The Biology Behind Behavior Flashcards
(338 cards)
1
Q
What are the fundamental building blocks of the nervous system?
A
Neurons and glial cells
2
Q
Define neurons
A
Specialised cells that receive, conduct, and transmit electrochemical signals allowing for two way communication between the body and brain
3
Q
What are dendrites?
A
Bushy fibers which receive information and conduct it towards the cell body
4
Q
What is an axon?
A
Conducts information away from the dendrites to the muscles or glands or the dendrites of other neurons
5
Q
What is a synapse?
A
The junction between adjacent neurons where chemical signals in the form of neurotransmitters, are transmitted across minuscule gaps
6
Q
Do you dendrites receive or transmit information?
A
Signal receivers
7
Q
Do you axons conduct or receive signals?
A
Conduct signals
8
Q
What do Schwann cells do?
A
Produce myelin
9
Q
What is myelin?
A
A lipid membrane surrounding the axon that helps increase signal transmission
10
Q
In the central nervous system what are groups of cell body is called?
A
Nuclei
11
Q
In the central nervous system why are groups of axons called?
A
Tracts
12
Q
In the peripheral nervous system what are groups of cell body is called?
A
Ganglia
13
Q
In the peripheral nervous system what are those of axons called?
A
Nerves
14
Q
What are the three different types of neurons in the nervous system?
A
(1) Sensory neurons (afferent neurons)
(2) Motor neurons (efferent neurons)
(3) interneurons
15
Q
What are sensory neurons?
A
Afferent nerve runs but send information from sensory receptors and body tissues towards the central nervous system for processing.
16
Q
Why are motor neurons?
A
Efferent neurons that send information away from the central nervous system to glands and muscles
17
Q
What are interneurons?
A
They send information between motor and sensory neurons, and are primarily located within the central nervous system
18
Q
What are glial cells?
A
Provide protection and support for neurons, maintain homoeostasis, and form myelin
19
Q
What is myelin? What cells form it?
A
A fatty insulation wrapping axons to increase the speed and efficiency of signal conduction. Formed by glial cells.
20
Q
How does multiple sclerosis develop?
A
When the myelin sheet is damaged, nerve signals slow down and stop if this degeneration persists, caused by inflammation of an autoimmune response the disease develops
21
Q
What are the symptoms of multiple sclerosis?
A
Loss of motor control, visual impairments, loss of coordination, slurred speech, and numbness and weakness in the limbs
22
Q
What are the four main types of glia?
A
Oligodendrocytes, Schwann cells, microglia, and Astrocytes
23
Q
What are Oligodendrocytes?
A
Wrap myelin extensions around the axons of neurons in the central nervous system
24
Q
What is the purpose of Schwann cells?
A
Wrap myelin to one segment of a single neuron in the peripheral nervous system
25
Can Schwann cells and Oligodendrocytes direct axonal regeneration after damage?
Only Schwann cells can direct axonal re-generation after damage. (Located in the PNS)
26
What is the function of microglia?
They react to damage or disease as a macrophage would, they multiply, trigger inflammatorily responses and engulf cellular debris
27
What are astrocytes?
Astrocytes vary greatly in function, (1) Some astrocytes cover blood vessels throughout the brain and are in contact with the cell bodies of neurons. These astrocytes help regulate the passage or prevention of certain chemicals between the blood and central nervous system neurons
(2) other types of astrocytes have been shown to modulate neuronal activity, control the blood brain barrier, and to establish and sustain effective synopsis
28
What does neuronal function and communication depend on?
Membrane potential of each cell
29
What is membrane potential?
The difference in electrical charge between the exterior and interior of the cell that allows information to be passed from one area of the body to another
30
What does the internal fluid of an axon at rest mostly contain?
Negatively charged ions
31
What does the external fluid of an axon at rest usually contain
Mostly positively charged ions
32
What is the measurement of an axon at rest called? What is this value?
Resting potential, -70 mV
33
Is the resting potential of an axon considered to be polarised or non-polarised
Polarised
34
When a neuron fires, the selective permeability of the axon surface changes either to decrease or increase the resting membrane potential. When A net gain occurs what does the membrane potential become?
