Test Two Flashcards
(140 cards)
1
Q
Does Parkinsons cause autonomic dysfunction?
A
yes
2
Q
Is dementia an early or late feature of Parkinsons?
A
late
3
Q
What specific structure is destroyed during Parkinsons?
A
substantia nigra zona compacta
4
Q
Which two proteins are contained within Lewy Bodies?
A
alpha-synuclein
Ubiquitin
5
Q
Which two anti-HTN drugs can cause Parkinsonisms?
A
reserpine and methyldopa
6
Q
Which anti-epileptic can cause Parkinsons?
A
valporate
7
Q
Which anti-emetic can cause Parkinsons?
A
chlorpromazine
8
Q
Which three symptoms are needed to Dx parkinsons?
A
bradykinesia
muscular rigidity
postural instability
9
Q
Does Parkinsons have cerebellar signs?
A
no
10
Q
Does exercise decrease the risk of Parkinsons?
A
yes
11
Q
Which two anti-cholinergics for Parkinsons?
A
trihexyphenidyl
benztropine
12
Q
What is the other MAO-B other than selegiline?
A
Rasagiline
13
Q
Which two structures are targeted during Deep Brain Stimulation?
A
globus pallidus
Subthalamic nucleus
14
Q
What is the age range for MS?
A
18-55
15
Q
What virus is now implicated in MS?
A
EBV
16
Q
What chromosome is MS linked to?
A
six
17
Q
Is MS worse in males or females?
A
males
18
Q
Which has a worse prognosis for MS, young or older age of Dx?
A
older
19
Q
Is MS worse in blacks or whites?
A
blacks
20
Q
Which ion for MS imaging?
A
gadolinium
21
Q
What immune cell mediates Neuromyelitis Optica?
A
Bcell
22
Q
What population gets infected with ADEM?
A
kids
23
Q
Is ADEM febrile or afebrile?
A
febrile
24
Q
Does ADEM effect gray, white or both?
A
both
25
Which MS drug helped with timed gait test?
fampridine
26
Which vitamin for MS?
D
27
What gene is implicated in ALS?
superoxide dismutase
28
What drug may delay the progression of ALS? MOA?
Riluzole
glutamate antagonist
29
What two types of neuropathy is EMG good at distinguishing?
axonal vs. demyelinating
30
Does MG effect the upper or lower extremities more often?
upper
31
Which muscle groups in the upper extremities are effected by MG?
deltoid and wrist extensors
32
Is there strong or poor correlation between antibody levels and MG symptoms?
poor
33
Is the CK normal or abnormal in steroid myopathy?
normal
34
Is the EMG normal or abnormal in steroid myopathy?
normal
35
What does partial mean regarding a seizure?
starts in one hemisphere
36
What does simple mean regarding a seizure?
remain consciousness
37
What type of tumor is GBM?
astrocytoma
38
What stage of tumor is GBM automatically?
four
39
What is the mnemonic for mets to the brain?
Lubgom
40
What does Lubgom?
Lung>Breast>GI>osteosarcoma>melanoma
41
What are Fangs three symptoms of increased ICP?
headache vomiting and papilledema
42
What is the 'pattern' on histology for a meningioma?
'whorling'
43
Meningioma arises from what cells?
arachnoid
44
What does a hemangioblastoma stain for?
fat
45
What are the two buzz words for oligodendroglioma histology?
'chicken-wire'
fried egg
46
Homer-Wright rosettes are in what brain tumor?
medullablastoma
47
Perivascular pseudorosettes are indicative of what brain tumor?
Ependyoma
48
Does an ependyoma have a good or poor prognosis?
poor
49
Is orthostatic hypotension a sign or early or late autonomic dysfunction?
late
50
Cardiovagal heart rate breathing responds to what three things?
deep breathing
valsalvsa
standing
51
How much of a drop of SBP during orthostatic hypotension?
20
52
How much of a drop of DBP during orthostatic hypotension?
10
53
Recheck orthostatic hypotension at what intervals?
supine to standing
immediate
one and three minutes
54
Which two alpha-two blockers for orthostatic hypotension?
clonidine
yohimbine
55
What are the four symptoms of Shy-Drager?
orthostatic hypotension
impotence
bladder/bowel
reduced sweating
56
What is a symptom of idiopathic parkinsonism?
constipation
57
Which cancer causes enteric neuropathy?
small cell
58
How much does the heart rate have to change for POTS?
30 beats
59
How does vitamin D deficiency manifest?
weakness
60
What is the main symptom of hypokalemia?
weakness
61
Are reflexes reduced in hyper or hypomagnesia?
hyper
62
Hypomagnesia resembles what other electrolyte disturbance?
hypocalcemia
63
Triphasic wave on EEG can correlate to what disease?
Liver
64
CNS infection with renal problems?
Listeria
65
What drug does Hashimoto Encephalitis respond to?
steroids
66
What vasculitis is unique to the CNS?
Primary CNS Angiitis
67
Do cells die in TIA?
no
68
What is moyamoya?
gradual occlusion of internal carotid
69
According to Jacoby, what are the three deep penetrators?
lenticulostriate
thalamoperforators
paramedian pontine
70
Nimodipine for how many days?
