill health or oral manifestations of HIV disease. You have the necessary knowledge, skill and facilities to provide appropriate treatment. Under GDC guidelines you should? 1 - Offer emergency treatment only 2 - Perform only non-invasive treatment 3 - Refer the patient to a specialist centre 4 - Refuse to treat the patient 5 - Carry out appropriate treatment 6 - Insist patient undergoes HIV test before providing treatment

Answer 378

5 - Carry out appropriate treatment

Question 379

If you suspect a child patient may be suffering neglect, which of the following is/are an appropriate course(s) of action? 1 - Discussing the details with a colleague. 2 - Taking no action if the child requests that information is kept secret. 3 - Contact your local child protection scheme. 4 - Discussing the details with your defence organisation.

Answer 379

1 - Discussing the details with a colleague. 3 - Contact your local child protection scheme. 4 - Discussing the details with your defence organisation.

Question 380

When the prescription is part of the NHS treatment, the prescription should be written on which form? 1 - GP17(O) 2 - GP04 3 - GP17 4 - GP34 5 - GP14

Answer 380

5 - GP14

Question 381

Which statement is false? Loss of consciousness 1 - is usually brief if caused by vagal over-activity 2 - may occur more frequently in patients taking angiotensin antagonists 3 - may be resolved by lying the patient flat and raising the legs 4 - may be the result of very low blood pressure 5 - and gasping, irregular breathing, should be primarily managed by placing the patient in the recovery position

Answer 381

5 - and gasping, irregular breathing, should be primarily managed by placing the patient in the recovery position

Question 382

SDCEP guidance recommends calling an ambulance for a patient who has had an epileptic seizure in which of the following circumstances (select all that apply) 1 - The patient displays frothing from the mouth 2 - If this was the first episode of epilepsy for the patient 3 - The seizure lasts for 5 minutes or longer 4 - Cyanosis was apparent during the seizure

Answer 382

2 - If this was the first episode of epilepsy for the patient 3 - The seizure lasts for 5 minutes or longer

Question 383

When writing an NHS Dental Prescription for an adult a dentist must include which of the following? 1 - The patients full address 2 - The dentists signature in ink 3 - The patients age in years and months 4 - The dose of the medicine prescribed 5 - The patients full name

Answer 383

1 - The patients full address 2 - The dentists signature in ink 4 - The dose of the medicine prescribed 5 - The patients full name

Question 384

The registration arrangements between a patient and dentist will come to an end in which of the following circumstances? 1 - The patient is referred to a specialist service as they are unsuitable for treatment in the general practice setting 2 - The patient dies 3 - The patient registers with another NHS dentist in Scotland 4 - The patient is de registered by the dentist 5 - After 48 months

Answer 384

2 - The patient dies 3 - The patient registers with another NHS dentist in Scotland 4 - The patient is de registered by the dentist

Question 385

According to SDCEP guidance, which of the following are indications for giving midazolam in the event of an epileptic seizure (select all that apply) 1 - The seizures recur in quick succession 2 - The patient appears "floppy" after a seizure 3 - The convulsive seizures last longer than 5 minutes 4 - The patient appears cyanosed during the seizure 5 - The patient appears confused following the seizure

Answer 385

1 - The seizures recur in quick succession 3 - The convulsive seizures last longer than 5 minutes

Question 386

If an adult collapses and no helpers are available, starting CPR immediately is more important than calling 999 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 386

2 - False

Question 387

The Independent Whistleblowing Officer:​ 1 - Can investigate Health and Safety concerns​ 2 - Is an NHS authority that facilitates investigation of concerns in Scotland​ 3 - Cannot investigate anonymous complaints​ 4 - Routinely accepts complaints by email and telephone​

Answer 387

1 - Can investigate Health and Safety concerns​ 3 - Cannot investigate anonymous complaints​

Question 388

X-ray equipment which is no longer in service can be considered non-hazardous if: (select all correct answers) 1 - The electrical supply cable is cut as close to the machine as possible so that there is no possibility of reconnection 2 - The unit weighs less than 30kg 3 - The details of the unit are erased from the Radiation Protection File 4 - The Health and Safety Executive have been informed that it will no longer be in use

Answer 388

1 - The electrical supply cable is cut as close to the machine as possible so that there is no possibility of reconnection

Question 389

A decision on a simple complaint should be communicated to a patient: 1 - When you have time 2 - If you feel there is a case to answer 3 - Within 3 working days unless there are exceptional circumstances 4 - Within 5 working days unless there are exceptional circumstances 5 - Within 10 working days unless there are exceptional circumstances

Answer 389

4 - Within 5 working days unless there are exceptional circumstances

Question 390

For routine crown preparation, what is the fee for a temporary crown? 1 - No fee 2 - £12.25 3 - £25.00 4 - £46.50

Answer 390

1 - No fee

Question 391

Routine management of patients at increased risk but who do not require antibiotic prophylaxis to prevent infective endocarditis should include: 1 - Removal of all teeth of poor prognosis 2 - Avoiding carrying out BPEs 3 - Going against the advice of the patient's cardiologist who recommends providing antibiotic prophylaxis as they won't have read the SDCEP guidance. 4 - Ensuring the patient and/or carer is aware of the risk of developing infective endocarditis 5 - Oral hygiene instruction

Answer 391

4 - Ensuring the patient and/or carer is aware of the risk of developing infective endocarditis 5 - Oral hygiene instruction

Question 392

Which of the following statements are correct about first aid supplies in a General Dental Practice? 1 - A First aid box is not mandatory in a single handed practice 2 - First aid supplies must be present in all surgeries 3 - The location of First Aid supplies must be clearly indicated 4 - First aid supplies must not be used on patients 5 - First aid supplies must include Glucagon 6 - First aid supplies are to be kept in a red and white box

Answer 392

3 - The location of First Aid supplies must be clearly indicated

Question 393

A 35 year old employee who has worked with you for 8 years would be entitled to how much redundancy pay? 1 - One year's salary 2 - 8 weeks' salary 3 - One month's salary 4 - 8 month's salary 5 - Half a week's salary for each year that they were under 30 and a full week's salary for every year of service over the age of 30

