tests Flashcards

(43 cards)

1
Q

causes of false positive syphilis (non-treponemal) test

A

detects antibodies to cardiolipin-cholesterol-lecithin SO Autoimmune diseases such as SLE, rheumatoid arthritis, and antiphospholipid syndrome (APS).
Endocarditis
Infections, pregnancy, IV drug use, tuberculosis, chronic liver disease, recent vaccines.

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2
Q

maximum level of progesterone is found at what stage of pregnancy

A

term

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3
Q

body ache, malaise. only abnormal blood test is raised ALP (and not pregnant). What is the diagnosis?

A

Vitamin D deficiency

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4
Q

What is the name of the thermostable DNA polymerase extracted from the thermophilic bacteria Thermus aquaticus, widely used in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) technique for amplifying specific DNA sequences?

A

taq polymerase

(from ‘Thermus AQuaticus’)

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5
Q

daily sperm production

A

300 million

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6
Q

how to calculate number needed to treat

A

1 / absolute risk ratio
(ARR = %control event ratio - %experimental event ratio)

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7
Q

how do you calculate the interquartile range?

A

third quartile minus first quartile
Q3 - Q1

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8
Q

what is variance?

A

The variance is a figure that represents how far the data in your sample is clustered around the mean
It is calculated from sum of squares / (n-1)

(sum of squares = sum ((each value - mean)^2))

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9
Q

how to calculate standard deviation from variance

A

sd = square root of the variance

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10
Q

T4:T3 ratio secreted from the healthy human thyroid gland is…

A

approximately 15:1

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11
Q

elevated LDH in which ovarian cancer

A

ovarian dysgerminoma

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12
Q

how to detect syphilis from chancre

A

dark field microscopy or direct fluorescent antibody

because they haven’t seroconverted yet so the blood tests may be negative

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13
Q

are VDRL and RPR treponemal or non-treponemal

A

non-treponemal
thus non-specific (can get false +)
but are very sensitive
and titres go down with treatment

the treponemal tests tend to have T in them.
The exceptions are CIA (treponemal)
and TRUST (non-treponemal)

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14
Q

which tests for syphilis are positive for life once infected? Treponemal or non-treponemal

A

Treponemal positive for life

non-treponemal go up and down. Titres can be used to see if adequate treatment (4-fold decrease in titre)

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15
Q

when might you get a false NEGATIVE non-treponemal test for syphilis?

A

latent syphilis
very early syphilis

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16
Q

what should you do if you get a positive screening test (treponemal EIA/CLIA or RPR) for syphilis

A

confirmatory second test with either TPHA/TPLA or a second EIA/CLIA

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17
Q

positive treponemal test
negative non-treponemal test

A

previously treated syphilis
or latent syphilis
or false positive (so should repeat treponemal test)

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18
Q

negative treponemal test
positive non-treponemal test

A

false positive non-treponemal e.g. Lupus, RA, antiphospholipid syndrome, endocarditis
(false negative treponemal test less likely but still repeat it)

19
Q

if there is disparity between treponemal and non-treponemal test, which one should you repeat?

A

treponemal as is more specific

20
Q

maximum PUQE score

A

15
(13 or more is ‘severe’)

21
Q

Does Hbe antibody +ve mean they are high or low activity and infectivity

A

low infectivity

22
Q

normal pO2 on ABG

23
Q

normal pCO2 on ABG

24
Q

normal bicarb on ABG

25
type 1 respiratory failure numbers
paO2 <8 with normocapnia as are able to blow off the CO2 - so causes are a ventilation-perfusion mismatch e.g. PE, pneumonia, pulmonary oedema
26
type 2 respiratory failure numbers
paO2 <8 paCO2 >6 (unable to blow off the necessary CO2, e.g. due to obstructive or restrictive disease or reduced drive e.g. from sedatives)
27
which is higher risk? HPV 16 or 18?
16
28
Which of the following laboratory techniques is used to amplify very small amounts of DNA?
Polymerase chain reaction
29
in which situations do you do an indirect Coombs test
The indirect Coombs test is used in prenatal testing of pregnant women and in testing prior to a blood transfusion. The test detects antibodies against foreign red blood cells
30
in which situations do you do a direct Coombs test
test for autoimmune hemolytic anemia
31
name alpha-haemolytic strep what colour do they turn blood agar
alpha-haemolytic strep do partial haemolysis they therefore turn blood agar GREEN the are known as the 'viridans' streptococci, including S. PNEUMONIAE, mitis, sanguinis, anginosus
32
32
What colour do beta-haemolytic strep turn blood agar
clear (fully haemolyse the blood)
33
diagnose: endometrium characterized by the presence of complex papillary patterns with cellular budding. Looks 'fleshy' and 'papillary'
Papillary serous endometrial adenocarcinoma high grade, aggressive adenocarcinoma. Atypical mitoses, necrosis, and psammoma bodies may be present.
34
T-score vs Z-score in DEXA what are the significant numbers for each
T-score is comparison to a young adult population, (used for postmenopausal women) T > -1.0 is normal, and <-2.5 is osteoporosis Z-score is matched for age (used for children, pre-menopausal, and men <50) Z > -2.0 is normal, and less than -2 is below expected Both are matched for sex and ethnicity
35
A 13-year old girl presents with menorrhagia and is found to have von Willebrand's disease. Which of the following coagulation parameters would be expected to be abnormal? A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) B. Factor VIII activity C. Prothrombin time D. Thrombin time E. Thrombocytopaenia
A. APTT although it can be normal, if vwf is not very deficient however, bleeding time is increased autosomal DOMINANT VWD will have: prolonged bleeding time prolonged APTT (maybe) normal platelet count (unless type 2B) and normal PT
36
cord gas - UA - normal pH
UA pH is 7.10 (-7.38) so <7.1 is acidotic baby https://www.mkuh.nhs.uk/wp-content/uploads/2018/10/4257-Cord-Blood-Analysis-Guideline.pdf#:~:text=Cord%20blood%20analysis%20should%20be%20assessed%20by%20collecting,double%20clamped%20to%20isolate%20it%20from%20the%20placenta.
37
cord gas - UV - normal pH
UV pH is 7.20 (-7.44)
38
cord gases: UA 7.11, UV 7.16 what do you think?
take another sample - these are probably from the same vessel
39
describe phase 1 of drug trials
Phase 1: SAFETY Testing in healthy volunteers to assess safety and determine side effects.
40
describe phase 2 of drug trials
Phase 2: EFFICACY &DOSAGE Testing in a small number of patients to gather initial data on efficacy.
41
describe phase 3 of drug trials
Phase 3: COMPARISON WITH GOLD STANDARD Large-scale testing in patients to confirm efficacy and monitor side effects.
42
describe phase 4 of drug trials
Phase 4: POST-MARKETING SURVEILLANCE after the drug is approved and available to the public.