Tests Flashcards
0
Q
How are the fuel tanks normally vented?
A
The tanks are vented by vent lines in the collector tanks
1
Q
Where is the aircraft fuel stored?
A
In the 2 main tanks and 1 center tank
2
Q
How are the fuel system faults annunciated?
A
Switch lights on the overhead fuel panel
On EICAS in the form of messages
3
Q
What is used to provide the fuel system computer with fuel quantity
Information:
A
6 fuel quantity probes with compensator units in each main tanks
3 probes in the center tank
4
Q
What type of ejector pumps are used to move fuel from the main tanks to the collector tanks?
A
Scavenger ejectors
5
Q
What maintains fuel symmetry between the main tanks?
A
Automatically controlled by the Bi-Directional X flow pump
6
Q
How are the collector tanks kept full?
A
Gravity feed lines and scavenge ejectors
7
Q
What is used to back up the main ejectors?
A
2 electric boost pumps
8
Q
The electric fuel boost pumps….
A
Are energized during engine start
Can feed fuel to either engine from one collector tank
Back to the main ejector pumps
9
Q
From what source is APU fuel feed supplied?
A
From the left collector tank via APU fuel pump
10
Q
Where is the bulk temperature taken?
A
Right main tank
11
Q
How is pressure refueling and suction defueling accomplished and how is it controlled?
A
Accomplished through the single point refuel/defuel adapter. Controlled from the refuel/defuel control panel
12
Q
If a fuel asymmetry condition exists between the two tanks, what visual caution message is presented in EICAS?
A
FUEL IMBALANCE
13
Q
What fuel system information is displayed on the EICAS Primary page?
A
Individual tank quantities, total fuel quantity, fuel used quantity
14
Q
For automatic pressure refueling, what does the refuel/defuel control panel permit?
A
Preselection of fuel quantity desired
Built in test (BITE) feature
Refuel/defuel shut-off valves to close automatically if the maximum fuel level is reached
15
Q
The engine driven and APU generators are rated at?
A
40 KVA
16
Q
The main aircraft generators supply power to ______ AC buses?
A
4
17
Q
Power for the 28 VDC is supplied by:
A
TRU’s
18
Q
The APU battery is:
A
24 volts rated at 43 amp/hours
19
Q
The main battery is:
A
24 volts 17 amp/hrs
20
Q
TRU’s supply power to ______ DC buses:
A
4
21
Q
Cranking power for starting the APU is provided by:
A
APU battery
22
Q
The ADG supplies AC power to:
A
3B hydraulic pump
ESS AC bus
Slats/flaps and pitch trim
STAB CH2
23
Q
The main and APU batteries are kept in charged condition by battery chargers powered by:
A
AC BUS No. 1
AC Service Bus
24
The external AC power receptacle is located:
Forward right side of the aircraft
25
Electrical systems warning and caution messages are normally displayed on:
EICAS primary page
26
Electrical system status and advisory messages are normally displayed on:
EICAS status page
27
The IDG provides a means of converting:
Variable engine speed to constant generator speed
28
The IDGs may be disconnected from the gearbox by:
Disconnect switches located in the cockpit
29
Once disconnected, the IDG:
Can only be manually re-connected on the ground with engine shutdown by MTX
30
The IDGs convert variable engine speed to:
12,000 RPM
31
Fault protection for each engine is incorporated in each:
GCU
32
The priority for allowing power to AC Bus 1 would be:
IDG1
APU
IDG2
External AC
33
IDG2 normally powers:
AC Bus 2
| Service Bus
34
The ADG can only supply power to:
```
3B hydraulic
AC essential
ADG Bus
EICAS
Slat, flaps, and pitch trim
STAB CH 2
```
35
115 VAC is supplied to TRUs for DC static conversion, and each TRU is rated at:
120 amps
36
Which DC Bus tie(s) has(have) automatic operation?
MAIN TIE
CROSS TIE
ESS TIE
37
In flight, the ADG Auto deploy monitors the three main AC generators and the main AC Buses for:
Complete AC power failure
38
An amber IDG fault light/caution light indicates:
Low IDG oil pressure and/or high IDG oil temperature
39
An AUTO XFER fail light ( amber) on the Electrical panel indicates:
Generator over current or a bus fault
40
An AC ESS XFER light (white) on the Electrical panel indicates?
AC ESS Bus is not being powered by AC Bus 1
41
What are the generators rated at?