Answer 393

2 - 8 weeks' salary

Question 394

In relation to giving advice to a patient taking oral bisphosphonates, before the commencement of your treatment which of the four statements is false? 1 - Explain to the patient that they should have drug holidays during dental treatment 2 - Advise the patient that the medication that they are taking may carry a small risk of developing MRONJ but the risk is low 3 - Explain that MRONJ is diagnosed when there is exposed bone in the jaw that has persisted for 8 weeks 4 - Emphasise that MRONJ is an adverse effect of the drug and not caused by dental treatment

Answer 394

1 - Explain to the patient that they should have drug holidays during dental treatment

Question 395

The new dentist of a former patient of yours with the patient's permission requests the patient's records. What records must you release to their new dentist? 1 - Originals of records and radiographs for only the last 2 years 2 - All records and radiographs held 3 - Copies of records and radiographs for only the last 2 years 4 - Copies of all records and radiographs 5 - You do not have to release any records

Answer 395

4 - Copies of all records and radiographs

Question 396

You place an advert on-line for a new trainee dental nurse (male or female) to join a progressive, young and dynamic team. This would be discriminatory on the grounds of 1 - Disability / physical ability 2 - Age 3 - Sex 4 - All of the above

Answer 396

2 - Age

Question 397

Which statement is true? In a collapsed adult patient who is unresponsive 1 - with irregular, gasping breathing, high-flow oxygen via non-rebreathing facemask (trauma mask) should be administered before commencing chest compressions 2 - and breathing normally, the recovery position may be indicated 3 - breathing should be checked for 15 seconds 4 - cardiac compressions should be started to a minimum depth of 10-15 cm if no breathing is present

Answer 397

2 - and breathing normally, the recovery position may be indicated

Question 398

Which of the following statements are true? Select those that apply: The Chain of Survival 1 - includes early recognition of unwell patients and early defibrillation 2 - is a specialist extrication tool used by paramedics in car accidents 3 - applies only to patients over the age of 6 4 - is only as strong as its weakest link 5 - comprises post resuscitation care to restore quality of life

Answer 398

1 - includes early recognition of unwell patients and early defibrillation 4 - is only as strong as its weakest link 5 - comprises post resuscitation care to restore quality of life

Question 399

How often can adrenaline be administered to a patient in anaphylaxis? 1 - Every 2 minutes 2 - Every 5 minutes 3 - Every ten minutes 4 - Every 20 minutes

Answer 399

2 - Every 5 minutes

Question 400

Which of the following is/are true of NHS complaints procedures in Scotland? 1 - Send the complainant a written acknowledgement of the complaint within 3 working days of the date on which the complaint is received, or as soon as reasonably practicable. 2 - Only complaints made by the patient who is the subject of the complaint should be considered. 3 - All details of the complaint should be recorded in writing. 4 - A complaint should normally be made within 6 months of the date of discovery provided that it is within 12 months of the incident. 5 - Only incidents that lead to permanent injury or disfigurement require to be investigated.

Answer 400

1 - Send the complainant a written acknowledgement of the complaint within 3 working days of the date on which the complaint is received, or as soon as reasonably practicable. 3 - All details of the complaint should be recorded in writing. 4 - A complaint should normally be made within 6 months of the date of discovery provided that it is within 12 months of the incident.

Question 401

What is the advised flow rate of oxygen for a conscious patient with a suspected MI? 1 - Not advised 2 - 10 l/min 3 - 4 l/min 4 - 15 l/min

Answer 401

4 - 15 l/min

Question 402

The pocket face-mask, such as shown in the image 1 - Incorporates a one-way valve and can be effectively used in infants 2 - Should be secured with head straps before defibrillation 3 - Prevents vomiting and aspiration in ill patients 4 - Requires two helpers to operate

Answer 402

1 - Incorporates a one-way valve and can be effectively used in infants

Question 403

Which statement is true? During a cardiac arrest in a dental practice 1 - a team leader is of no advantage if all helpers have up-to-date CPR training 2 - the helper performing chest compressions should be changed every 15 minutes 3 - oxygen should be attached to the ventilation device if possible 4 - which occurs in a waiting room, the patient should be moved to a clean, well lit clinical area as soon as enough staff are available to lift the patient safely 5 - physical limitations of a helper (eg back injury) must never prevent them from performing chest compressions if these are required

Answer 403

3 - oxygen should be attached to the ventilation device if possible

Question 404

Under the AWI Act, who is responsible for investigating circumstances where a person’s welfare may be at risk (where that person comes within part 5 of the Act)? 1 - The Local Authority 2 - The person’s next of kin 3 - The person's General Medical Practioner 4 - The Office of Public Guardian

Answer 404

1 - The Local Authority

Question 405

You believe that a patient on your list has been incorrectly withdrawn (de-registered) in error. What should you do to rectify this? 1 - Download, complete and email a dental 287 form to PSD 2 - Perform an exam on the patient and submit a claim to re-register them 3 - Download, complete and email a Form 289 to PSD

Answer 405

3 - Download, complete and email a Form 289 to PSD

Question 406

Which of the following are correct? 1 - Quality Improvement Allowance is available for audit. 2 - A practice can conduct a eSEA and claim retrospective funding. 3 - A practice can conduct an audit and then claim retrospectively for funding. 4 - eSEA may be a useful means of identifying a topic for audit.

Answer 406

1 - Quality Improvement Allowance is available for audit. 2 - A practice can conduct a eSEA and claim retrospective funding. 4 - eSEA may be a useful means of identifying a topic for audit.

Question 407

A dental patient has a generalised, tonic-clonic seizure. Cyanosis may be seen, even if the patient has no underlying respiratory disease. 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 407

1 - True

Question 408

In Scotland, dental and decontamination records, including equipment and process records should be held securely for: 1 - 3 years 2 - The lifetime of the equipment 3 - 11 years 4 - The lifetime of the equipment plus 25 years afterwards

Answer 408

4 - The lifetime of the equipment plus 25 years afterwards

Question 409

With respect to Chest compressions in an adult during CPR which of the following is true? 1 - Compress to a depth of at least 10 cm but no more than 12cm. 2 - Compress the chest at a rate of 100–120 min−1 with as few interruptions as possible. 3 - Deliver compressions on the lower half of the sternum (‘in the centre of the chest’). 4 - Perform chest compressions on a firm surface whenever feasible.

