test quiz questions got wrong Flashcards
1
Q
Which basic management principle says that each fire fighter should answer to only one supervisor?
a- Span of control
b- Organizational accountability
c- Unity of command
d- Division of labor
A
Unity of command
2
Q
Which are developed to provide definitive guidelines for present and future actions?
a- Regulations
b- Policies
c- Standard operating procedures
d- Tactical objectives
A
Policies
3
Q
Specific information on the actions to be taken to accomplish a certain task is provided by:
a- standard operating procedures.
b- policies.
c- rules and regulations.
d- incident action plans.
A
standard operating procedures.
4
Q
Which position specializes in reviewing plans for fire detection and suppression systems for functionality and code compliance?
a- Fire systems specialist
b- Fire prevention officer
c- Fire safety educator
d- Fire protection engineer
A
Fire protection engineer
5
Q
Which is one of the four basic management principles used by fire departments?
a- Division of labor
b- Management by objective
c- Common terminology
d- Delegation of authority
A
Division of labor
6
Q
The highest number of fire fighter injuries occur during which one of the activities listed below?
a- Responding to or returning from an alarm
b- Non-fire emergencies
c-Fireground operations
d- Training
A
Fireground operations
7
Q
Which is the correct term for taking a brief break to rest, hydrate, and change the SCBA bottle?
a- Rehabilitation
b- Reload
c- Recycling
d- Breather
A
Recycling
8
Q
What does the “buddy system” refer to?
a- The passport personnel accountability system
b- A team of at least two members who maintain constant contact
c- The tradition of “No one left behind”
d- Two-in, two-out
A
A team of at least two members who maintain constant contact
9
Q
Health and safety programs for fire fighters are the subject of NFPA:
a- 1001
b- 1021
c- 1500
d- 1901
A
1500
10
Q
Current NFPA standards require an SCBA EOSTI to sound when cylinder pressure drops to _____ percent of capacity.
a- 20
b- 25
c- 30
d- 35
A
35
11
Q
What does the “A” stand for in “CAD”?
a- Aided
b- Automatic
c- Auxiliary
d- Ancillary
A
Aided
12
Q
What is the lowest temperature at which a fuel-air mixture will ignite in the presence of air and continue to burn?
a- Fire point
b- Ignition temperature
c- Flash point
d- Specific heat
A
Ignition temperature
13
Q
Fire-retardant wood is treated with:
a- aluminum oxide.
b- mineral salts.
c- calcium sulfate.
d- urea.
A
mineral salts.
14
Q
Which construction feature is most commonly found in Type V buildings?
a- Pre-stressed concrete
b- Treated lumber
c- Platform-frame construction
d- Bar joists
A
Platform-frame construction
15
Q
Which is another term for gypsum board?
a- Lath
b- OSB
c- Drywall
d- Stucco
A
Drywall
16
Q
The rate of combustion of wood is most directly related to which factor?
a- Use of adhesives
b- Age
c- Surface area
d- Volatility
A
Surface area
17
Q
What is the lower structural member of a truss called?
a- Chord
b- Beam
c- Girder
d- Cantilever
A
Chord
18
Q
Which is one of the four key characteristics affecting the behavior of building materials under fire conditions?
a- Surface area/mass ratio
b- Thermal conductivity
c- Porosity
d- Density
A
Thermal conductivity
19
Q
What is a bar joist?
a- A truss with steel parallel members and wood diagonals
b- Any engineered component with steel load-bearing members
c- An open-web steel truss
d- A steel I-beam used to support a floor or roof
A
An open-web steel truss
20
Q
A potential problem with application of a multipurpose dry chemical agent to a Class K fire is:
a- spitting and splattering of fuel.
b- production of toxic gas.
c- counteraction of other agents applied to the fire.
d- sudden flare-up of the fire.
A
counteraction of other agents applied to the fire.
21
Q
The “P” in the acronym PASS, used in reference to fire extinguisher operation, stands for:
a- point.
b- pause.
c- pull.
d- pick.
