Test Question Flashcards

(234 cards)

1
Q

In what recumbency is colic sx performed in?

A

Dorsal

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2
Q

A vaginal cytology of a bitch in heat should show mostly what type of cells?

A

Cornified

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3
Q

Parvovirus causes Neutrophilia or Neutropenia?

A

Neutropenia

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4
Q

Drugs with low minimum alveolar concentrations (MAC) are the most or least potent?

A

Most

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5
Q

Agglutination and Spherocytes are indicative of?

A

IMHA

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6
Q

Debakey forceps are the least traumatic to use on what body part?

A

Intestines

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7
Q

The heel effect is when the x-ray beam declines toward the ______

A

anode

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8
Q

Tidal Volume is approximately ___ml/kg for a canine

A

15

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9
Q

Prokinetic drugs like _________________, increase GI motility.

A

Metoclopramide

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10
Q

ATP and _________ are required for muscle contration

A

Calcium

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11
Q

The neurotransmitter for skeletal muscles is __________ and is located at the end of the motor neuron.

A

Acetylcholine (Ach)

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12
Q

Muscle fibers are ________ shaped with a single ___________

A

Spindle, nucleus

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13
Q

Diet for dogs with diabetes is high _______, low __________.

A

Fiber, fat

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14
Q

Diet for cats with diabetes is high ___________, low _________.

A

Protein, carb

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15
Q

Short-acting regular insulin used in cases of DKA

A

Humulin-R

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16
Q

Intermediate or longer-acting insulins

A

Humulin-N, Vetsulin

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17
Q

“Peakless” insulin, approved for use in cats

A

Lantus (glargine)

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18
Q

In a fetus, blood is dunted from the pulmonary artery to the aorta via what structure?

A

Ductus arteriosus.

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19
Q

The liver makes and stores

A

Glucose

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20
Q

Which intrument is specifically designed for atraumatically clamping across the intestines? (Occluding a loop of bowel)

A

Doyen

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21
Q

the panniculus reflex test is

A

pinching the skin lateral to the vertebral spines

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22
Q

Tetracyclines are bacterio______

A

static

(doxy)