Answer 409

2 - Compress the chest at a rate of 100–120 min−1 with as few interruptions as possible. 3 - Deliver compressions on the lower half of the sternum (‘in the centre of the chest’). 4 - Perform chest compressions on a firm surface whenever feasible.

Question 410

Following a DRO examination of an NHS dental patient, a code 4 or D would indicate which of the following? 1 - There are some areas of concern about the clinical care but Practitioner Services are satisfied the treatment was satisfactory. 2 - The treatment was considered to be of a high standard. 3 - The Dental Reference Officer has concerns relating to the clinical care provided or proposed that are of such concern that the matter should be discussed with/referred to the Health Board 4 - The treatment is considered to be of such a complicated nature the opinion of a consultant should be sought before the report can be completed appropriately.

Answer 410

3 - The Dental Reference Officer has concerns relating to the clinical care provided or proposed that are of such concern that the matter should be discussed with/referred to the Health Board

Question 411

Which of the following is/are true of Local Decontamination unit equipment? 1 - Sterile or reverse osmosis water is recommended for the rinse water in all washer disinfectors 2 - Correct loading of instruments into decontamination equipment such as ultrasonic cleaners and washer disinfectors is essential 3 - Only water meeting the quality recommended by the manufacturer of the washer disinfector should be used for the rinse cycle 4 - Washer disinfectors are the preferred method of cleaning/disinfecting dental instruments 5 - Where ultrasonic cleaners are used as the back-up cleaning method, they must have an inter-locking lid and a cycle that cannot be interrupted. 6 - Manual cleaning is preferable to automated methods of cleaning dental instruments

Answer 411

1 - Sterile or reverse osmosis water is recommended for the rinse water in all washer disinfectors 2 - Correct loading of instruments into decontamination equipment such as ultrasonic cleaners and washer disinfectors is essential 4 - Washer disinfectors are the preferred method of cleaning/disinfecting dental instruments 5 - Where ultrasonic cleaners are used as the back-up cleaning method, they must have an inter-locking lid and a cycle that cannot be interrupted.

Question 412

GDC recommend that staff who might be involved in managing a medical emergency undertake emergency life support training, at least: 1 - Annually 2 - Every 6 months 3 - Every 5 years 4 - Quarterly

Answer 412

1 - Annually

Question 413

When is a practice (with NHS commitment) subject to Health Board inspection? Select all that apply. 1 - On setting up 2 - Every 2 years 3 - Every 3 years 4 - Every 5 years

Answer 413

3 - Every 3 years

Question 414

When an adult does not have the capacity to consent to treatment and has no proxy, which of the following is authorised to provide treatment, subject to certain safeguards and exceptions: 1 - A certificate of incapacity issued by the doctor primarily responsible for the patients care 2 - A certificate of incapacity issued by any dental practitioner on the current General Dental Council register 3 - The patient's son or daughter 4 - A close friend or relative with great affinity with the patient

Answer 414

1 - A certificate of incapacity issued by the doctor primarily responsible for the patients care

Question 415

The GDC recommends that members of the dental team involved in radiology undertake at least 5 hours CPD in what timescale? 1 - Every 3 years 2 - Every 5 years 3 - Annually

Answer 415

2 - Every 5 years

Question 416

A staff member who is pregnant and has informed their employer is entitled to 1 - Absences for planned ante-natal appointments 2 - Absences for GP recommended parenting classes 3 - Travel costs for ante-natal appointments from their employer 4 - Absences for unplanned ante-natal appointments

Answer 416

? (not 1+4) 1 - Absences for planned ante-natal appointments 2 - Absences for GP recommended parenting classes 4 - Absences for unplanned ante-natal appointments

Question 417

Which of the following statements are true? Select those that apply: Team leading the helpers during a medical emergency in the dental practice 1 - should always be done by the team leader actively performing a task (eg ventilation) to demonstrate their commitment 2 - should only be done by the practice owner or principal dentist for legal reasons 3 - is not required if all members of staff are fully qualified 4 - requires team members communicating important observations (eg faulty equipment) to the leader 5 - includes taking into account the abilities and physical limitations of team members

Answer 417

4 - requires team members communicating important observations (eg faulty equipment) to the leader 5 - includes taking into account the abilities and physical limitations of team members

Question 418

In which of the following treatment scenarios for an adult patient, is it inappropriate to delay treatment, if consent could not be attained? 1 - Marked facial swelling or where airway may be compromised 2 - Cracked veneer 3 - Post extraction bleeding 4 - Filling out 5 - Lost crown

Answer 418

1 - Marked facial swelling or where airway may be compromised 3 - Post extraction bleeding

Question 419

NDAC recommend that the following emergency drugs are available at all times (tick all that apply). 1 - Midazolam buccal liquid (10 mg/ml), or Midazolam injection (as hydrochloride) (5 mg/ml 2 ml ampoules) for topical buccal administration 2 - Glyceryl trinitrate spray (400 µg per metered dose) 3 - Beclometasone Dipropionate Inhaler 4 - Atropine Sulfate Injection 600mcg in 1ml. 5 - Oral glucose/sugar

Answer 419

1 - Midazolam buccal liquid (10 mg/ml), or Midazolam injection (as hydrochloride) (5 mg/ml 2 ml ampoules) for topical buccal administration 2 - Glyceryl trinitrate spray (400 µg per metered dose) 5 - Oral glucose/sugar

Question 420

The correct initial response to a patient's complaint which requires investigation is...? 1 - An immediate phone call by the complaints officer 2 - A written acknowledgement within 5 working days 3 - A phone call by the complaints officer within 2 working days 4 - A written acknowledgement within 3 working days 5 - A phone call within 5 days 6 - To ignore it and await further correspondence

Answer 420

4 - A written acknowledgement within 3 working days

Question 421

Tooth coloured crowns can be claimed under the NHS: 1 - On first permanent molars where it occupies the position of the second premolar 2 - On lower second premolar teeth 3 - On second permanent molars where an NHS root canal treatment has been carried out 4 - Where the crown is all-ceramic 5 - Where the crown is porcelain fused to metal