40 KVA up to FL410
42
Warning messages will always appear as a _______ message on the CAS:
Red
43
When warning messages are displayed, they will be accomplished by:
Flashing master warning, aural alert, and voice advisory if applicable
44
Caution messages will always appear as a _________ message on the CAS?
Amber
45
Caution messages will appear immediately:
Below warning messages
46
When caution messages are displayed, they will be accomplished by:
A flashing master caution light
47
Warning and caution messages will normally appear on the:
EICAS primary page
48
Advisory messages will always appear as a _________ message on the CAS:
Green
49
Advisory messages are always displayed:
At the top of the stack on the status page
50
Status messages will always appear as a ________ message on the CAS:
White
51
There are _______ types of aural warnings provided to alert the crew:
10
52
When the master warning lights are illuminated, pushing either switch will:
Cause both master warning lights to extinguish and reset for future
Warnings
53
Data Concentrator Units (DCU) are located in the Avionics bay and are used to:
Process and transmit aircraft sensor data to the FDR And EICAS lamp driver unit
54
What is the function of the EICAS?
Provide crew with visual and aural crew alert messages and real time interpretation of aircraft system
55
How many levels of CAS importance are there?
4
56
What components within EICAS collects and processes data from various aircraft systems?
DCU 1 and DCU 2
57
Where is the EICAS control panel located?
Center pedestal
58
Status and advisory messages displayed on the EICAS primary page?
False
59
Wingspan of the CRJ700?
76' 3"
60
The exhaust danger area for the CRJ900 engines at idle thrust is?
100 feet
61
The overall length of the CRJ900 aircraft is?
118'11"
62
The CRJ900 maximum ramp weight is?
82,750 lbs
63
On the CRJ900, the distance from the top of the vertical stabilizer to the ground is approx?
24' 1"
64
The danger area in front of both the CRJ700/900 with the radar operating is?
2 feet
65
The CRJ700 has a maximum steering angle of 80 degrees, the aircraft will require ________ feet to complete an 180 degree turn:
118' 0"
66
The CRJ900 maximum takeoff weight?
82,500 lbs
67
The maximum load capacity of the passenger door is?
1000 lbs
68
The maximum number of people permitted on the stairway is?
4
69
Which of the following is NOT a "plug type" door?
Passenger door
70
A red warning message on EICAS would indicate that:
The passenger door is not locked properly
71
In the event of passenger evacuation on the CRJ900, there are ______ emergency exits available:
6
72
The correct eye reference position for pilot or copilot seat adjustment is indicated when:
The white ball appears in center of orange ball
73
The APU is equipped with a:
40 kVA generator
74
The APU supplies pneumatic power for:
Main engine starts and air conditioning
75
The APU ECU controls the APU during:
All phases of operation
76
The APU control system ensures priority is given to:
Electrical loads
77
Pressurized fuel is supplied to the APU by the:
APU fuel pump
78
What is the purpose of the internal bypass valve?
Allows the APU to continue to run if APU pump fails
79
APU RPM is displayed on the:
EICAS Status page
80
APU bleed air is controlled by modulating:
APU LCV
81
APU bleed pressure readout can be monitored on:
EICAS "ECS" synoptic page
82
APU "AVAIL" will illuminate at:
99% RPM and 2 seconds later
83
The APU gauges (RPM and EGT) appear on EICAS when:
APU POWER/FUEL switch/light is pressed in
84
"APU OVERSPEED" warning message is displayed when RPM exceeds:
106%
85
Where is the APU located?
Tail cone
86
APU intake door is located:
Upper right hand side (aft) aircraft
87
APU secondary functions:
Supplies bleed air for air conditioning
| Supplies air for main and engine starting
88
If APU door position is unknown, airspeed is restricted to:
220 KIAS and APU is not operating
89
The APU door position is displayed on the:
EICAS Status page
90
The CF34-8C5, with APR, has a thrust rating of:
14,750 lbs
91
What engine model is equipped on the CRJ900 series of aircraft?
CF34-8C5
92
Pneumatic bleed air is used for:
Air conditioning
93
The engines may be started using the APU, ground air source or engine cross bleed:
True
94
When does the APR system arm?
When the engine speed is within 8% N1 scheduled takeoff power
95
During an engine start, the starters cuts out at:
50% N2
96
Refilling of the oil system is provided by a replenishment tank:
Located in the aft equipment bay
97
Engine oil is cooled by:
Fuel/oil heat exchanger
98
80% of engine thrust is generated by?