A
pull
22
Q
Which tool has two retractable blades?
a- Plaster hook
b- Ceiling hook
c- A tool
d- Shove knife
A
Plaster hook
23
Q
To force an inward-opening door, which part of the Halligan bar is inserted between the door and the jamb?
a- Fork
b- Adze
c- Pick
d- Blade
A
Adze
24
Q
Which tool is best for breaching a floor?
a- Rotary saw
b- Air chisel
c- Reciprocating saw
d- Flat-head axe
A
Rotary saw
25
Which type of lock is surface-mounted on the interior of the door frame?
a- Mortise
b- Cylindrical
c- Cam
d- Rim
Rim
26
The two-fire fighter shoulder carry can be used with extension ladders up to _____ long.
a- 24 ft (7.5 m)
b- 30 ft (9 m)
c- 35 ft (11 m)
d- 40 ft (12 m)
35 ft (11 m)
27
When should the building be used to anchor the butt during a ladder raise?
a- For any single-fire-fighter ladder raise
b- When laddering a building without eaves
c- When sending a roof ladder aloft
d- When a single fire fighter raises an extension ladder
When a single fire fighter raises an extension ladder
28
Exposure of a metal ladder to a minimum temperature of approximately __________ will cause a heat sensor label to change color.
a- 150°F (65°C)
b- 212°F (100°C)
c- 250°F (120°C)
d- 300°F (150°C)
300°F (150°C)
29
What is a ladder I-beam usually made of?
a- Fiberglass
b- Alloy
c- Truss blocks
d- Wood
Fiberglass
30
The top and bottom rails of a trussed beam are joined by:
a- tie rods.
b- truss blocks.
c- A-plates.
d- I-beams.
truss blocks.
31
At a minimum, how often should ground ladders be visually inspected?
a- Monthly
b- Quarterly
c- Annually
d- Biannually
Monthly
32
What is the maximum length of a straight or roof ladder that can be carried safely by one fire fighter?
a- 12 ft (3.65 m)
b- 14 ft (4.25 m)
c- 16 ft (4.8 m)
d- 18 ft (5.5 m)
18 ft (5.5 m)
33
Which term describes the top or bottom component of a trussed beam?
a- Dog
b- Rail
c- Block
d- Rung
Rail
34
Which NFPA standard sets minimum performance standards for aerial ladders and elevating platforms?
a- 1450
b- 1724
c- 1901
d- 1932
1901
35
Which NFPA standard deals with use, maintenance, and service testing of in-service fire department ground ladders?
a- 1401
b- 4560
c- 1875
d- 1932
1932
36
When raising a ladder, it should be kept a minimum of _____ from power lines.
a- 5 ft (1.5 m)
b- 15 ft (4.5 m)
c- 10 ft (3 m)
d- 20 ft (6 m)
10 ft (3 m)
37
When lowering an unconscious victim down a ladder, what is the position of the victim?
a- Upright with back toward the ladder
b- Horizontal, facing the ladder
c- Upright, facing the ladder
d- Horizontal, facing the rescuer
Horizontal, facing the rescuer
38
What does a neutral plane at a vent opening indicate?
a- Equal pressure inside and outside the structure
b- Fuel-limited stage fire
c- Stack effect
d- Pre-flashover conditions
Equal pressure inside and outside the structure
39
What does fast-moving smoke indicate?
a- Poorly ventilated ventilation-controlled fire
b- Very hot fire
c- High synthetic fuel content
d- Incomplete combustion
Very hot fire
40
For natural ventilation, which window should be opened first?
a- The highest window
b- Windows opening directly into the fire room
c- The downwind window
d- The upwind window
The downwind window
41
In ordinary construction, exterior walls are made of __________ materials.
a- noncombustible or limited-combustible
b- any standard load-bearing
c- fire-resistive
d- non-rated
noncombustible or limited-combustible
42
Which condition will most likely cause smoke to stratify in a large building?
a- Decay phase fire
b- Winter stack effect
c- Sprinkler system activation
d- Ventilation controlled fire
Sprinkler system activation
43
Pressure in a water distribution system during average consumption is __________ pressure.
a residual
b mean
c normal operating
d static
normal operating
44
Which pressure measurement provides the best indicator of how much more water is available in the system?
a Residual
b Static
c Normal operating
d Flow
Residual
45
46
Which pressure must be measured to calculate the quantity of water flowing through a hydrant discharge?
a Head
b Operating
c Flow
d Residual
Residual
47
The quantity of water that is being moved through a pipe or hose is termed the:
a pressure
b flow
c throughput
d stream
flow
48
Which term means the amount of energy in water?
a Flow
b Watts
c Volume
d Pressure
Pressure
49
Which is the function of lugs found on couplings?
a Align the threads during coupling
b Aid in coupling and uncoupling hose
c Help the coupling slide over obstructions
d Strengthen the coupling
Aid in coupling and uncoupling hose
50
Which type of valve is opened or closed by rotating a handle a quarter turn?