Answer 421

1 - On first permanent molars where it occupies the position of the second premolar 2 - On lower second premolar teeth 4 - Where the crown is all-ceramic 5 - Where the crown is porcelain fused to metal

Question 422

The use of which of the following should be avoided for a seven-year-old patient? 1 - Ibuprofen 2 - Paracetamol 3 - Amoxicillin sugar free preparations 4 - Aspirin

Answer 422

4 - Aspirin

Question 423

Who has responsibility for explaining the risks of a general anaesthetic for dental treatment to a patient or parent?: 1 - The receptionist 2 - The referring GDP 3 - The Dental Nurse 4 - The treating Dentist 5 - The Hospital/Community Dentist who assesses the patient

Answer 423

2 - The referring GDP 4 - The treating Dentist 5 - The Hospital/Community Dentist who assesses the patient

Question 424

Which of the following is not required as part of the emergency drugs kit for treating anaphylaxis? 1 - Adrenaline 2 - Chlorphenamine 3 - Hydrocortisone

Answer 424

3 - Hydrocortisone

Question 425

Under the Equality Act 2010, age is protected characteristic only for those over 75 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 425

2 - False

Question 426

What does a restrictive covenant clause in an Associate Agreement detail? 1 - Conduct considered acceptable between an associate and the practice staff. 2 - Treating patients from the previous practice 3 - Restrictions on the amount of private treatment that may be provided by the associate. 4 - Restrictions placed upon an outgoing associate’s choice of their next location of practice. 5 - Restrictions on the laboratories that an associate may use whilst working at the practice.

Answer 426

4 - Restrictions placed upon an outgoing associate’s choice of their next location of practice.

Question 427

Scottish Government defines the three "Quality Ambitions" for the NHS as: 1 - Equitable, efficient, timely 2 - Safe, effective, person-centred 3 - Caring, compassionate, collaborative

Answer 427

2 - Safe, effective, person-centred

Question 428

Within the dental practice setting, who is responsible for compliance with IRR(2017) and IR(ME)R 2017?​ 1 - The employer​ 2 - The self employed dentist​ 3 - The senior dental nurse ​ 4 - The practice manager​

Answer 428

1 - The employer​

Question 429

A patient undergoes a dental procedure during which local anaesthetic is used. Shortly afterwards he complains of difficulty in breathing with an audible wheeze and a swollen tongue. He is sweaty, the pulse rate is 110’ (regular), capillary refill time is 4 seconds. Salbutamol is the first-line drug in this situation 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 429

2 - False

Question 430

Paracetamol...? 1 - Is locally acting. 2 - Is hepatotoxic in overdose. 3 - Is commonly used as an anti-inflammatory. 4 - Has a maximum daily dose of 4g for an adult. 5 - Is anti-pyretic.

Answer 430

2 - Is hepatotoxic in overdose. 4 - Has a maximum daily dose of 4g for an adult. 5 - Is anti-pyretic.

Question 431

In a patient who presents with Herpes Zoster 1 - There is no indication for prescribing Aciclovir after 72 hours following the onset of the rash 2 - Aciclovir tablets and oral suspension are not licenced for the treatment of Herpes Zoster in children 3 - Aciclovir Tablets 800mg five times a day for 7 days is appropriate treatment 4 - The patient must be referred to their GMP to be prescribed antivirals 5 - Valaciclovir can also be prescribed using an NHS prescription

Answer 431

2 - Aciclovir tablets and oral suspension are not licenced for the treatment of Herpes Zoster in children 3 - Aciclovir Tablets 800mg five times a day for 7 days is appropriate treatment

Question 432

Patients for whom you have prescribed an antibiotic 1 - Should only be reviewed if there was trismus 2 - Should be reviewed within 2-7 days 3 - Should be reviewed within 24 hours 4 - Should only be reviewed if there were systemic symptoms

Answer 432

2 - Should be reviewed within 2-7 days

Question 433

Which antimicrobial would you NOT prescribe for a 9 year old child? 1 - Doxycyline 2 - Metronidazole 3 - Phenoxymethylpenicillin 4 - Erythromycin 5 - Amoxicillin

Answer 433

1 - Doxycyline

Question 434

A patient presents to your practice with acute severe TMD. You decide that prescribing a muscle relaxant is indicated. Which of the following is an appropriate prescription to give to the patient? ​ 1 - Diazepam tablets 2mg. One tablet three times daily for 5 days. ​ 2 - Diazepam tablets 10mg. One tablet three times daily for 5 days ​ 3 - Diazepam tablets 2mg. One tablet three times daily for 7 days. 4 - Diazepam tablets 5mg. One tablet three times daily for 7 days

Answer 434

1 - Diazepam tablets 2mg. One tablet three times daily for 5 days. ​

Question 435

Where patients are using Vit K Antagonists such as Warfarin - Which statements are true? ​ 1 - If INR is 4 or above, delay invasive treatment or refer if urgent.​ 2 - Ensure INR is checked 1 week before any planned extraction. ​ 3 - Consider limiting initial treatment area and staging extensive or complex procedures; strongly consider suturing and packing. ​ 4 - Carry out all extractions in one visit to avoid multiple potential bleeding episodes.

Answer 435

1 - If INR is 4 or above, delay invasive treatment or refer if urgent.​ 3 - Consider limiting initial treatment area and staging extensive or complex procedures; strongly consider suturing and packing. ​

Question 436

For which of the following procedures is written consent essential?: 1 - LR4 Extraction with LA under intravenous sedation 2 - Exposure of unerupted UR3 under LA 3 - Impacted LL8 extraction under GA 4 - LL4 Extraction with LA under inhalation sedation 5 - Extraction of LL8 under LA 6 - Extraction of lower right 4 with oral sedation

Answer 436

? not 1+3+6 not 1+3+4+6 not 1+3+4+5+6 not 1+2+3+4+5+6

Question 437

The GDC highly recommends that dentists should address certain topics within their verifiable CPD. Some of these topics are: 1 - Endodontics 2 - Financial Management 3 - Dental Materials 4 - Disinfection And Decontamination 5 - Medical Emergencies 6 - Child Protection