21
71
What is the leading cause of death in SAH?
re-bleeding
72
The risk of rebleeding during SAH is greatest during what time frame?
within 24 hours
73
Does one increase or decrease BP during a SAH when trying to avoid vasospasm?
increase
74
What electrolytce disturbance can be seen following SAH? Called?
Hyponatremia
cerebral salt wasting
75
What is the number one risk factor for stroke?
age
76
Are anti-platelets used for the prevention of primary or secondary stroke?
secondary
77
Other than age, what is the most important risk factor for stroke?
HTN
78
What procedure may prevent a stroke?
Carotid endarterectomy
79
What condition is the core of a stroke in?
dead
80
What structure is at risk during a stroke?
penumbra
81
CT with or without contrast for stroke?
without
82
What is the blood pressure for the use of tPA?
185/110
83
Dot treat BP during a stroke until what pressure?
220/120
84
Administer tPA during what timeframe for a stroke?
4.5 hrs
85
Is the tremor of Parkinsons more often unilateral or bilateral? Progresses to?
unilateral
bilateral
86
According to friedgood, what is the most disabling feature of Parkinsons?
bradykinesia
87
What part of the brain are lewy bodies found during alzheimers?
zona compacta
88
Which metal can cause Parkinsons?
Manganese
89
Does L-DOPA cause hypo or hypertension?
hypo
90
Do EBV titers increase or decrease during an MS attack?
increase
91
What is the exact HLA haplotype of MS?
DR2
92
What allows CD4 cells to enter the CNS during MS?
defective BBB
93
Which white matter structure of the CNS is specific for MS?
corpus callosum
94
What is the most helpful evoked potential for MS?
VER (visually evoked potentials)
95
Are PANS fibers in the optic nerve peripheral or central?
peripheral
96
Does MG get better or worse with use?
worse
97
84% of people with a thymoma have an antibody targeting what?
anti-striated muscle
98
Do seizures start in the cortex or subcortex?
cortex
99
According to Friedgood, what type of tube for seizure?
nasal
100
What type of diet did Friedgood say may help a seizure?
ketogenic
101
What adrenergic receptor does midodrine activate?
alpha
102
Are hemangioblastomas malignant or benign?
benign
103
What type of brain tumor can involve the corpus callosum?
Oligodendroglioma
104
Regarding brain tumors, what is another name for a Perinuclear Halo?
chicken wire
105
What structure can be transected to treat seizures?
corpus callosum
106
Is MS axonal and demyelination?
yes
107
Neuromyelitis Optica has auto antibodies against what antigen?
aquaporin
108
Bulbar symptoms mean what part of the CNS is affected?
brainstem
109
What is dysesthesia?
unpleasant sensation
110
Adelman says what molecule can become depleted during diabetic neuropathy? Leading to decreased activity of what pump?
Myoinositol
Na/K ATPase
111
In women, does MG occur more often in the young or old?
young women
112
In men, does MG occur more often in the young or old?
old men
113
Adelman says dermatomyositis may have an auto-antibody against which type of cell?
endothelial
114
Is inclusion body myositis acute or chronic?
chronic
115
Does inclusion body myositis respond to immunosuppressive agents?
no
116
Which type of muscle fiber atrophies during steroid myopathy?
type two
117
According to Jacoby, how much should the HR go up during orthostatic hypotension?
20 bpm
118
Is LOC a typical symptom of stroke?
no
119
What is the best imaging modality for blood in the brain?
CT
120
All post stroke patients get what drug?
statin
121
What did Friedgood say is the initial complaint in Parkinsons?
tremor
122
Is the Parkinsons tremor a resting or movement tremor?
resting
123
According to Friedgood, does Parkinsons manifest with postural hyper or hypotension?
hypo
124
What is the most common clinical course of MS?
relapsing-remitting
125
When would BAER be helpful when diagnosing MS?
if the brainstem was involved
126
When would SSEP be helpful when diagnosing MS?
spinal cord lesion
127
What two structures are involved with neuromyelitis optica?
optic nerve and spinal cord
128
What is the main side effect of fampridine?
seizure
129
According to Friedgood, Where is a patient turned during a seizure?
on their side
130
According to Friedgood, what is the only type of seizure that requires meds to abort?
Status epilepticus
131
Is amyotrophic an UMN or LMN problem?
LMN
132
Is lateral sclerosis an UMN or LMN problem?
UMN
133
Is Type One HSMN demyelinating or axonal?
demyelinating
134
Is Type Two HSMN demyelinating or axonal?
axonal
135
Which brain tumor can present with 'foamy' cells?
hemangioma
136
What is another name for HTN encephalopathy?
Posterior Reversible Encephalopathy Syndrome
137
What structure of the CNS does Neurosarcoidosis affect?
cranial neuropathies
138
Is endarterectomy advised for less than 50%?
no
139
Greatest benefit for endarterectomy is for stenosis of greater than what percent?
> 70%
140
Avoid hyperthermia or hypothermia during stroke?
hyper
