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Flashcards in Tests Deck (280):
0

Where is the aircraft fuel stored?

In the 2 main tanks and 1 center tank

1

How are the fuel tanks normally vented?

The tanks are vented by vent lines in the collector tanks

2

How are the fuel system faults annunciated?

Switch lights on the overhead fuel panel
On EICAS in the form of messages

3

What is used to provide the fuel system computer with fuel quantity
Information:

6 fuel quantity probes with compensator units in each main tanks
3 probes in the center tank

4

What type of ejector pumps are used to move fuel from the main tanks to the collector tanks?

Scavenger ejectors

5

What maintains fuel symmetry between the main tanks?

Automatically controlled by the Bi-Directional X flow pump

6

How are the collector tanks kept full?

Gravity feed lines and scavenge ejectors

7

What is used to back up the main ejectors?

2 electric boost pumps

8

The electric fuel boost pumps....

Are energized during engine start
Can feed fuel to either engine from one collector tank
Back to the main ejector pumps

9

From what source is APU fuel feed supplied?

From the left collector tank via APU fuel pump

10

Where is the bulk temperature taken?

Right main tank

11

How is pressure refueling and suction defueling accomplished and how is it controlled?

Accomplished through the single point refuel/defuel adapter. Controlled from the refuel/defuel control panel

12

If a fuel asymmetry condition exists between the two tanks, what visual caution message is presented in EICAS?

FUEL IMBALANCE

13

What fuel system information is displayed on the EICAS Primary page?

Individual tank quantities, total fuel quantity, fuel used quantity

14

For automatic pressure refueling, what does the refuel/defuel control panel permit?

Preselection of fuel quantity desired
Built in test (BITE) feature
Refuel/defuel shut-off valves to close automatically if the maximum fuel level is reached

15

The engine driven and APU generators are rated at?

40 KVA

16

The main aircraft generators supply power to ______ AC buses?

4

17

Power for the 28 VDC is supplied by:

TRU's

18

The APU battery is:

24 volts rated at 43 amp/hours

19

The main battery is:

24 volts 17 amp/hrs

20

TRU's supply power to ______ DC buses:

4

21

Cranking power for starting the APU is provided by:

APU battery

22

The ADG supplies AC power to:

3B hydraulic pump
ESS AC bus
Slats/flaps and pitch trim
STAB CH2

23

The main and APU batteries are kept in charged condition by battery chargers powered by:

AC BUS No. 1
AC Service Bus

24

The external AC power receptacle is located:

Forward right side of the aircraft

25

Electrical systems warning and caution messages are normally displayed on:

EICAS primary page

26

Electrical system status and advisory messages are normally displayed on:

EICAS status page

27

The IDG provides a means of converting:

Variable engine speed to constant generator speed

28

The IDGs may be disconnected from the gearbox by:

Disconnect switches located in the cockpit

29

Once disconnected, the IDG:

Can only be manually re-connected on the ground with engine shutdown by MTX

30

The IDGs convert variable engine speed to:

12,000 RPM

31

Fault protection for each engine is incorporated in each:

GCU

32

The priority for allowing power to AC Bus 1 would be:

IDG1
APU
IDG2
External AC

33

IDG2 normally powers:

AC Bus 2
Service Bus

34

The ADG can only supply power to:

3B hydraulic
AC essential
ADG Bus
EICAS
Slat, flaps, and pitch trim
STAB CH 2

35

115 VAC is supplied to TRUs for DC static conversion, and each TRU is rated at:

120 amps

36

Which DC Bus tie(s) has(have) automatic operation?

MAIN TIE
CROSS TIE
ESS TIE

37

In flight, the ADG Auto deploy monitors the three main AC generators and the main AC Buses for:

Complete AC power failure

38

An amber IDG fault light/caution light indicates:

Low IDG oil pressure and/or high IDG oil temperature

39

An AUTO XFER fail light ( amber) on the Electrical panel indicates:

Generator over current or a bus fault

40

An AC ESS XFER light (white) on the Electrical panel indicates?

AC ESS Bus is not being powered by AC Bus 1

41

What are the generators rated at?

40 KVA up to FL410

42

Warning messages will always appear as a _______ message on the CAS:

Red

43

When warning messages are displayed, they will be accomplished by:

Flashing master warning, aural alert, and voice advisory if applicable

44

Caution messages will always appear as a _________ message on the CAS?