Bypass air
99
When will OEO thrust be activated?
N1 mismatch 15% RPM
100
The left engine is the master engine for:
N1 and N2 Sync
101
The primary thrust setting reference is:
N1
102
With Wing anti-ice on, the N2 RPM Indicators will:
Turn White from 0 to 77% RPM
103
The left engine START switch light, when pressed in:
Opens the left bleed air Start Valve and the isolation valve
104
Prior to takeoff, normal rated takeoff N1 thrust is displayed...
Automatically by FADEC
105
The thrust lever quadrant is equipped with detente located at what positions?
CLIMB
TOGA
MAX PWR
106
Which hydraulic system is used during normal landing gear extension and retraction?
#3 hydraulic system
107
With the aircraft on the ground, what is incorporated within the landing gear control lever to prevent an up selection?
A solenoid lock
108
During the landing gear retraction sequence, why is hydraulic pressure from the nose landing gear up line routed to activate the brake control valves?
To stop main wheel rotation
109
What means is provided to mute the landing gear horn?
Horn mute switch/light on the landing gear control panel
110
Where are the landing gear position and status displayed?
EICAS Primary page (ED1)
111
The alternate landing gear extension method should be used in case of a failure in the landing gears control system or:
#3 hydraulic system
112
Pulling the landing gear manual release handle will permit the MLG to extend and lock into position:
Using gravity and down lock assist actuator force from the no. 2 HYD system
113
What powers the wheel brakes?
No. 2 HYD system powers the O/B brakes and the No. 3 HYD system powers the O/B brakes
114
In the event of a failure of No. 2 and No. 3 hydraulic power, what emergency braking is available?
Brake accumulators in both hydraulic systems provide reserve pressure for 6 brake applications with anti-skid selected OFF
115
Where is brake pressure displayed?
On EICAS Hydraulic synoptic page
116
When the parking brake is applied hydraulic pressure is trapped within which brake system?
Only the I/B brakes
117
The BTMS.....
Monitors the temperature of each brake and the information is displayed on EICAS
118
Provided the anti-skid is armed, when does it become operational?
Once a 35 knot wheel spin-up signal is present or a WOW signal after a 5 second delay
119
When using the steering tiller, nose wheel steering is available through how many degrees?
80
120
The strike indicator located in the FWD end of the tail bumper assembly is there for.....
Visual indication of a tail strike
121
Landing Gear position indicators are located on the.....
ED1
122
MLG doors are.....
Mechanically operated
123
Pump 3B is automatically running when the ADG is deployed (T/F)
True
124
With the switch in the AUTO position, Pump 3B will be operating during normal take offs and landings (T/F)
True
125
What is normal hydraulic system pressure?
3000 PSI
126
What ACMP is directly powered by the ADG?
#3B
127
What is the normal percentage of hydraulic fluid in the system?
45%-85%
128
AC-motor pumps 1B and 2B will automatically turn on during an engine failure (T/F)...
False
129
Where would you normally be able to read hydraulic brake pressure?
On the hydraulic synoptic page
130
Where can the hydraulic systems be viewed on EICAS under normal operating conditions?
The EICAS hydraulic synoptic page
131
What activates the hydraulic shut off valve at the engine firewall?
ENGINE FIRE PUSH switch light
| HYD SOV switch lights on overhead pane
132
When the hydraulic pump switch 1 and 2 are set to AUTO, when will the pumps automatically start?
Flaps are in the 0 degree position
| Any generator on line
133
Which hydraulic pumps are engine driven?
1A and 2A
134
How are hydraulic systems #1 and #2 cooled?
Ram air/oil heat exchanger
135
Systems 1 and 2 are each powered by and EDP and an AC PUMP (T/F).....
True
136
System #3 is powered by ________ AC -motor pumps:
2
137
With normal switch positions, which electric hydraulic pump normally operates continuously?
3A
138
How many hydraulic systems are normally used to power the rudder?
3 systems
139
The CRJ has __________ hydraulic pumps?
6 - 2 engine-driven and 4 electric
140
At cruise, normally which hydraulic pumps are operating?
1A, 2A, and 3A
141
You are taxiing out single engine (right engine running), which hydraulic
Pumps are running in normal operations (flaps up)?