Answer 437

4 - Disinfection And Decontamination 5 - Medical Emergencies

Question 438

To save time you have decided to delegate obtaining consent to your nurse. In which of the following situations is this allowable? 1 - Never 2 - When the patient is a child and has a better rapport with the nurse 3 - When the nurse is qualified and registered with the GDC 4 - When you, the nurse and the patient are in the same room

Answer 438

1 - Never

Question 439

1.1% sodium fluoride toothpaste is indicated for use in? 1 - patients 12 yrs and over 2 - patients 15 yrs and over 3 - patients 16 yrs and over 4 - patients 10 yrs and over

Answer 439

3 - patients 16 yrs and over

Question 440

Which statement is true? A dental patient with no cardiovascular medical history suddenly complains of chest pain. 1 - The A-E approach should be used to assess the patient 2 - If the patient remains conscious the diagnosis is most likely stable angina 3 - If Aspirin is given, it is appropriate to wait for symptoms to improve for 20-30 min before calling an ambulance 4 - The patient clearly is suffering an acute myocardial infarction

Answer 440

1 - The A-E approach should be used to assess the patient

Question 441

Which of the following topics do the GDC recommend or highly recommend for CPD in the dentists 5 year cycle? ​ 1 - Oral Cancer ​ 2 - Complaints ​ 3 - Radiography ​ 4 - Oral Surgery ​ 5 - Safeguarding Vulnerable Adults

Answer 441

1 - Oral Cancer ​ 2 - Complaints ​ 3 - Radiography ​ 5 - Safeguarding Vulnerable Adults

Question 442

Following treatment, which instruments require to be decontaminated before use on the next patient? 1 - Only those that are visibly contaminated 2 - All instruments which have been set out (except disposables) whether or not they have been used 3 - Only those used that were in the mouth 4 - Only those that have come in contact with blood

Answer 442

2 - All instruments which have been set out (except disposables) whether or not they have been used

Question 443

As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, valid claims under item 2(a) Enhanced Preventive Advice and Treatment must include PMPR.​ 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 443

2 - False

Question 444

The practice manager of an NHS dental practice must 1 - be registered with the ICO 2 - be registered with the GDC 3 - have previously been a DCP 4 - None of the above

Answer 444

4 - None of the above

Question 445

A dentist working as an NHS GDP is entitled to paternity pay if: 1 - the dentist's name has been included in sub-part A of the first part of a dental list, for at least 2 years, the last 26 weeks of which must be continuous and immediately precede the date of birth or adoption 2 - the dentist's name has been included in sub-part A of the first part of a dental list, for at least 1 year, the last 26 weeks of which must be continuous and immediately precede the date of birth or adoption 3 - the dentist’s spouse or partner has adopted a child and is the main care provider and the dentist is also an adoptive parent of that child

Answer 445

1 - the dentist's name has been included in sub-part A of the first part of a dental list, for at least 2 years, the last 26 weeks of which must be continuous and immediately precede the date of birth or adoption 3 - the dentist’s spouse or partner has adopted a child and is the main care provider and the dentist is also an adoptive parent of that child

Question 446

Which of the following are true in relation to the Employers’ Liability Act of 1969? 1 - Employers are required to keep Insurance Certificates for 40 years. 2 - Insufficient training of staff is a breach of the duty of care by an employer. 3 - The Employers’ Liability Insurance Certificate must be prominently displayed. 4 - The sum insured must not be less than £1 million. 5 - In the case of faulty equipment, only the manufacturer, and not the employer, is liable.

Answer 446

1 - Employers are required to keep Insurance Certificates for 40 years. 2 - Insufficient training of staff is a breach of the duty of care by an employer. 3 - The Employers’ Liability Insurance Certificate must be prominently displayed.

Question 447

Miconazole cream 2% for angular chelitis can: 1 - be given to patients on statins 2 - be applied twice daily to the angles of the mouth 3 - be given to patients on warfarin 4 - be prescribed to children

Answer 447

2 - be applied twice daily to the angles of the mouth 4 - be prescribed to children

Question 448

What is/are the correct procedure(s) for dealing with a needlestick/sharps injury? 1 - Record incident in accident book 2 - Apply a tourniquet 3 - Contact your local Occupational Health Service (OHS) to discuss the incident and, where necessary, ask them for appropriate advice and follow up. 4 - Wash with warm water and soap 5 - Encourage bleeding 6 - Suck the wound

Answer 448

1 - Record incident in accident book 3 - Contact your local Occupational Health Service (OHS) to discuss the incident and, where necessary, ask them for appropriate advice and follow up. 4 - Wash with warm water and soap 5 - Encourage bleeding

Question 449

Which of the following practice expenditures can be claimed as a legitimate business expense? 1 - Travelling between work and home 2 - Water rates 3 - Professional subscriptions and journals 4 - Business loan interest 5 - Clinical scrubs

Answer 449

2 - Water rates 3 - Professional subscriptions and journals 4 - Business loan interest 5 - Clinical scrubs

Question 450

In the event that an NHS patient in Scotland is unhappy with the local resolution of a complaint relating to NHS dental services, they are entitled to make further representation to the Dental Complaints Service. 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 450

2 - False

Question 451

Which statement is true? Automated defibrillation during CPR in an adult 1 - should be delayed if possible until paramedics are present 2 - should never be administered by untrained helpers 3 - should be avoided if the patient is known to have a cardiac pacemaker 4 - will frequently convert the cardiac rhythm from asystole to sinus rhythm 5 - has a proven benefit on patient survival

Answer 451

5 - has a proven benefit on patient survival

Question 452

If an adult patient collapses in the dental practice, you should check for responsiveness before opening the airway 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 452

1 - True

Question 453

Which of the following statements are true regarding patients that take Direct Oral Anticoagulants (DOACs) such as Apixiban? ​ 1 - Extractions with higher risk of bleeding complications can be carried out without any dose regime change. ​ 2 - Low risk procedures can be carried out without alteration to dose. ​ 3 - High risk procedures to be carried out early in the day with missed morning dose. 4 - Simple extractions with a low risk of bleeding complications require them to miss their morning dose. ​

Answer 453

2 - Low risk procedures can be carried out without alteration to dose. ​ 3 - High risk procedures to be carried out early in the day with missed morning dose. 4 - Simple extractions with a low risk of bleeding complications require them to miss their morning dose. ​