Amber

45

Caution messages will appear immediately:

Below warning messages

46

When caution messages are displayed, they will be accomplished by:

A flashing master caution light

47

Warning and caution messages will normally appear on the:

EICAS primary page

48

Advisory messages will always appear as a _________ message on the CAS:

Green

49

Advisory messages are always displayed:

At the top of the stack on the status page

50

Status messages will always appear as a ________ message on the CAS:

White

51

There are _______ types of aural warnings provided to alert the crew:

10

52

When the master warning lights are illuminated, pushing either switch will:

Cause both master warning lights to extinguish and reset for future
Warnings

53

Data Concentrator Units (DCU) are located in the Avionics bay and are used to:

Process and transmit aircraft sensor data to the FDR And EICAS lamp driver unit

54

What is the function of the EICAS?

Provide crew with visual and aural crew alert messages and real time interpretation of aircraft system

55

How many levels of CAS importance are there?

4

56

What components within EICAS collects and processes data from various aircraft systems?

DCU 1 and DCU 2

57

Where is the EICAS control panel located?

Center pedestal

58

Status and advisory messages displayed on the EICAS primary page?

False

59

Wingspan of the CRJ700?

76' 3"

60

The exhaust danger area for the CRJ900 engines at idle thrust is?

100 feet

61

The overall length of the CRJ900 aircraft is?

118'11"

62

The CRJ900 maximum ramp weight is?

82,750 lbs

63

On the CRJ900, the distance from the top of the vertical stabilizer to the ground is approx?

24' 1"

64

The danger area in front of both the CRJ700/900 with the radar operating is?

2 feet

65

The CRJ700 has a maximum steering angle of 80 degrees, the aircraft will require ________ feet to complete an 180 degree turn:

118' 0"

66

The CRJ900 maximum takeoff weight?

82,500 lbs

67

The maximum load capacity of the passenger door is?

1000 lbs

68

The maximum number of people permitted on the stairway is?

4

69

Which of the following is NOT a "plug type" door?

Passenger door

70

A red warning message on EICAS would indicate that:

The passenger door is not locked properly

71

In the event of passenger evacuation on the CRJ900, there are ______ emergency exits available:

6

72

The correct eye reference position for pilot or copilot seat adjustment is indicated when:

The white ball appears in center of orange ball

73

The APU is equipped with a:

40 kVA generator

74

The APU supplies pneumatic power for:

Main engine starts and air conditioning

75

The APU ECU controls the APU during:

All phases of operation

76

The APU control system ensures priority is given to:

Electrical loads

77

Pressurized fuel is supplied to the APU by the:

APU fuel pump

78

What is the purpose of the internal bypass valve?

Allows the APU to continue to run if APU pump fails

79

APU RPM is displayed on the:

EICAS Status page

80

APU bleed air is controlled by modulating:

APU LCV

81

APU bleed pressure readout can be monitored on:

EICAS "ECS" synoptic page

82

APU "AVAIL" will illuminate at:

99% RPM and 2 seconds later

83

The APU gauges (RPM and EGT) appear on EICAS when:

APU POWER/FUEL switch/light is pressed in

84

"APU OVERSPEED" warning message is displayed when RPM exceeds:

106%

85

Where is the APU located?

Tail cone

86

APU intake door is located:

Upper right hand side (aft) aircraft

87

APU secondary functions:

Supplies bleed air for air conditioning
Supplies air for main and engine starting

88

If APU door position is unknown, airspeed is restricted to:

220 KIAS and APU is not operating

89

The APU door position is displayed on the:

EICAS Status page

90

The CF34-8C5, with APR, has a thrust rating of:

14,750 lbs

91

What engine model is equipped on the CRJ900 series of aircraft?

CF34-8C5

92

Pneumatic bleed air is used for:

Air conditioning

93

The engines may be started using the APU, ground air source or engine cross bleed:

True

94

When does the APR system arm?

When the engine speed is within 8% N1 scheduled takeoff power

95

During an engine start, the starters cuts out at:

50% N2

96

Refilling of the oil system is provided by a replenishment tank:

Located in the aft equipment bay

97

Engine oil is cooled by:

Fuel/oil heat exchanger

98

80% of engine thrust is generated by?

Bypass air

99

When will OEO thrust be activated?