a Gate
b Siamese
c Butterfly
d Slide
Butterfly
51
Which type of valve is typically used on engine discharges?
a Butterfly
b Gate
c Clapper
d Ball
Ball
52
Which type of adaptor is used to connect two female couplings to each other?
a Wye
b Double female
c Siamese
d Double male
Double male
53
During annual testing, attack hose is tested at what pressure?
a 200 psi (1379 kPa)
b 300 psi (2068 kPa)
c 400 psi (2757 kPa)
d 500 psi (3447 kPa)
300 psi (2068 kPa)
54
Generally speaking, a 1¾" (44-mm) attack hose can flow:
a 60 to 125 gpm (227 to 473 lpm).
b 75 to 150 gpm (284 to 566 lpm).
c 100 to 160 gpm (379 to 606 lpm).
d 120 to 180 gpm (454 to 681 lpm).
120 to 180 gpm (454 to 681 lpm).
55
Generally speaking, a 1" (25-cm) booster hose can flow:
a 15 to 30 gpm (57 to 114 lpm).
b 20 to 40 gpm (76 to 151 lpm).
c 40 to 50 gpm (151 to 189 lpm).
d 50 to 75 gpm (189 to 284 lpm).
40 to 50 gpm (151 to 189 lpm).
56
A 50' (15 m) section of charged 2½" (65-mm) hose weighs approximately:
a 100 lb (45 kg).
b 125 lb (57 kg).
c 140 lb (64 kg).
d 200 lb (91 kg).
140 lb (64 kg).
57
Master streams flow a minimum of:
a 350 gpm (1325 lpm).
b 400 gpm (1514 lpm).
c 450 gpm (1703 lpm).
d 500 gpm (1893 lpm).
350 gpm (1325 lpm).
58
Which is an advantage of a smooth-bore nozzle?
a Greater heat absorption per gallon discharged
b Operation at a higher nozzle pressure
c Greater disruption of thermal layering
d Longer stream reach
Longer stream reach
59
Most smooth-bore nozzles are designed to operate at which pressure?
a 50 psi (345 kPa)
b 75 psi (517 kPa)
c 100 psi (690 kPa)
d 125 psi (862 kPa)
50 psi (345 kPa)
60
Hose on an apparatus that has not been used should be unloaded, inspected, and reloaded every:
a 30 days.
b 3 months.
c 6 months.
d year.
30 days.
61
When using a standpipe connection in a stairwell, how should the hose be arranged?
a Up the stairwell toward the floor above the fire
b Back and forth on the landing
c Down the stairwell toward the floor below the fire floor
d In large coils on the landing nearest the fire floor
Up the stairwell toward the floor above the fire
62
What is the correct procedure for a burst hose line?
a Use two lengths of hose to replace a single burst length.
b Leave the burst section in operation unless the water loss is affecting nozzle flow.
c Place the clamp as far from the burst section of hose as possible.
d Shut the line down at the pump panel only as last resort.
Use two lengths of hose to replace a single burst length.
63
When should the fire fighter at the hydrant charge the supply line?
a As soon as it is connected to the hydrant
b Upon receiving a signal from the driver/operator
c After the supply line is connected to the pump intake
d After placing the hose clamp
Upon receiving a signal from the driver/operator
64
Which supply line load is capable of laying both single and dual supply lines?
a Twin
b Detroit
c Horseshoe
d Combination
Combination
65
When charging a supply line at a hydrant, the fire fighter should:
a place the hose clamp before opening the hydrant.
b avoid standing between the hose line and the hydrant
c check that the hydrant strap is secure.
d fully open the stem and then back it off one full turn.
avoid standing between the hose line and the hydrant
66
The end of the hose bed closest to the apparatus cab is the:
a front.
b bulkhead.
c partition.
d back.
front.
67
Which hose lay is performed by two engine companies when hose must be laid in two different directions to establish a water supply?
a Reverse
b Combination
c Relay
d Split
Split
68
As a general guideline, a pumper should supply a sprinkler system at:
a 100 psi (689 kPa).
b 125 psi (861 kPa).
c 150 psi (1034 kPa).
d 175 psi (1206 kPa).
150 psi (1034 kPa).