Question 454

You are half way through a root treatment and the patient wishes to stop due to it being very painful. You are aware that it would be beneficial for the patient to complete the treatment. Should you: 1 - Insist the patient completes the treatment 2 - Stop immediately and make an appointment for the extraction 3 - Stop treatment, but explain the possible risks and consequences of not continuing treatment and highlight that the patient is responsible for future problems 4 - Document all discussions in the patients notes

Answer 454

3 - Stop treatment, but explain the possible risks and consequences of not continuing treatment and highlight that the patient is responsible for future problems 4 - Document all discussions in the patients notes

Question 455

Which of the following is/are true in relation to the placement of defibrillator pads: 1 - If pads are placed on the wrong side, they should be removed and re-applied correctly before a shock is delivered. 2 - Scissors may have to be used to remove the patient's clothing. 3 - Chest hair may require to be shaved. 4 - Placement on top of clothing is acceptable to prevent embarrassment of the patient.

Answer 455

2 - Scissors may have to be used to remove the patient's clothing. 3 - Chest hair may require to be shaved.

Question 456

Which of the following are acceptable methods of disposing of paper patient records? 1 - Defaced and added to general waste 2 - In clinical waste bags which will be incinerated 3 - As part of waste paper collection for recycling 4 - Cross-shredded as part of office waste 5 - In general office waste

Answer 456

4 - Cross-shredded as part of office waste

Question 457

Reducing the dose of ionising radiation delivered to the patient can be achieved by the use of which of the following?: 1 - Beam aiming devices 2 - Rectangular collimation 3 - Plasterboard walls 4 - Digital sensors / plates in preference to film

Answer 457

1 - Beam aiming devices 2 - Rectangular collimation 4 - Digital sensors / plates in preference to film

Question 458

Under the Data Protection Act 2018, which of the following may be found liable for a breach of confidentiality in relation to the inappropriate disclosure of a patient’s records? 1 - Dentist 2 - Dental Receptionist 3 - Dental Nurse 4 - Dental Hygienist

Answer 458

1 - Dentist 2 - Dental Receptionist 3 - Dental Nurse 4 - Dental Hygienist

Question 459

The in-practice complaints management process requires that all complaints are initially made in writing. 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 459

2 - False

Question 460

Which of the following statements are true? The radiation protection adviser... 1 - is appointed in writing 2 - is consulted to advise on compliance with the regulations and all aspects of radiation protection 3 - Must have documented evidence of the scope of advice they are required to give 4 - is always a dentist 5 - is appointed verbally

Answer 460

1 - is appointed in writing 2 - is consulted to advise on compliance with the regulations and all aspects of radiation protection 3 - Must have documented evidence of the scope of advice they are required to give

Question 461

When can dentine pins be claimed for the provision of NHS treatment? 1 - With 2 or more surfaces in amalgam 2 - With posterior composites 3 - A additional fee for placing a pin cannot be claimed within the SDR 4 - With all amalgams 5 - With anterior composites

Answer 461

3 - A additional fee for placing a pin cannot be claimed within the SDR

Question 462

How is sterilisation of dental instruments achieved? 1 - Contact with steam at 134-137oC for at least 20 minutes 2 - Contact with steam at 121-125oC for at least 3 minutes 3 - Contact with steam at 134-137oC for at least 3 minutes 4 - Contact with steam at 121-125oC for at least 20 minutes

Answer 462

3 - Contact with steam at 134-137oC for at least 3 minutes

Question 463

Which statements are true? Select those that apply: A patient undergoes a dental procedure during which local anaesthetic is used. Shortly afterwards he complains of difficulty in breathing with an audible wheeze and a swollen tongue. He is sweaty, the pulse rate is 110' (regular), capillary refill time is 4 seconds. 1 - Anaphylaxis can be excluded is if there no visible rash 2 - The A-E approach should be followed 3 - Salbutamol is the first-line drug in this situation 4 - Cardiac arrest may occur and the dental team should prepare for this 5 - Chlorphenamine is the first-line drug in this situation

Answer 463

2 - The A-E approach should be followed 4 - Cardiac arrest may occur and the dental team should prepare for this

Question 464

The Health and Safety Executive (HSE) is the statutory body responsible for enforcing the HSW act. An inspector of the HSE has the power to: 1 - Prosecute anyone contravening a legal requirement of the act should they feel it appropriate 2 - Examine only the public areas of the practice 3 - Interview any members of staff and request any information they see fit 4 - Enter the practice at any reasonable time 5 - Issue a legally binding improvement notice to address any contravention of the act

Answer 464

1 - Prosecute anyone contravening a legal requirement of the act should they feel it appropriate 3 - Interview any members of staff and request any information they see fit 4 - Enter the practice at any reasonable time 5 - Issue a legally binding improvement notice to address any contravention of the act

Question 465

Which of the following are common signs in a patient suffering from hypoglycaemia? 1 - Sweating 2 - Tachycardia 3 - Arm weakness 4 - Confusion 5 - Aggression 6 - Urticaria

Answer 465

1 - Sweating 2 - Tachycardia 4 - Confusion 5 - Aggression

Question 466

On which of these materials should you carry out a written COSHH assessment?: 1 - Only cleaning agents 2 - Those with warning labels on bottles 3 - Only those used in the patient's mouth 4 - All materials used 5 - Only those containing acids

Answer 466

2 - Those with warning labels on bottles

Question 467

If patients are taking oral bisphosphonate 1 - Following an extraction, if the socket is not healed at 3 weeks it should be referred to an oral surgery specialist as per local protocols 2 - Straight forward extractions should be performed in primary care 3 - If you suspect a patient has spontaneous MRONJ it should be reviewed for 3 months before being referred to a specialist 4 - Patients should be prescribed an antibiotic before any extractions 5 - You should prescribe 0.2% Chlorhexidine mouthwash to be used three times daily for 7 days following extraction

Answer 467

2 - Straight forward extractions should be performed in primary care

Question 468

Which of the following patient groups would be exempt from paying NHS dental fees: 1 - Those in receipt of Personal Independence Payment 2 - Those in receipt of Income Based Jobseeker's allowance 3 - Those in receipt of income support