N1 mismatch 15% RPM

100

The left engine is the master engine for:

N1 and N2 Sync

101

The primary thrust setting reference is:

N1

102

With Wing anti-ice on, the N2 RPM Indicators will:

Turn White from 0 to 77% RPM

103

The left engine START switch light, when pressed in:

Opens the left bleed air Start Valve and the isolation valve

104

Prior to takeoff, normal rated takeoff N1 thrust is displayed...

Automatically by FADEC

105

The thrust lever quadrant is equipped with detente located at what positions?

CLIMB
TOGA
MAX PWR

106

Which hydraulic system is used during normal landing gear extension and retraction?

#3 hydraulic system

107

With the aircraft on the ground, what is incorporated within the landing gear control lever to prevent an up selection?

A solenoid lock

108

During the landing gear retraction sequence, why is hydraulic pressure from the nose landing gear up line routed to activate the brake control valves?

To stop main wheel rotation

109

What means is provided to mute the landing gear horn?

Horn mute switch/light on the landing gear control panel

110

Where are the landing gear position and status displayed?

EICAS Primary page (ED1)

111

The alternate landing gear extension method should be used in case of a failure in the landing gears control system or:

#3 hydraulic system

112

Pulling the landing gear manual release handle will permit the MLG to extend and lock into position:

Using gravity and down lock assist actuator force from the no. 2 HYD system

113

What powers the wheel brakes?

No. 2 HYD system powers the O/B brakes and the No. 3 HYD system powers the O/B brakes

114

In the event of a failure of No. 2 and No. 3 hydraulic power, what emergency braking is available?

Brake accumulators in both hydraulic systems provide reserve pressure for 6 brake applications with anti-skid selected OFF

115

Where is brake pressure displayed?

On EICAS Hydraulic synoptic page

116

When the parking brake is applied hydraulic pressure is trapped within which brake system?

Only the I/B brakes

117

The BTMS.....

Monitors the temperature of each brake and the information is displayed on EICAS

118

Provided the anti-skid is armed, when does it become operational?

Once a 35 knot wheel spin-up signal is present or a WOW signal after a 5 second delay

119

When using the steering tiller, nose wheel steering is available through how many degrees?

80

120

The strike indicator located in the FWD end of the tail bumper assembly is there for.....

Visual indication of a tail strike

121

Landing Gear position indicators are located on the.....

ED1

122

MLG doors are.....

Mechanically operated

123

Pump 3B is automatically running when the ADG is deployed (T/F)

True

124

With the switch in the AUTO position, Pump 3B will be operating during normal take offs and landings (T/F)

True

125

What is normal hydraulic system pressure?

3000 PSI

126

What ACMP is directly powered by the ADG?

#3B

127

What is the normal percentage of hydraulic fluid in the system?

45%-85%

128

AC-motor pumps 1B and 2B will automatically turn on during an engine failure (T/F)...

False

129

Where would you normally be able to read hydraulic brake pressure?

On the hydraulic synoptic page

130

Where can the hydraulic systems be viewed on EICAS under normal operating conditions?

The EICAS hydraulic synoptic page

131

What activates the hydraulic shut off valve at the engine firewall?

ENGINE FIRE PUSH switch light
HYD SOV switch lights on overhead pane

132

When the hydraulic pump switch 1 and 2 are set to AUTO, when will the pumps automatically start?

Flaps are in the 0 degree position
Any generator on line

133

Which hydraulic pumps are engine driven?

1A and 2A

134

How are hydraulic systems #1 and #2 cooled?

Ram air/oil heat exchanger

135

Systems 1 and 2 are each powered by and EDP and an AC PUMP (T/F).....

True

136

System #3 is powered by ________ AC -motor pumps:

2

137

With normal switch positions, which electric hydraulic pump normally operates continuously?

3A

138

How many hydraulic systems are normally used to power the rudder?

3 systems

139

The CRJ has __________ hydraulic pumps?

6 - 2 engine-driven and 4 electric

140

At cruise, normally which hydraulic pumps are operating?

1A, 2A, and 3A

141

You are taxiing out single engine (right engine running), which hydraulic
Pumps are running in normal operations (flaps up)?

2A and 3A

142

With the No. 1 engine shutdown in flight, which hydraulic pumps are not available?

1A

143

The A pumps are engine-driven, and the "B" pumps are electric AC motor-driven (T/F)?