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23
Q

The first sign of _____________ toxicity is central nervous system depression

A

Lidocaine

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24
Q

Neonatal ______________ leads to jaundice, fever, and anemia in young foals

A

Isoerythrolysis

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25
in order of preference which gases are preffered in horses? Isoflurane Sevoflurane Halothane
S.H.I.
26
What bacteria causes a sweet smell from draining lesions?
Psuedomonas
27
Calcium oxalate crystals in the urine are indicative of what type of poisioning?
Ethylene Glycol
28
Which bones are typically used when obtaining a bone marrow aspirate in a dog? Cat? Horse?
Dog: Humeral Head and Iliac Crest Cat: Femoral Head Horse: Sternum
29
An orthopedic chisel is called an _____________
Osteotome
30
Instrument used to advance a pin into the medullary canal of a bone?
Jacob's Chuck
31
What is the most important light source in an indoor enclosure for a tortoise? Used to properly absorb calcium
UVB
32
Which anesthetic gas would be most likely to induce a cardiac arrythmia?
Halothane
33
Miosis, ptosis, enophthalmos, and third eyelid protrusion are all signs of
Horner's Syndrome
34
Trichomanas Foetus is a flagellated protozoan that cause ___________ disease in cattle. A bull's __________ is cultured for testing.
venereal disease, smegma
35
Oxidative damage to red blood cells commonly causes formation of __________ bodies
Heinz
36
Radiographs appear yellow is usually due to the __________ solution running low or ___________ time too short
Fixer, fixation
37
Oral ulceration is caused by what condition?
Renal Failure
38
Struvite crystals in dogs typically indicate
A bacterial urinary tract infection
39
A coggins test is for
Equine Infectious Anemia
40
Phenylbutazone (Equine NSAID) is known to cause ___________ _________ colitis
Right Dorsal
41
Electrolyte abormality that causes ventroflexion of the neck and extreme weakness? Common Cases: Hepatic Lipidosis, Furosemide side efffect, Chronic Kidney Disease
Hypokalemia
42
Mice estrus last ________ days and gestation last 19-21 days.
4-6
43
What is a normal CVP reading?
0-10 cm h20
44
Normal temp for a week old puppy
94-99
45
The Baermann Technique involves collecting ____________ larvar by passing them through a ____________
Nematode, Cheesecloth
46
A positive _________ sign indictates hip dysplasia
Ortolani
47
What do you test for to test for failure of passive transfer?
immunoglobulin G
48
Gestation period for rats? How many pinkies can they have at one time?
21-23 days 20
49
Blood lactate is a marker of _________ _________ and ____________ delivery to tissues. Anaerobic metabolism produces lactate
blood perfusion oxygen
50
The safe amount of blood to collect from a horse is ________ - ______ ml/kg
15-16
51
In dentistry the canine tooth # always ends in ___ and the first molar ends in ____
04 09
52
Erythropoetin (EPO) Hormone is produced by the __________. Chronic _________ failure patients become anemic due to the lack of this hormone.
Kidney
53
________ fibers carry impulses toward the brain.
Afferent
54
Max permissible dose of radiation you can be exposed to in 1 year?
50 mSv
55
Myiasis indicates a problem with a _________ infestation
flies
56
How long does bupivacaine last?
3-5 hours
57
Rainy conditions cause __________ in livestock
Dermaphilosis
58
Pediculosis is an infestation of
lice
59
What part of the x-ray film decreases the exposure necessary to create an image?
Cassette
60
The antidote for Flagyl?
Valium
61
The maxillary block is also called
Infraorbital block
62
Two mandible blocks
Inferior alveolar block Mental nerve block
63
Most immature red blood cell
Rubriblast
64
Lyme Disease is caused a spirochete bacteria called ____________ __________. It is transmitted by the deer tick, ____________ __________.
Borrelia burgdorferi Ixodes scapularis B+I=L
65
Rhipicephalus, as known as the __________ Dog tick, trasmits
Ehrlichia
66
How many thoracic vertebrae does a horse have? Dog, cat, cows and sheep? pigs?
18 13 14-15
67
Praziquantel (Drontal) treats
tapeworms
68
How many mL/kg can a kitten stomach hold?
9 mL/kg
69
Major-cross match includes Recipient _______ with donor _____________
Serum, erythrocytes RS, DE
70
A minor cross match includes Recipient __________ with donor ____________