2A and 3A
142
With the No. 1 engine shutdown in flight, which hydraulic pumps are not available?
1A
143
The A pumps are engine-driven, and the "B" pumps are electric AC motor-driven (T/F)?
False
144
What is considered low hydraulic pressure?
< 1800 PSI
145
What is considered high hydraulic pressure?
> 3200 PSI
146
When does hydraulic pressure relief occur?
> 3750 PSI and excessive fluid is vented to an overflow bottle
147
What aides the crew in directional control during a jammed rudder conditions?
Rudder system anti-jam/breakout mechanisms
148
The purpose of aileron flutter dampers is:
Prevent control surface flutter when hydraulic power is lost to the PCUs
149
What are the takeoff flap settings?
8 and 20 degrees
150
The elevators, rudder and ailerons are:
Manually controlled and hydraulically actuated
151
What is the purpose of the aileron bungee breakout switch?
Provides automatic on-side MFS control to operable circuit during aileron PCU runaway
152
What/Who has the highest priority when trimming the horizontal stabilizer trim?
Captain
153
HORT STAB trim limits?
+2 degrees to -13 degrees
154
A SPOILERONS ROLL caution message, accomplished by amber ROLL SEL lights on the glare shield indicates?
Roll disconnect handle has been pulled, but spoileron priority has not been established
155
What are the selectable flap positions?
0-1-8-20-30-45
156
What message appears on EICAS if one flap motor fails?
Flaps half speed
157
During landing or rejected takeoff, how does multifunction spoilers deploy logic differ from ground spoilers deploy logistic?
Multifunction spoilers deployment requires R and L MLG WOW
158
In the event of total AC electrical power failure, the flight controls will remain operational because ACMP 3B is powered by the ADG bus (T/F)?
True
159
Each elevator is hydraulically powered by ___________ PCUs
3
160
Bleed air is used for?
Engine cowl anti-icing and wing anti-icing
161
The left and right Pitot/Static probes are?
Electrically heated
162
When the WSHLD switch is set to LOW:
The side windows are in low
163
Ice detection probes are:
Electrically de-iced
164
Ice detector switch/light illuminates amber it indicate aircraft entry into icing with:
Wing and cowl anti-ice off
165
The windshield wipers operate:
Together, at the last speed selected by either pilot
166
At what point does the Air Data Sensor Heater Control energize all probes and sensor heater regardless of probe or generator switch position?
WOW
167
The windshield wipers will operate at the most recently selected speed (T/F)?
True
168
Ice and Rain protection systems displayed Caution/Warning, Advisory/Status Messages on:
EICAS Primary and/or Status page
169
What does the DET TEST SWITCHLIGHT test when pressed?
Ice detectors and air data probes and sensor heaters
170
The right hand pack normally supplies the :
Passenger cabin
171
RAM AIR ventilation is used only when:
When the aircraft is unpressurized
172
Cabin air outflow is controlled automatic by:
The active CPC maintains aircraft pressurization
173
The pressurization system automatically pre-pressurizes the aircraft to:
- 150 feet
174
Maximum negative pressure differential pressure is:
- 0.5 PSI
175
If the cabin altitude reaches 14,000 feet the:
CPAM will trigger the oxygen system auto deploy to the passengers
176
On the ground, with Display Control Panel in Normal, what cools the cockpit displays?
GND fan
177
When the PRESS CONT switch/light is pressed in:
It selects manual mode
178
The manual cabin altitude regulator, when selected UP:
Causes the outflow valve to open and increase cabin altitude
179
When in Manual (MAN) the pressurization read outs are displayed on:
EICAS Primary page
180
The two safety valves located on the aft pressure bulkhead:
Provide over/under pressure relief
181
During ground operations the ground valve:
Is controlled from the Avionics Fan Switch
182
What is the normal source for engine supply bleed air to the manifold?