Answer 468

2 - Those in receipt of Income Based Jobseeker's allowance 3 - Those in receipt of income support

Question 469

Privacy notices relating to GDPR must include the following 1 - Retention periods for the data 2 - Who it will be shared with 3 - Explain lawful purpose for which you are processing personal data 4 - List which staff members will be dealing with your data

Answer 469

1 - Retention periods for the data 2 - Who it will be shared with 3 - Explain lawful purpose for which you are processing personal data

Question 470

Standard Infection Control Precautions (SICPs) are a set of methods designed to: 1 - Ensure patients are treated in the same way irrespective of their infectious status 2 - Ensure the safety of patients and staff by reducing the risk of transmission of potentially harmful agents 3 - Postpone the dental treatment of any patient with a cold sore until they are no longer infectious 4 - Assess each infection the patient has so you can take extra precautions based on this information

Answer 470

1 - Ensure patients are treated in the same way irrespective of their infectious status 2 - Ensure the safety of patients and staff by reducing the risk of transmission of potentially harmful agents

Question 471

A Provisional Crown may only be claimed under item 4(a), as defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, as a necessary palliative treatment where a patient attends for unscheduled care with a broken tooth, a lost filling, or a lost crown. ​ 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 471

1 - True

Question 472

NICE guidelines state that for individuals at risk of infective endocarditis: 1 - Antibiotic prophylaxis should be given routinely for invasive dental procedures 2 - Antibiotic cover should be provided for all patients who have prosthetic valves and who require orthograde root canal treatment 3 - Chlorhexidine mouthwash should not be offered as prophylaxis 4 - Any episodes of infection in people at risk of infective endocarditis should be investigated and treated promptly to reduce the risk of endocarditis developing

Answer 472

3 - Chlorhexidine mouthwash should not be offered as prophylaxis 4 - Any episodes of infection in people at risk of infective endocarditis should be investigated and treated promptly to reduce the risk of endocarditis developing

Question 473

Which of the following statements is correct when taking an intra-oral radiograph?​ 1 - The practitioner must document in the patient record that a carer or comforter has been involved in the exposure​ 2 - A carer or comforter providing support should be provided with a personal radiation dose monitor 3 - Carers and comforters must have the risks and benefits of being present during the exposure fully explained to them before the exposure is taken​ 4 - A carer or comforter can provide support where the patient requires reassurance during a radiograph 5 - Once a comforter has successfully supported a patient, they should be used for all subsequent exposures for that patient to minimise the risk of a new comforter supporting incorrectly​ 6 - A dentist can steady the radiation tube of a wall mounted machine by hand when taking radiographs of patients with additional needs

Answer 473

1 - The practitioner must document in the patient record that a carer or comforter has been involved in the exposure​ 3 - Carers and comforters must have the risks and benefits of being present during the exposure fully explained to them before the exposure is taken​ 4 - A carer or comforter can provide support where the patient requires reassurance during a radiograph

Question 474

Which of the following CPD topics do the GDC state "will relate to many dental professionals in their field of practice" and identify as "highly recommended" to do as part of the minimum verifiable CPD requirement? 1 - Medical Emergencies 2 - Record keeping 3 - The PBSP Periodontal Guidelines 4 - Disinfection and decontamination 5 - Radiography and radiation protection

Answer 474

1 - Medical Emergencies 4 - Disinfection and decontamination 5 - Radiography and radiation protection

Question 475

Which of the following drugs are Vitamin K Antagonists? 1 - Apixaban 2 - Clopidogrel 3 - Aspirin 4 - Warfarin

Answer 475

4 - Warfarin

Question 476

To reduce the potential hazards of mercury... 1 - All staff must be trained to deal with a mercury spillage 2 - Amalgam filled extracted teeth should be disposed of in the sharps container 3 - Encapsulated amalgam should be used 4 - Every dental practice must have a mercury spillage kit 5 - The orange waste stream is the most appropriate way of disposing of amalgam filled teeth

Answer 476

1 - All staff must be trained to deal with a mercury spillage 3 - Encapsulated amalgam should be used 4 - Every dental practice must have a mercury spillage kit

Question 477

Dental water lines pose a risk of infection from biofilm accumulation. Which of the following are standard practice for Dental Unit Water Line flushing? 1 - Flush lines with 2% Sodium Hypochlorite for 2-4 minutes at the start of each working day 2 - Flush water lines for 30 seconds in between each patient 3 - Flush water lines for 2-4 minutes at the start of each working day 4 - Use recommended biocidal dose and frequency as per manufacturing instructions

Answer 477

2 - Flush water lines for 30 seconds in between each patient 3 - Flush water lines for 2-4 minutes at the start of each working day 4 - Use recommended biocidal dose and frequency as per manufacturing instructions

Question 478

Assessment Feedback 1 of 55 In which of the following situations may a 1(a) examination fee be claimed for a child? 1 - A regular attender who presents four months after their last 1(a) examination complaining of toothache 2 - When providing treatment relating to trauma 3 - Joining the practice as a new patient 4 - Each 6 monthly check-up 5 - Never

Answer 478

3 - Joining the practice as a new patient

Question 479

If no purpose-made paediatric pads are available for an AED, an unmodified adult AED may be used in children from 1-8 years 1 - True 2 - False

Answer 479

1 - True

Question 480

The protocol for any proposed clinical research projects involving your NHS patients should be submitted for approval to? 1 - Local Postgraduate Dean 2 - The appropriate area Ethics Committee for Clinical Research 3 - The Scottish Office Committee for Clinical Research 4 - The Scottish Dental Practice Board

Answer 480

? not 3

Question 481

Which of the following are required in order to have obtained informed consent? 1 - Patient understands proposed treatment 2 - Patient understands why proposed treatment is needed 3 - Patient understands consequences of not undergoing treatment 4 - Patient understands potential risks of treatment 5 - Patient understands alternative treatments 6 - Patient understands risks of alternative treatments

Answer 481

1 - Patient understands proposed treatment 2 - Patient understands why proposed treatment is needed 3 - Patient understands consequences of not undergoing treatment 4 - Patient understands potential risks of treatment 5 - Patient understands alternative treatments 6 - Patient understands risks of alternative treatments

Question 482

When carrying out root surface instrumentation on a patient taking Warfarin, which of the following statements are true? 1 - Ensure that the patient's INR has been checked, ideally no more than 24 hours before the procedure 2 - If the patients' INR is 4 or above, delay treatment until their INR has been reduced 3 - If the patients' INR is 3 or below, delay treatment until their INR has increased 4 - Ensure that the patients' INR has been checked, ideally no more than 48 hours before the procedure

Answer 482

? not 2+4

Question 483

For a patient's consent to be valid, which of the following must apply? 1 - Consent must be written. 2 - The patient must be informed of the risks involved in a procedure. 3 - You have to believe they are able to understand what is involved in a procedure. 4 - A witness must be present. 5 - The patient must take your advice.

