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Flashcards in Test Two Deck (140):
1

Does Parkinsons cause autonomic dysfunction?

yes

2

Is dementia an early or late feature of Parkinsons?

late

3

What specific structure is destroyed during Parkinsons?

substantia nigra zona compacta

4

Which two proteins are contained within Lewy Bodies?

alpha-synuclein

Ubiquitin

5

Which two anti-HTN drugs can cause Parkinsonisms?

reserpine and methyldopa

6

Which anti-epileptic can cause Parkinsons?

valporate

7

Which anti-emetic can cause Parkinsons?

chlorpromazine

8

Which three symptoms are needed to Dx parkinsons?

bradykinesia

muscular rigidity

postural instability

9

Does Parkinsons have cerebellar signs?

no

10

Does exercise decrease the risk of Parkinsons?

yes

11

Which two anti-cholinergics for Parkinsons?

trihexyphenidyl

benztropine

12

What is the other MAO-B other than selegiline?

Rasagiline

13

Which two structures are targeted during Deep Brain Stimulation?

globus pallidus

Subthalamic nucleus

14

What is the age range for MS?

18-55

15

What virus is now implicated in MS?

EBV

16

What chromosome is MS linked to?

six

17

Is MS worse in males or females?

males

18

Which has a worse prognosis for MS, young or older age of Dx?

older

19

Is MS worse in blacks or whites?

blacks

20

Which ion for MS imaging?

gadolinium

21

What immune cell mediates Neuromyelitis Optica?

Bcell

22

What population gets infected with ADEM?

kids

23

Is ADEM febrile or afebrile?

febrile

24

Does ADEM effect gray, white or both?

both

25

Which MS drug helped with timed gait test?

fampridine

26

Which vitamin for MS?

D

27

What gene is implicated in ALS?

superoxide dismutase

28

What drug may delay the progression of ALS? MOA?

Riluzole

glutamate antagonist

29

What two types of neuropathy is EMG good at distinguishing?

axonal vs. demyelinating

30

Does MG effect the upper or lower extremities more often?

upper

31

Which muscle groups in the upper extremities are effected by MG?

deltoid and wrist extensors

32

Is there strong or poor correlation between antibody levels and MG symptoms?

poor

33

Is the CK normal or abnormal in steroid myopathy?

normal

34

Is the EMG normal or abnormal in steroid myopathy?

normal

35

What does partial mean regarding a seizure?

starts in one hemisphere

36

What does simple mean regarding a seizure?

remain consciousness

37

What type of tumor is GBM?

astrocytoma

38

What stage of tumor is GBM automatically?

four

39

What is the mnemonic for mets to the brain?

Lubgom

40

What does Lubgom?

Lung>Breast>GI>osteosarcoma>melanoma

41

What are Fangs three symptoms of increased ICP?

headache vomiting and papilledema

42

What is the 'pattern' on histology for a meningioma?

'whorling'

43

Meningioma arises from what cells?

arachnoid

44

What does a hemangioblastoma stain for?

fat

45

What are the two buzz words for oligodendroglioma histology?

'chicken-wire'

fried egg

46

Homer-Wright rosettes are in what brain tumor?

medullablastoma

47

Perivascular pseudorosettes are indicative of what brain tumor?

Ependyoma

48

Does an ependyoma have a good or poor prognosis?

poor

49

Is orthostatic hypotension a sign or early or late autonomic dysfunction?

late

50

Cardiovagal heart rate breathing responds to what three things?

deep breathing

valsalvsa

standing

51

How much of a drop of SBP during orthostatic hypotension?

20

52

How much of a drop of DBP during orthostatic hypotension?

10

53

Recheck orthostatic hypotension at what intervals?

supine to standing

immediate

one and three minutes

54

Which two alpha-two blockers for orthostatic hypotension?

clonidine

yohimbine

55

What are the four symptoms of Shy-Drager?

orthostatic hypotension

impotence

bladder/bowel

reduced sweating

56

What is a symptom of idiopathic parkinsonism?

constipation

57

Which cancer causes enteric neuropathy?

small cell

58

How much does the heart rate have to change for POTS?

30 beats

59

How does vitamin D deficiency manifest?

weakness

60

What is the main symptom of hypokalemia?

weakness

61

Are reflexes reduced in hyper or hypomagnesia?

hyper

62

Hypomagnesia resembles what other electrolyte disturbance?

hypocalcemia

63

Triphasic wave on EEG can correlate to what disease?

Liver

64

CNS infection with renal problems?

Listeria

65

What drug does Hashimoto Encephalitis respond to?

steroids

66

What vasculitis is unique to the CNS?

Primary CNS Angiitis

67

Do cells die in TIA?

no

68

What is moyamoya?

gradual occlusion of internal carotid

69

According to Jacoby, what are the three deep penetrators?

lenticulostriate

thalamoperforators

paramedian pontine

70

Nimodipine for how many days?