6th or 10th stage
183
The aircraft has ______ independent built-in oxygen systems
2
184
The flight compartment oxygen bottle has a _______ capacity:
50 cu ft
185
The flight compartment oxygen bottle is normally charged to:
1850 PSI
186
Over pressure relief for the flight compartment oxygen system will occur at:
2800 PSI
187
The "OXY LO PRESS" caution will be displayed on EICAS when the pressure is below:
1410 PSI
188
The Normal/100% Lever on the Pilots Mask Stowage Container should be set to:
100%
189
The indications of oxygen flow from the flight compartment mask can be confirmed by:
Yellow cross appears on the blinker
190
The oxygen mask regulator will supply 100% continuous flow above a:
30,000 ft cabin altitude
191
The PBE hood provides oxygen for approximately:
15 minutes
192
Passenger oxygen masks will automatically deploy if the cabin altitude exceeds:
14,000 feet
193
A crash axe is located:
Behind the co-pilots seat
194
On the CRJ900, the four emergency exit windows over the wing open:
Inward from the top with adjacent life lines
195
The CRJ900 emergency lighting system is provided by five rechargeable battery packs that will supply power for approximately:
10 minutes
196
The emergency lights can be:
Armed or turned on from the flight compartment
| Turned on from the flight attendant panel
197
Flight crew members life vests are:
Stowed beneath each crew members seat
198
Fire detection and extinguishing is provided in the:
Left and right core sections and APU compartment
199
When the heat sensing elements are subjected to heat, the:
Resistance decreases
200
The fire detection system for the engines use:
A dual loop sensing element mounted in parallel
201
The cargo compartment has:
3 smoke detectors in FWD
| 2 smoke detectors in AFT
202
The engine firex bottles are located in the:
Aft equipment bay
203
An APU fire on the ground will cause:
Shutdown the APU, automatically discharge the firex bottle and display an EICAS message
204
The lavatory firex bottle is discharge by:
Heat sensitive capsule automatically
205
When a fire warning is detected, the MASTER WARNING light flashes, a fire bell sounds, an EICAS message appears, and the appropriate
Engine fire push light illuminates red. Pushing the ENG FIRE push light "IN" will:
Arm the dedicated squibs to the affected engine
Close the fuel, hydraulic and bleed air shut off valves
Shutdown engine driven generator
206
Engine fire messages are displayed:
EICAS primary page
207
The fire bell can be silenced by pushing "IN" on the:
Master warning switch light
208
ENG BOTTLE LO messages are displayed on:
EICAS status page
209
What two subsystems comprise the Fire and Overhead Protection System?
Fire Overheat Detection System and Fire Extinguisher System
210
What unit controls the Fire Protection, Smoke Detection, and Fire Extinguishing system?
FIDEEX Unit
211
The FWD/AFT Cargo Bays have both Smoke Detection and Fire Extin guishing equipment (T/F):
True
212
Engine and APU Fire/Overheat Detection is accomplished by _______
Loop(s) in the engine area and APU compartments:
Dual
213
A Fire Warning is generated when one or more fire loops sense an overheat condition (T/F):
False
214
A Squib fires to release Halon into the lavatory waste bin (T/F):
False
215
Fire Overheat/detection loops consist of two wires inside a metal sheath separated by _________:
An insulating material (thermistor)
216
The __________ can discriminate between a real and false fire indication:
FIDEEX Control Unit
217
What happens when the LH or RH ENG FIRE PUSH SWITCHLIGHT is pressed?
Bottle squibs are armed
| Hydraulic SOV closes
218
The APU bottle will automatically discharge in flight if an APU fire is detected (T/F):
False
219
When the respective CARGO FIREX BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCHARGE switch is pressed:
One bottle will discharge completely, and the other discharges slowly over an extended period of time
220
The audio control panels are located on the center pedestal (T/F):
True
221
The MASK/BOOM switch is located on the audio control panel (T/F):
True
222
The ELT is located in the tail section of the aircraft (T/F):
True
223
How is tuning the ADF receivers achieved?
Through the RTUs
224
How many ADF receivers does the CRJ have?
Two
225
The FMS Tune Inhibit switch:
Inhibits the FMS radio
226
Which radios can be tuned by the back-up tuning unit?
COM1, NAV1
227
When does the high/low chime sound in the flight deck?
When a call is initiated to the flight deck from the FA station
228
During use of the PA system, who has the highest priority?