Erythrocytes, Serum
71
MacConkey agar makes ____________ fermenting organism to turn Pink or Red
Lactose
72
Cyclosporine ointment is typically called _______, used to treat __________
Optimmune, KCS (dry eye)
73
Side effects of metoclopramide in cats
Aggressive behavior
74
An adenoma is a _________ tumor. They are difficult to remove and large.
Benign
75
Blood feathers in a bird are
immature
76
Chelonians dont have a ____________
Diaphragm
77
Causes aplastic anemia in humans
Chloramphenicol (remember the ending)
78
Pyometra is commonly caused by E. coli. Clinic symptoms include
Pu/pd, hyporexia, lethargy, fever
79
How long does estrus in a canine last? How long is the entire cycle?
4-13 days 6 months
80
What term describes Tarsocrural effusion in a horse?
Bog spavin
81
a mucin clot test is for testing _________ _________
Synovial Fluid
82
Mulberry heart disease in swine is caused by
Vitamine E deficiency
83
Test to run if petechial and eccymotic hemorrhages are seen and need to know if platelets are associated with this finding?
Template Bleeding Time (TBT)
84
(Lab) Partial hemolysis, creating a band of slimy discoloration around a bacterial colony.
Alpha
85
(Lab) Complete hemolysis, leaving a clear zone around a bacterial colony.
Beta
86
(Lab) Hemolysis causes no change in appearance
Gamma
87
(Lab) Hemolysis creates a double zone of hemolysis wherein a narrow area around the colony is hemolyzed and surrounded by a larger region with some hemolysis
Delta
88
Impluses are carried away from the neuronal body by which of the folowing structures?
Axon
89
Which animal is prone to spontaneous sz if handled inappropriately?
Gerbil. Poor Gerbil.
90
Rouleaux is a normal finding in what three species?
Horses, cats, and pigs
91
Test for Myasthenia Gravis, Improves strength by prolonging acetylcholine stimulation to the muscles.
Tensilon Test
92
Two diseases in cats that cause intermittent glucosuria ( not diabetes)
Hyperthyroidism, Renal Disease
93
Where is the thymus located?
Mediastinum
94
How long can an esmarch bandage be left on?
2 hours
95
Which lab test is used to assess kidney function and its breakdown product of protein?
BUN (URea is made when proteins are broken down)
96
________ is a waste product from breakdown of muscle tissue which is filtered out of the blood by the kidneys?
Creatinine
97
What instrument is best suited for removing bone? Like the dorsal spinous process
Rongeur
98
Used to grasp masses of tissue or vessels
Carmalts
99
Used to help hold bone fragments in reduction during a fracture repair
Kern Forceps
100
Name for the "hock joint" in horses
Tarsocrural Joint
101
Ringtail occurs in rats when _________ too low
Humidity (50%)
102
"Toe bone" in horses, third phalanx (distal phalanx/p3)
Coffin bone
103
Drug that shouldnt be given to greyhounds because they have no fat
Thiopental (short acting barbiturate)
104
Normal sulcus depth for dogs what percentage of pets has periodontal disease?
0-3 mm 75%
105
Nervous tissue without myelin is known as ?
Grey matter
106
Name three parts of the large intestine
Cecum, Colon, Rectum
107
Name three parts of the small intestine
Duodenum, jejunum, and ileaum
108
Within how many hours should a laceration be repaired?
8 hours
109
Diet for a cat in renal failure
Low in phosphorus and protein
109
How often do cows have their estrous cycle? Cows a non-seasonal polyestrus
21 days
110
Name the three parts that make up the uveal tract in the eye
Iris, choroid, and ciliary body
110
in the presence of air or free fluid in the body what of radiograph should be taken?
Horizontal beam
111
Why is nitrous oxide contraindicated in GI sx?
Causes nitrous build up inthe GI tract
112
Layers of the skin (3)
Epidermis Dermis Subcutaneous
113
The cassette is used to
decease the exposure necessary
114
Where is the Sertoli cell (tumor)
Testicle
115
Bacteria lack a true _________-_______ nucleus
Membrane-bound
116
Rhipicephalus sanguines (brown dog tick) tramits __________ (bacteria) Ehrlichia canis. __________ is the treatment of choice.
rickettsia, doxycycline Brown Rhino Blood Ricky E-licky ## Footnote Tetracycline
117
Dermacentor variabilis (American dog tick) transmitts Rickettsia rickettsii which causes _______________ __________ fever
Rocky Mountain Spotted (Ricky's Rick Spots are variable in America)
118