Answer 483

2 - The patient must be informed of the risks involved in a procedure. 3 - You have to believe they are able to understand what is involved in a procedure.

Question 484

You want to change the pay rates in your newly acquired dental practice and so you arrange private meetings with each individual team employee to discuss their personal circumstances and due to the sensitivity of this matter insist on confidentiality. 1 - Acceptable 2 - Illegal under the Equality Act 2010

Answer 484

2 - Illegal under the Equality Act 2010

Question 485

You are prescribing Artificial Saliva Pastilles to a patient with dry mouth. Which of the following abbreviations should the prescription be endorsed with: 1 - ACBS 2 - BAN 3 - POM 4 - DPF 5 - CSM

Answer 485

1 - ACBS

Question 486

Do the police have access to clinical records?: 1 - Not at any time 2 - Yes, at any time 3 - Yes, if a judge or sheriff so orders 4 - Not without the permission of the patient 5 - Yes, if a Section 32 search warrant is granted for the premises

Answer 486

3 - Yes, if a judge or sheriff so orders

Question 487

Sharps boxes must 1 - Be disposed of immediately if it contains a needle which was used on a carrier of Hepatitis B 2 - Have a temporary closure mechanism, which must be employed when the box is not in use 3 - Be disposed of when the manufacturer's fill line is reached 4 - Be labelled with date of assembly, point of origin and date of closure. 5 - Be disposed of when the manufacturers' fill line is reached or following 6 months of assembly (whichever is first)

Answer 487

? not 2+3+4+5 not 2+4+5

Question 488

Which of the following patient groups would be exempt from paying NHS dental fees: 1 - Those in receipt of Contributions Based Jobseeker's allowance 2 - Nursing mothers until their baby is 12 months old 3 - Pregnant women 4 - Those aged under 26

Answer 488

2 - Nursing mothers until their baby is 12 months old 3 - Pregnant women 4 - Those aged under 26

Question 489

In relation to COSHH assessments, which of the following apply? 1 - A COSHH assessment must be in writing and available to all staff. 2 - COSHH assessments are required on any substance that may present a hazard in the workplace. 3 - A COSHH assessment is only required if the manufacturer states the substance is toxic, irritant or corrosive. 4 - A COSHH assessment is only required for toxic substances used in the workplace. 5 - A COSHH assessment is the responsibility of the employee who uses the substance most frequently. 6 - COSHH assessments are not mandatory but are strongly recommended under the 2002 regulations.

Answer 489

1 - A COSHH assessment must be in writing and available to all staff. 2 - COSHH assessments are required on any substance that may present a hazard in the workplace.

Question 490

What equipment do the Resuscitation Council (UK) recommend is available for dealing with medical emergencies in a dental practice? 1 - Defibrillator 2 - Portable oxygen cylinder 3 - Equipment to measure blood pressure 4 - Stethoscope 5 - Spacer device for inhaled bronchodilators

Answer 490

1 - Defibrillator 2 - Portable oxygen cylinder 5 - Spacer device for inhaled bronchodilators

Question 491

With regard to the use of mercury in dental practice, which of the following are true?: 1 - A conventional vacuum cleaner can be used prior to the use of a 1% suspension of calcium hydroxide/flowers of sulphate to reduce mercury vapour 2 - A disposable syringe can be used to pick up large drops of mercury 3 - In surgeries where mercury is used tile floors should be avoided and carpets should never be used 4 - Gloves should always be worn 5 - Use of mercury should be confined to areas that have impervious surfaces

Answer 491

2 - A disposable syringe can be used to pick up large drops of mercury 3 - In surgeries where mercury is used tile floors should be avoided and carpets should never be used 4 - Gloves should always be worn 5 - Use of mercury should be confined to areas that have impervious surfaces

Question 492

SCEP provides user friendly evidence based guidance to support Dental teams in Clinical and Organisational decision making Current guidance includes: 1 - Practice Support Manual 2 - Dental training fellowship Programme 3 - Drugs Prescribing for Dentistry 4 - Prevention of, and Management of Dental Caries in children 5 - Audit and Significant event training

Answer 492

1 - Practice Support Manual 3 - Drugs Prescribing for Dentistry 4 - Prevention of, and Management of Dental Caries in children

Question 493

Which statements are true regarding the situation below? Select those that apply. A patient is about to have a dental procedure. When getting up from the chair in the waiting room they collapse. 1 - The collapse may have been caused by sudden drop in cerebral perfusion 2 - Elevating the legs of the patient may be appropriate 3 - It may be appropriate not to call an ambulance if the collapse is brief (less than 1 minute and the patient fully recovers 4 - There are no safety considerations for the helpers in this situation 5 - Adrenaline i.m. should be given immediately

Answer 493

1 - The collapse may have been caused by sudden drop in cerebral perfusion 2 - Elevating the legs of the patient may be appropriate 3 - It may be appropriate not to call an ambulance if the collapse is brief (less than 1 minute and the patient fully recovers

Question 494

Which size of oxygen cylinders should the practice have? 1 - D or C/D 2 - C or B/C 3 - B or A/B 4 - E

Answer 494

? not 4 not 1 + 4 ?

Question 495

In Scotland, endodontic files both hand and rotary: 1 - Can be cleaned and sterilised through the LDU process. 2 - Can be sterilised and reused on the same patient 3 - Should be disposed of as single-use following patient treatment. 4 - Can be sterilised and re-used on different patients.

Answer 495

3 - Should be disposed of as single-use following patient treatment.