21

71

What is the leading cause of death in SAH?

re-bleeding

72

The risk of rebleeding during SAH is greatest during what time frame?

within 24 hours

73

Does one increase or decrease BP during a SAH when trying to avoid vasospasm?

increase

74

What electrolytce disturbance can be seen following SAH? Called?

Hyponatremia

cerebral salt wasting

75

What is the number one risk factor for stroke?

age

76

Are anti-platelets used for the prevention of primary or secondary stroke?

secondary

77

Other than age, what is the most important risk factor for stroke?

HTN

78

What procedure may prevent a stroke?

Carotid endarterectomy

79

What condition is the core of a stroke in?

dead

80

What structure is at risk during a stroke?

penumbra

81

CT with or without contrast for stroke?

without

82

What is the blood pressure for the use of tPA?

185/110

83

Dot treat BP during a stroke until what pressure?

220/120

84

Administer tPA during what timeframe for a stroke?

4.5 hrs

85

Is the tremor of Parkinsons more often unilateral or bilateral? Progresses to?

unilateral

bilateral

86

According to friedgood, what is the most disabling feature of Parkinsons?

bradykinesia

87

What part of the brain are lewy bodies found during alzheimers?

zona compacta

88

Which metal can cause Parkinsons?

Manganese

89

Does L-DOPA cause hypo or hypertension?

hypo

90

Do EBV titers increase or decrease during an MS attack?

increase

91

What is the exact HLA haplotype of MS?

DR2

92

What allows CD4 cells to enter the CNS during MS?

defective BBB

93

Which white matter structure of the CNS is specific for MS?

corpus callosum

94

What is the most helpful evoked potential for MS?

VER (visually evoked potentials)

95

Are PANS fibers in the optic nerve peripheral or central?

peripheral

96

Does MG get better or worse with use?

worse

97

84% of people with a thymoma have an antibody targeting what?

anti-striated muscle

98

Do seizures start in the cortex or subcortex?

cortex

99

According to Friedgood, what type of tube for seizure?

nasal

100

What type of diet did Friedgood say may help a seizure?

ketogenic

101

What adrenergic receptor does midodrine activate?

alpha

102

Are hemangioblastomas malignant or benign?

benign

103

What type of brain tumor can involve the corpus callosum?

Oligodendroglioma

104

Regarding brain tumors, what is another name for a Perinuclear Halo?

chicken wire

105

What structure can be transected to treat seizures?

corpus callosum

106

Is MS axonal and demyelination?

yes

107

Neuromyelitis Optica has auto antibodies against what antigen?

aquaporin

108

Bulbar symptoms mean what part of the CNS is affected?

brainstem

109

What is dysesthesia?

unpleasant sensation

110

Adelman says what molecule can become depleted during diabetic neuropathy? Leading to decreased activity of what pump?

Myoinositol

Na/K ATPase

111

In women, does MG occur more often in the young or old?

young women

112

In men, does MG occur more often in the young or old?

old men

113

Adelman says dermatomyositis may have an auto-antibody against which type of cell?

endothelial

114

Is inclusion body myositis acute or chronic?

chronic

115

Does inclusion body myositis respond to immunosuppressive agents?

no

116

Which type of muscle fiber atrophies during steroid myopathy?

type two

117

According to Jacoby, how much should the HR go up during orthostatic hypotension?

20 bpm

118

Is LOC a typical symptom of stroke?

no

119

What is the best imaging modality for blood in the brain?

CT

120

All post stroke patients get what drug?

statin

121

What did Friedgood say is the initial complaint in Parkinsons?

tremor

122

Is the Parkinsons tremor a resting or movement tremor?

resting

123

According to Friedgood, does Parkinsons manifest with postural hyper or hypotension?

hypo

124

What is the most common clinical course of MS?

relapsing-remitting

125

When would BAER be helpful when diagnosing MS?

if the brainstem was involved

126

When would SSEP be helpful when diagnosing MS?

spinal cord lesion

127

What two structures are involved with neuromyelitis optica?

optic nerve and spinal cord

128

What is the main side effect of fampridine?

seizure

129

According to Friedgood, Where is a patient turned during a seizure?

on their side

130

According to Friedgood, what is the only type of seizure that requires meds to abort?

Status epilepticus

131

Is amyotrophic an UMN or LMN problem?

LMN

132

Is lateral sclerosis an UMN or LMN problem?

UMN

133

Is Type One HSMN demyelinating or axonal?

demyelinating

134

Is Type Two HSMN demyelinating or axonal?

axonal

135

Which brain tumor can present with 'foamy' cells?

hemangioma

136

What is another name for HTN encephalopathy?

Posterior Reversible Encephalopathy Syndrome

137

What structure of the CNS does Neurosarcoidosis affect?

cranial neuropathies

138

Is endarterectomy advised for less than 50%?

no

139

Greatest benefit for endarterectomy is for stenosis of greater than what percent?

> 70%

140

Avoid hyperthermia or hypothermia during stroke?

hyper