The Lone Star tick tramits Ehrlichia ________ which causes human monocytic ehrlichiosis
Chaffeensis Texas chaffs cause people problems
119
Dog flea (Ctencephalides canis) is the intermediate host for Dipylidium caninum (tapeworm).
120
The Deer Tick (Ixodes) transmitts the spirochete bacteria (Borrelia burgdorferi) which causes
Lyme Disease BIL
121
122
The 4th upper premolar is connected to the
Maxillary Sinus
123
Distemper-parvo vaccines are
Modified live virus
124
Bordetella vaccine is a cillular __________ extract vaccine
antigen
125
Eimeria happens when rabbits ingest the sporulated oocysts, the aporozoites hatch and travel via the hepatic portal vein the liver and penetrate the bile duct epithelium. This causes
Hepatic coccidiosis in Rabbits
126
If you overwork a __________ is overheats
Sheep Cause of all that wool?
127
Mandibular P 234 and M 1 in canines all have ____ roots
two
128
Typical minute volume for a feline is _____- ________ ml/kg/min
180-380
129
NSAID Overdose medication that protects the gastric mucosa
Misoprostol
130
Cattle "cud" is
regurgitated food
130
Tularemia is cause by the bacteria Francisella tularensis and is carried by
rabbits, its rabbit fever
131
Severe azotemia causes _______ in the body resulting in __________
Acidity, Ulcers
132
Oppossum is the definitive host for Sarcoystis, which causes _________________
Equine protozoal myelitis which there is no vaccine for
133
Ostertagia ostertagi is commonly known as _________________ and is a parasitic gastritis in cattle
Brown Stomach Worm
134
Passageway for both respiratory and digestive systems?
Pharynx
135
How long is sperm viable for inside of the female dog?
7 days. Ew.
136
Concentration of the drug plateaus/Loading dose plus maintenance =
Steady State
137
Low point
nadir
138
Half of steady state
half-life
139
Dysecdysis in reptiles is caused by
Improper Humidity
140
Ivermectin treats __________ not whipworms, tapeworms, or ticks
Roundworms
141
PPN can be placed in a ___________ vein
peripheral
142
This animal is missing a gall bladder
horse
143
Mycobacterium can not be stained with
Gram stain
144
The minimum scrub time is
5 minutes
145
How many mammary gland does a goat/horse have
2
146
parotid gland is responsible for
saliva
147
Oxytocin is made by the ________ and released by the __________ ______
Hypothalamus, Pituitary gland
148
Cisplatin is bad for
cats "Cisplatin splats cats"
149
Perpendicular to bones = elongated Perpendicular to the cassette = foreshortened
150
Ruminants should be fast for ___-___ hrs b4 anesthesia
24-48
151
Lincosamides (clindamycin) can not be used in these 4 animals
Horses Ruminants Rodents and Rabbits
152
Metabolic bone disease is caused by lack of calcium. Crickets are not a good source of calcium with a dusting
153
Common pig GI parasite
Ascaris suum
154
Microscope: 20x, 10 x 20 x 10
155
Dirofilaria immitis is a
roundworm
156
Atropine can cause _____ in horses
colic
157
Baby mice are puppies <3
and dont stab cows in the booty
158
The _____ attaches the stomach to the esophagus
Cardia
159
Addisions can cause severe ______cardia
brady
160
Which part of the intestinal tract absorbs the most nutrients?
Jejunum
161
Mannitol Salt Agar or MSA is used to grow what?
Staphylococcus
162
Cell that produce antibodies?
B-lymphocyte
163
A ______ is an x-ray examination of the kidneys, ureters, and urinary bladder.
Pyelogram
164
Long live the chinchillas! they live longer than GP, rat, hamster, and rabbit. How long?
10-15 years Rabbits (5-8) GP (4-7)
164
an acid fast stain is used to identify
Mycobacteria and Nocardia
165
Oxytocin stimulates _______________ Progesterone maintains the pregnancy and works with estrogen to grow the mammary tissues.
Milk let down
166
Phenothiazine tranquilizers such as Acepromazine or Chlorpromazine should be avoided in patients with _____________
Epilepsy
167
Sodium floride is the preferred anticoagulant for what measurment?
Blood Glucose
168
The Syrinx in a bird is used to
mimic sound
169
Quinidine is used in horses to treat
AFIB
170
Two medications associated with esophageal strictures in cats
Doxycycline and clindamycin
171
The ratio between the effective dose and the toxic dose
Therapeutic index
172
Olecranon is a structure of which bone?
Ulna
173
_________ toxicity is common in sheep
Copper
174
Quality of an x-ray beam is influenced by
KVp and filtration
175
Grape cluster ovaries