False

144

What is considered low hydraulic pressure?

< 1800 PSI

145

What is considered high hydraulic pressure?

> 3200 PSI

146

When does hydraulic pressure relief occur?

> 3750 PSI and excessive fluid is vented to an overflow bottle

147

What aides the crew in directional control during a jammed rudder conditions?

Rudder system anti-jam/breakout mechanisms

148

The purpose of aileron flutter dampers is:

Prevent control surface flutter when hydraulic power is lost to the PCUs

149

What are the takeoff flap settings?

8 and 20 degrees

150

The elevators, rudder and ailerons are:

Manually controlled and hydraulically actuated

151

What is the purpose of the aileron bungee breakout switch?

Provides automatic on-side MFS control to operable circuit during aileron PCU runaway

152

What/Who has the highest priority when trimming the horizontal stabilizer trim?

Captain

153

HORT STAB trim limits?

+2 degrees to -13 degrees

154

A SPOILERONS ROLL caution message, accomplished by amber ROLL SEL lights on the glare shield indicates?

Roll disconnect handle has been pulled, but spoileron priority has not been established

155

What are the selectable flap positions?

0-1-8-20-30-45

156

What message appears on EICAS if one flap motor fails?

Flaps half speed

157

During landing or rejected takeoff, how does multifunction spoilers deploy logic differ from ground spoilers deploy logistic?

Multifunction spoilers deployment requires R and L MLG WOW

158

In the event of total AC electrical power failure, the flight controls will remain operational because ACMP 3B is powered by the ADG bus (T/F)?

True

159

Each elevator is hydraulically powered by ___________ PCUs

3

160

Bleed air is used for?

Engine cowl anti-icing and wing anti-icing

161

The left and right Pitot/Static probes are?

Electrically heated

162

When the WSHLD switch is set to LOW:

The side windows are in low

163

Ice detection probes are:

Electrically de-iced

164

Ice detector switch/light illuminates amber it indicate aircraft entry into icing with:

Wing and cowl anti-ice off

165

The windshield wipers operate:

Together, at the last speed selected by either pilot

166

At what point does the Air Data Sensor Heater Control energize all probes and sensor heater regardless of probe or generator switch position?

WOW

167

The windshield wipers will operate at the most recently selected speed (T/F)?

True

168

Ice and Rain protection systems displayed Caution/Warning, Advisory/Status Messages on:

EICAS Primary and/or Status page

169

What does the DET TEST SWITCHLIGHT test when pressed?

Ice detectors and air data probes and sensor heaters

170

The right hand pack normally supplies the :

Passenger cabin

171

RAM AIR ventilation is used only when:

When the aircraft is unpressurized

172

Cabin air outflow is controlled automatic by:

The active CPC maintains aircraft pressurization

173

The pressurization system automatically pre-pressurizes the aircraft to:

- 150 feet

174

Maximum negative pressure differential pressure is:

- 0.5 PSI

175

If the cabin altitude reaches 14,000 feet the:

CPAM will trigger the oxygen system auto deploy to the passengers

176

On the ground, with Display Control Panel in Normal, what cools the cockpit displays?

GND fan

177

When the PRESS CONT switch/light is pressed in:

It selects manual mode

178

The manual cabin altitude regulator, when selected UP:

Causes the outflow valve to open and increase cabin altitude

179

When in Manual (MAN) the pressurization read outs are displayed on:

EICAS Primary page

180

The two safety valves located on the aft pressure bulkhead:

Provide over/under pressure relief

181

During ground operations the ground valve:

Is controlled from the Avionics Fan Switch

182

What is the normal source for engine supply bleed air to the manifold?

6th or 10th stage

183

The aircraft has ______ independent built-in oxygen systems

2

184

The flight compartment oxygen bottle has a _______ capacity:

50 cu ft

185

The flight compartment oxygen bottle is normally charged to:

1850 PSI

186

Over pressure relief for the flight compartment oxygen system will occur at:

2800 PSI

187

The "OXY LO PRESS" caution will be displayed on EICAS when the pressure is below:

1410 PSI

188

The Normal/100% Lever on the Pilots Mask Stowage Container should be set to:

100%

189

The indications of oxygen flow from the flight compartment mask can be confirmed by:

Yellow cross appears on the blinker

190

The oxygen mask regulator will supply 100% continuous flow above a:

30,000 ft cabin altitude

191

The PBE hood provides oxygen for approximately:

15 minutes

192

Passenger oxygen masks will automatically deploy if the cabin altitude exceeds:

14,000 feet

193

A crash axe is located:

Behind the co-pilots seat

194

On the CRJ900, the four emergency exit windows over the wing open:

Inward from the top with adjacent life lines

195

The CRJ900 emergency lighting system is provided by five rechargeable battery packs that will supply power for approximately:

10 minutes

196

The emergency lights can be:

Armed or turned on from the flight compartment
Turned on from the flight attendant panel

197

Flight crew members life vests are:

Stowed beneath each crew members seat

198

Fire detection and extinguishing is provided in the:

Left and right core sections and APU compartment

199

When the heat sensing elements are subjected to heat, the:

Resistance decreases

200

The fire detection system for the engines use:

A dual loop sensing element mounted in parallel

201

The cargo compartment has:

3 smoke detectors in FWD
2 smoke detectors in AFT

202

The engine firex bottles are located in the:

Aft equipment bay

203

An APU fire on the ground will cause:

Shutdown the APU, automatically discharge the firex bottle and display an EICAS message

204

The lavatory firex bottle is discharge by:

Heat sensitive capsule automatically

205

When a fire warning is detected, the MASTER WARNING light flashes, a fire bell sounds, an EICAS message appears, and the appropriate
Engine fire push light illuminates red. Pushing the ENG FIRE push light "IN" will:

Arm the dedicated squibs to the affected engine
Close the fuel, hydraulic and bleed air shut off valves
Shutdown engine driven generator

206

Engine fire messages are displayed:

EICAS primary page

207

The fire bell can be silenced by pushing "IN" on the:

Master warning switch light

208

ENG BOTTLE LO messages are displayed on:

EICAS status page

209

What two subsystems comprise the Fire and Overhead Protection System?

Fire Overheat Detection System and Fire Extinguisher System

210

What unit controls the Fire Protection, Smoke Detection, and Fire Extinguishing system?

FIDEEX Unit

211

The FWD/AFT Cargo Bays have both Smoke Detection and Fire Extin guishing equipment (T/F):

True

212

Engine and APU Fire/Overheat Detection is accomplished by _______
Loop(s) in the engine area and APU compartments:

Dual

213

A Fire Warning is generated when one or more fire loops sense an overheat condition (T/F):

False

214

A Squib fires to release Halon into the lavatory waste bin (T/F):

False

215

Fire Overheat/detection loops consist of two wires inside a metal sheath separated by _________:

An insulating material (thermistor)

216

The __________ can discriminate between a real and false fire indication:

FIDEEX Control Unit

217

What happens when the LH or RH ENG FIRE PUSH SWITCHLIGHT is pressed?

Bottle squibs are armed
Hydraulic SOV closes

218

The APU bottle will automatically discharge in flight if an APU fire is detected (T/F):

False

219

When the respective CARGO FIREX BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCHARGE switch is pressed:

One bottle will discharge completely, and the other discharges slowly over an extended period of time

220

The audio control panels are located on the center pedestal (T/F):

True

221

The MASK/BOOM switch is located on the audio control panel (T/F):

True

222

The ELT is located in the tail section of the aircraft (T/F):

True

223

How is tuning the ADF receivers achieved?

Through the RTUs

224

How many ADF receivers does the CRJ have?

Two

225

The FMS Tune Inhibit switch:

Inhibits the FMS radio

226

Which radios can be tuned by the back-up tuning unit?

COM1, NAV1

227

When does the high/low chime sound in the flight deck?

When a call is initiated to the flight deck from the FA station

228

During use of the PA system, who has the highest priority?