69
Which is a feature of the triple-layer hose load?
a Works well with multistory buildings
b Minimizes the need to drag hose
c Suitable for companies with minimal personnel
d Simple to load
Suitable for companies with minimal personnel
70
Which is an example of a hose friction point?
a Doorway
b Kink
c Appliance
d Hose bed cover
Doorway
71
Which is the purpose of creating a bight in an attack line during interior attack?
a Make surplus hose available if needed
b Reduce the number of friction points
c Reduce the likelihood of kinks
d Absorb the nozzle reaction
Make surplus hose available if needed
72
Which firefighting attack, if successful, will result in the least amount of property damage?
a Offensive
b Transitional
c Indirect
d Defensive
Offensive
73
What it the maximum diameter of a small handline?
a 1½" (38 mm)
b 1¾" (45 mm)
c 2" (50 mm)
d 2½" (65 mm)
2" (50 mm)
74
Which is the minimum flow from a large handline?
a 150 gpm
b 200 gpm
c 250 gpm
d 350 gpm
250 gpm
75
Which is an advantage of a straight stream over a fog stream?
a Greater heat absorption
b Longer reach
c Increased surface area of the stream
d Less nozzle reaction
Longer reach
76
A combination fire attack begins with:
a an exterior attack
b an indirect attack
c exposure protection
d performing ventilation
an indirect attack
77
When is an indirect attack indicated?
a The fire has vented prior to arrival of fire crews
b When exposures are immediately threatened
c With an incipient fire
d When flashover is likely
When flashover is likely
78
What is an effect of a hose stream that consists of droplets with a large surface area?
a The stream carries over a longer distance.
b The stream resists breakup from the wind.
c Water in this pattern penetrates fuels better.
d Heat absorption is enhanced.
Heat absorption is enhanced.
79
What does the E stand for in the acronym SLICE-RS?
a Establish command
b Evaluate the facts
c Evaluate extension
d Extinguish the fire
Extinguish the fire
80
Which is another term for a deck gun?
a Deluge set
b Monitor
c Playpipe
d Turret pipe
Turret pipe
81
Preventing the spread of fire is the primary objective of which fire attack?
a Defensive
b Offensive
c Direct
d Indirect
Defensive
82
Which statement about an offensive exterior attack is correct?
a It pushes the fire into uninvolved portions of the structure.
b Its effects are short-lived.
c Its effect on the fire is minimal.
d It should not be initiated prior to establishing water supply.
Its effects are short-lived.
83
What is the minimum number of fire fighters needed to advance and maneuver a 2½" (65-mm) handline inside a building?
a 1
b 2
c 3
d 4
2
84
Peeling or bubbling paint is an indicator of:
a concealed fire
b impending building collapse
c the fire's point of origin
d use of accelerants
concealed fire
85
What is the best item to aid in the extinguishment of smoldering fires in tightly packed combustible materials?
a Class A foam
b Piercing nozzle
c Water fog
d Dry chemical
Class A foam
86
Application of a fire stream to solar panels should be done from a distance of no less than:
a 10 ft
b 15 ft
c 20 ft
d 25 ft
20 ft
87
Which type of stream may be safe for use on solar panels?
a Fog
b Straight
c Solid
d None of these is correct
Fog
88
Ideally, which should be used to extinguish a chimney fire?
a CO2
b Dry chemical
c Class A foam
d Water
Dry chemical
89
Which vehicle fuel or propulsion system presents the potential for BLEVE?
a Gasoline
b Hybrid/electric
c Diesel
d Compressed gas
Compressed gas
90
What is the most important component of fire fighter survival?
a Maintaining team integrity
b Preincident planning
c Consistently applying safe operating procedures
d Establishment of RICs
Consistently applying safe operating procedures
91
An RIC has reached a downed fire fighter in a hazardous area. What is the most critical question to answer at this point?
a How quickly can the victim be moved to safety?
b What is the expected duration of the victim's air supply?
c What is the likely outcome of the victim's injuries?
d What additional resources are needed?
What is the expected duration of the victim's air supply?
92
Which is a characteristic upon which wildland fuels are classified?
a Weight
b Diameter
c Slope aspect
d Composition
Diameter
93
Which of the following is an example of a fine fuel?
a Root
b Stick
c Branch
d Grass
Grass
94
What is usually the main type of fuel present in ground cover fires?
a Coarse
b Light
c Heavy
d Fine
Fine
95
What is slash?
a Partially decomposed organic matter
b Debris from logging or clearing operations
c Seasonal ground cover
d Partially burned fuel
Debris from logging or clearing operations
96
Aerial fuels are at least _____ above the ground.
a 4 ft (1.2 m)
b 6 ft (2 m)
c 8 ft (2.5 m)
d 10 ft (3 m)
6 ft (2 m)
97
Fuels that are in contact with each other are described as:
a uninterrupted.
b continuous.
c compact.
d unbroken.
continuous.