Pigs
176
Psittacosis (Ornithosis)
Parrot fever, or Chlamyosis treat with doxy
177
p4 M1 and M2 are all ______ rooted
three
178
Night blindness is caused by a Vitamin ____ deficiency White muscle Disease is caused by Vitamin ____ deficiency Hypersalivation, chronic skin problems, testicular hypoplasia, and deformed hooves comes from _______ deficiency.
A, E, Zinc
179
180
Meloxicam causes __________ in cats
renal failure
181
Horse temp
99-101.5
182
The __________ is composed of the thalamus, hypothalamus, and pituitary gland
dicephcephalon
183
The medullar oblongata, pons, and the mid brain (mesencephalon) are located in the ______ ______
Brain stem
184
Beta-2 adrenergic agonist treat "asthma", name two
Terbutaline and albuterol
185
Reddish brown discharge from the vulva post baby
Lochia
186
"Gastric Band-aid"
Sucralfate (Carafate)
187
Potter-Bucky diaphragm is used to eliminate __________ __________ on the film
grid lines
188
If albumin is low then
Patient will be more prone to edema/fluid overload
189
Bacterial sepsis causes
Hypoglycemia
190
Hypersensitivity Type 1 Type 2 Type 3 Type 4
Type 1: Immediate (atophy) igE Immunoglobin Type 2: antibody-Mediated (Attacks own cells, IMHA) IgG, IgM Type 3: Immune Complexdisease (Antibody and antigen get together and ruin everything. Glomenlonephritis Type 4: Delayed (point ivy)
191
Chronic use of corticosteriods results in ________ resitance in pets
Insulin Type 2 diabetes
192
NSAID in horses that causes sloughing if given outside the vein
Phenylbutazone
193
A fluctuant swelling of connective tissue consisting of collected mucin from a ruptured salivary gland duct. They are found under the tongue
RANULA = Sublingual mucocele
194
How much forage for a breeding stalliun (%)
2%
195
_______ toxicity causes bone marrow suppression
Estrogen
196
Feline Pancreatitis Test
PLI - Serum pancreatic lipase immunoreactivity
197
Hypoventilation =
Hypercapnia and respiratory acidosis
198
Hypokalemia is
Decreased potassium, not associated with dystocia
199
Pruritis in a horse is typically caused by Oxyuris Equi, which is a _________ worm
Pin
200
lumbar Vertebrea Cats/Dogs: Horses and Cows: Pigs and Sheep:
7 6 6-7
201
Hamster gestation is _______-______ days
15-22 days
202
Difference between Rem and rad
Rem applies a quality factor to rad
203
Fipronil kills what stage of the flea?
Adult
204
Selamectin kills _____ and ______
Fleas and sarcoptic mites
205
Lufenuron (Program) kills flea populations by stopping the life cycle at the ________ stage
egg
206
Trilostane (Vetoryl) is medication for
Cushings
207
Drug used to treat addisons
DOCP, Percorten-V
208
Aminoglycosides such as _________________ are known to cause nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
Gentamicin
209
Acidic urine PH of ______ - _____- will help cats dissolve strucite crytals
6.2 - 6.4
210
An epulis is a
benign oral tumor
211
Spirulactone (aldosterone antagonist) is a ___________ for ___________ ____________ failure
Diuretic Congestive Heart (potassium sparing diruretic) used w/ furosemide
212
Tapetum
Eye, reflective layer that helps with night vision
213
Name an ACE inhibitor
Enalapril "pril" drugs
214
Organelles (ribosomes, endoplasmic reticolum, lysosomes, mitochondria, and the golgi complex) reside in the
Cytoplasm
215
Xenopsylla cheops is responsible for the transmission of Yersinia Pestis which is the
Plague, gram-negative
216
Blood volume is roughly _____ - _____ mL/kg)
45-60
217
Oviducts are fallopian tubes
Ya idiot
218
Mandibular: p1: ____ P2,3,4 & M1,2: _____ M3:______ or ____ Maxillary: p1:____ P2,3: ___ P4, M1,2,3: ____
1, 2 1,2,3
219
Chinchillas have 20 teeth and no ______
Canine teeth
220
Enamel HYPOplasia is caused by
Distempter and tetracyclines
221
Actinomyctes bovis causes
lumpy jaw
222
Corynebacterium psuedoterbulosis causes
caseous lymphadenitis
223
Mycobacterium bovis causes
bovine tuberculosis
224
Melarosomine (immiticide) is used to kill
Adult heartworms
225
The vein used to assess CRT in an avian ?
basilic
226
Chloestasis, increase osteoblastic activity, or corticosteriod therapy in canines will increase
ALP Alkaline Phosphate
227
Fungal Cultures should be incubated at
72 degrees
228
Rodenticide poisoning causes a
elevated PT/PTT
229
Blastomycosis is caused by
Fungus
230
Phenothiazines have antiemtic effects, name them
Acepromazine, other zines