Pilots

229

FA to flight deck calls are indicated by a steady CALL SWITCHLIGHT illuminated on the center pedestal (T/F):

False

230

Pressing the CALL SWITCHLIGHT in the flight deck will signal the FA with an illuminated SWITCHLIGHT on the handset and a:

High/low chime in cabin

231

Pressing the CHIME SWITCHLIGHT from the flight deck will:

Generate a high/low chime in the cabin

232

To squawk IDENT, push the IDENT button on either RTU (T/F):

True

233

COM2 can be tuned using:

Either RTU
FMS radio page

234

Selecting various flight director modes is accomplished through the:

Flight Control Panel

235

The primary purpose of the altitude preselect mode is to:

Generate commands to capture and track the preselected altitude

236

Lamp lights on each side of a mode push button indicates:

That FCC1 and FCC2 have acknowledge that mode input

237

If a new flight director mode became active, the annunciation in the FMA will:

Flash green for 5 seconds then steady

238

When the transfer (XFR) switch on the flight control panel is selected:

The co-pilots flight director provide guidance to the autopilot

239

Pressing either TOGA switch on a thrust lever will:

Disconnect the autopilot

240

When the turbulence push button is engaged, the autopilot will:

Reduces autopilot gain

241

The flight director sync switch (on the control wheel):

Synchronize flight director references to those currently flown

242

The flight director command bars can be flown:

Manually
By the autopilot

243

The color of an ARMED flight director mode in the flight mode annunciation is:

White

244

If you engage the ALT mode push button on the FCP, the FD will:

Generate commands to maintain pressure altitude existing at time of selection

245

To set the Heading Bug on the PFD and MFD, the Pilot must use the HDG Rotary Knob on the:

Flight Control Panel

246

At what pressure altitude will half bank be automatically activated?

31,600

247

Which is not a way to disconnect the autopilot?

Activating the aileron trim switches

248

In takeoff mode (TOGA) how much bank authority is given to the FD?

5 degrees

249

In the event that a PFD fails, PFD information can be displayed on the MFD by using the:

Reversionary Mode Switch

250

The TAT Probe supplies temperature information to the:

Air Data Computers

251

Pitot/Static inputs and TAT provide raw Air Data information which is converted to digital format through the:

Air Data Computers

252

What is the time required to align the AHRS in the MAG Mode?

30-70 seconds

253

What is the time required to align the AHRS in the DG Mode?

10-11 minutes

254

Radio altitude will be displayed on the PFD below:

2500 feet AGL

255

The Airspeed trend vector indicates the predicated airspeed in:

10 seconds

256

The MACH number will be displayed when the aircraft reaches:

.45 MACH

257

The Green Line on the Airspeed Tape indicates?

1.27 Vs

258

The Slop and Skid indicator on the PFD is:

A rectangle under the Roll Pointer

259

When a common Attitude/Heading source is selected, an annunciation will appear on the:

PFD and MFD

260

The Integrated Standby Indicator can display Localizer and Glide Slope information (T/F):

True

261

The ISI is located:

In the Center Instrument Panel

262

The Co-pilots PFD and MFD normally receives Air Data, Attitude, and Heading information from the:

ADC2 and AHRS2

263

Where is the radar control panel mounted?

Center pedestal

264

The EGDWS alerts and warns the flight crew when the airplane's flight path and positive relative to _______ requires immediate crew attention and action

The terrain

265

How are being pointers displayed?

Selected through the Display Control Panel

266

Weather radar returns, when selected, are displayed on the MFD's (T/F):

True

267

The ________ is an airborne system that interrogates ATC transponders in nearby airplanes to identify and display potential and predicted collision threats.

TCAS

268

TCAS monitors a radius of approximately ______ NM about the airplane:

40

269

Each of the MFDs has the primary function of showing:

Current heading
Course information

270

Each PFD has the function of pictorially showing:

FD commands
Aircraft attitude
Flight control system mode annunciation a

271

When will the vertical deviation glide scale (Green Diamond) be displayed on the PFD and MFD?

When a valid ILS is tuned

272

With a (RED) Windshear warning you would expect:

Decrease in flight performance with escape guidance

273

If the TCAS system produces an Aural of "Traffic, Traffic"' what symbol would be associated with it?

An amber circle

274

Wind shear warning will stop when:

Wind shear conditions are no longer present

275

With an (Amber) Wind Shear Alert you would expect a(n):

Decrease in flight performance with escape guidance in GA mode

276

Which colors are used by the RADAR system, starting with the most precipitation levels to the least amount of precip

Magenta, Red, Yellow, Green, Black

277

Where are the RADAR returns displayed?

MFDs

278

The pilot can cancel a "SINK RATE" advisory by:

Pressing the GPWS switch
Climbing the aircraft above the trip point

279

The TCAS will direct the flight crew to resolve a threat by:

Producing an aural command
Producing a visual cue on the PFD