Pilots
229
FA to flight deck calls are indicated by a steady CALL SWITCHLIGHT illuminated on the center pedestal (T/F):
False
230
Pressing the CALL SWITCHLIGHT in the flight deck will signal the FA with an illuminated SWITCHLIGHT on the handset and a:
High/low chime in cabin
231
Pressing the CHIME SWITCHLIGHT from the flight deck will:
Generate a high/low chime in the cabin
232
To squawk IDENT, push the IDENT button on either RTU (T/F):
True
233
COM2 can be tuned using:
Either RTU
| FMS radio page
234
Selecting various flight director modes is accomplished through the:
Flight Control Panel
235
The primary purpose of the altitude preselect mode is to:
Generate commands to capture and track the preselected altitude
236
Lamp lights on each side of a mode push button indicates:
That FCC1 and FCC2 have acknowledge that mode input
237
If a new flight director mode became active, the annunciation in the FMA will:
Flash green for 5 seconds then steady
238
When the transfer (XFR) switch on the flight control panel is selected:
The co-pilots flight director provide guidance to the autopilot
239
Pressing either TOGA switch on a thrust lever will:
Disconnect the autopilot
240
When the turbulence push button is engaged, the autopilot will:
Reduces autopilot gain
241
The flight director sync switch (on the control wheel):
Synchronize flight director references to those currently flown
242
The flight director command bars can be flown:
Manually
| By the autopilot
243
The color of an ARMED flight director mode in the flight mode annunciation is:
White
244
If you engage the ALT mode push button on the FCP, the FD will:
Generate commands to maintain pressure altitude existing at time of selection
245
To set the Heading Bug on the PFD and MFD, the Pilot must use the HDG Rotary Knob on the:
Flight Control Panel
246
At what pressure altitude will half bank be automatically activated?
31,600
247
Which is not a way to disconnect the autopilot?
Activating the aileron trim switches
248
In takeoff mode (TOGA) how much bank authority is given to the FD?
5 degrees
249
In the event that a PFD fails, PFD information can be displayed on the MFD by using the:
Reversionary Mode Switch
250
The TAT Probe supplies temperature information to the:
Air Data Computers
251
Pitot/Static inputs and TAT provide raw Air Data information which is converted to digital format through the:
Air Data Computers
252
What is the time required to align the AHRS in the MAG Mode?
30-70 seconds
253
What is the time required to align the AHRS in the DG Mode?
10-11 minutes
254
Radio altitude will be displayed on the PFD below:
2500 feet AGL
255
The Airspeed trend vector indicates the predicated airspeed in:
10 seconds
256
The MACH number will be displayed when the aircraft reaches:
.45 MACH
257
The Green Line on the Airspeed Tape indicates?
1.27 Vs
258
The Slop and Skid indicator on the PFD is:
A rectangle under the Roll Pointer
259
When a common Attitude/Heading source is selected, an annunciation will appear on the:
PFD and MFD
260
The Integrated Standby Indicator can display Localizer and Glide Slope information (T/F):
True
261
The ISI is located:
In the Center Instrument Panel
262
The Co-pilots PFD and MFD normally receives Air Data, Attitude, and Heading information from the:
ADC2 and AHRS2
263
Where is the radar control panel mounted?
Center pedestal
264
The EGDWS alerts and warns the flight crew when the airplane's flight path and positive relative to _______ requires immediate crew attention and action
The terrain
265
How are being pointers displayed?
Selected through the Display Control Panel
266
Weather radar returns, when selected, are displayed on the MFD's (T/F):
True
267
The ________ is an airborne system that interrogates ATC transponders in nearby airplanes to identify and display potential and predicted collision threats.
TCAS
268
TCAS monitors a radius of approximately ______ NM about the airplane:
40
269
Each of the MFDs has the primary function of showing:
Current heading
| Course information
270
Each PFD has the function of pictorially showing:
FD commands
Aircraft attitude
Flight control system mode annunciation a
271
When will the vertical deviation glide scale (Green Diamond) be displayed on the PFD and MFD?
When a valid ILS is tuned
272
With a (RED) Windshear warning you would expect:
Decrease in flight performance with escape guidance
273
If the TCAS system produces an Aural of "Traffic, Traffic"' what symbol would be associated with it?
An amber circle
274
Wind shear warning will stop when:
Wind shear conditions are no longer present
275
With an (Amber) Wind Shear Alert you would expect a(n):
Decrease in flight performance with escape guidance in GA mode
276
Which colors are used by the RADAR system, starting with the most precipitation levels to the least amount of precip
Magenta, Red, Yellow, Green, Black
277
Where are the RADAR returns displayed?
MFDs
278
The pilot can cancel a "SINK RATE" advisory by:
Pressing the GPWS switch
| Climbing the aircraft above the trip point
279
The TCAS will direct the flight crew to resolve a threat by:
Producing an aural command
| Producing a visual cue on the PFD