98
What is the ratio of water in air compared to the maximum amount of water vapor the air can hold at a given temperature?
a Saturation index
b Relative humidity
c Barometric pressure
d Moisture ratio
Relative humidity
99
Which condition will generally result in lower relative humidity?
a Higher fuel moisture
b Precipitation
c Nighttime
d Increasing temperature
Increasing temperature
100
What is the term for the natural and human-made features of land?
a Cartography
b Geography
c Topography
d Geology
Topography
101
What is the term for a long, narrow extension of fire projecting out from the main body of a wildland fire?
a Island
b Spot
c Run
d Finger
Finger
102
What is the term for the burned area of a wildland fire?
a Black
b Body
c Island
d Heel
Black
103
Which tool is a combination of hoe and rake?
a Pulaski
b Forestry hoe
c Combination
d McLeod
McLeod
104
Which type of wildland fire attack is made on the fire's burning edge?
a Direct
b Offensive
c Frontal
d Indirect
Direct
105
A safety zone should be large enough:
a to fit apparatus as well as personnel.
b to be accessible by rotary-winged aircraft.
c that fire shelters are not needed to prevent injury.
d to accommodate an entire division.
that fire shelters are not needed to prevent injury.
106
What is the term for the partly decomposed organic material on a forest floor?
a Understory
b Litter
c Surface compost
d Ground duff
Ground duff
107
In which type of fuel will a fire spread the most rapidly?
a Compacted
b Brush
c Slash
d Fine
Fine
108
Which fuel classification includes large brush?
a Ground
b Moderate
c Median
d Heavy
Heavy
109
What is another term for aerial fuels?
a Raised
b Ladder
c Canopy
d Elevated
Canopy
110
The quantity of wildland fuel available in a specific area is fuel:
a loading.
b volume.
c continuity.
d density.
volume.
111
What is dry lightning?
a A lightning strike that does not cause fire
b Lightning without rain
c Lightning occurring in otherwise fair weather d
d Lightning that does not contact the ground
Lightning without rain
112
As a basic guideline, the distance between fire fighters in a safety zone and the flames should be a minimum of _____ times the flame height.
a two
b three
c four
d five
four
113
Which fuel is the most susceptible to changes in relative humidity?
a Compacted
b Brush
c Aerial
d Grass
Grass
114
The unburned part of a wildland fire area is the:
a island.
b clear.
c perimeter.
d green.
green.
115
Which tool combines an axe with an adze?
a Brush hook
b Pulaski
c McLeod
d Council rake
Pulaski
116
What is one of the two primary methods of direct attack on a wildland fire?
a Pinch
b Frontal
c Backfire
d Aerial
Pinch
117
Which is one of the three causes of wildland fire ignition?
a Spontaneous
b Criminal
c Intentional
d Conditional
Intentional
118
The location near the area of origin of a wildland fire began is the:
a source.
b heel.
c launch.
d origin.
heel.
119
Which is one of the eighteen watch out situations?
a In country not seen in daylight
b Span of control exceeded
c Multiple escape routes available
d Constructing control line uphill
In country not seen in daylight
120
Which extinguishing agent is commonly used in wildland fire operations?
a Compressed air foam
b AFFF
c Dry chemical
d Carbon dioxide
Compressed air foam
121
If a wildland or ground cover fire is too dangerous for a direct attack, which type of fire attack should be used?
a Head
b Pinch
c Indirect
d Flanking
Indirect
122
Which NFPA standard covers wildland fire fighter professional qualifications?
a 1051
b 1041
c 1031
d 1021
1051
123
The maximum diameter of a fine fuel is:
a ¼" (6 mm).
b ½" (13 mm).
c ¾" (19 mm).
d 1" (25 mm).
¼" (6 mm).
124
Which is one of the ten standard wildland firefighting orders?
a Base all actions on current and expected fire behavior
b Do not attempt to outrun a fire uphill
c Focus on what is not burning, rather than what is burning
d Attack the flanks of the fire, not the head
Base all actions on current and expected fire behavior
125
What does the “E” in LCES stand for?
a Establish lookouts
b Expect surprises
c Establish accountability
d Escape routes
Escape routes
126
A fire fighter should reconsider accepting an assignment if it involves _____ or more of the eighteen watch out situations.
a one
b two
c three
d five
five
127
Which is the safest and most reliable type of wildland fire attack?
a Flanking
b Pinch
c Parallel
d Tandem
Pinch