Depolarised
35
When a neuron fires, the selective permeability of the axon surface changes either to decrease or increase the resting membrane potential. When A net loss of positively charged ions occurs what does the membrane potential become?
Hyperpolized
36
When post synaptic depolarisations occur, does this increase or decrease the neurons chance of firing? What is this called?
It increases the neurons chances of firing, this is called excitatory post synaptic potentials (EPSPs)
37
When post synaptic hyperolarization occur, does this increase or decrease the neurons chance of firing? What is this called?
Decrease the neurons chances of firing, inhibitory post synaptic potentials
38
What type of responses are EPSPs and IPSP? What does this term mean?
Graded responses, their answer to this are proportional to the intensity of the original signals that create them (strong signals generate large postsynaptic potentials, and weak signals generate small post synaptic potentials)
39
What must the neuron do since it receives hundreds of thousands of signals? In what two ways does it do this?
It must integrate the incoming EPSP and IPSP signals into one signal. This occurs both spatially and temporally.
40
What is spatial summation
Adds incoming EPSP or IPSP signals that are received simultaneously on different parts of the receptive membrane to account for many areas of input.
41
What is temporal summation?
Occurs when high-frequency post synaptic potential overlap with one another and Sammy to create a more intense signal
42
In temporal summation, where does summation occur?
The axon hillcock--The base of the cell body that connects to the axon
43
What is a threshold level? What is its value?
If the sum of excited Tori signals and inhibitory signals exceeds and minima intensity sufficient to depolarise the membrane past it's threshold level (usually about -55mV) this generates an action potential
44
Once an action potential is triggered what occurs?
Adjacent Axson all statements causing more and more action potential is to fire is triggering the next action potential
45
Are action potentials graded responses?
No, increasing depolarisation past it's threshold will not increase the intensity of the neural impulse
46
What type of responses are action potentials?
All or none responses; they occur either fully or not at all
Increasing the intensity of the stimulus or number of stimuli will not change the intensity of the response
47
What are chemical messengers called? when do they release?
Neurotransmitters; they are released into the synaptic left between neurons when an action potential reaches the axon terminal
48
Where are neurotransmitters located before release into the synaptic cleft?
Each neuron prepackages the appropriate neurotransmitter into vesicles the cluster near the pre-synaptic membrane is rich in voltage activated calcium channels
49
When do you voltage activated calcium channels open? What does this allow?
Voltage activated calcium channels open when stimulated by action potentials. This causes an influx of calcium ions into the axons terminal button, causing synaptic vesicles to fuse with the presynaptic membrane is followed by the subsequent release of neurotransmitters into the cleft period neurotransmitter molecules bind to post synaptic receptors and excite (generate EPSPs) or inhibit (generate IPSPs) the post synaptic neurons ability to fire. Then excess neurotransmitters are reabsorbed.
50
What is reuptake?
When the presynaptic neuron reabsorbs excess neurotransmitters
51
What are the two types of neurotransmitters?
Small molecule neurotransmitters and large molecule neurotransmitters
52
What are the four types of small molecule neurotransmitters
Acetylcholine, amino acids, monoamines, and unconventional neurotransmitters
53
What is the name of the large molecule neurotransmitters
Neuropeptides
54
What is the function of Acetylcholine?
Muscle stimulation, learning and memory
55
What are the behavioural and physical mail functions associated with ACh?
Motor control loss and dementia and all is Eimers disease characterised by the deterioration aCh producing an hour on this
56
What is the function of glutamate
It has a major role in mediating excitatory signals; involved in cognition, memory, and learning
57
What is associated with behavioural and physical now functions of glutamate?
Imbalance associate with memory loss in all timers disease; oversupply associated with Maranda and D crease in motor control in ALS patients
58
What is the function of GABA?
It plays a major role in mediating inhibitory signals; involved in motor control and vision
59
What behavioural and physical malfunctions are associated with GABA?
Deficiency associated with seizures, tremors, and anxiety
60
What is the function of norepinephrine?
Major role in controlling alertness and arousal; increases heart rate
61
What behavioural and physical now functions are associated with norepinephrine
Imbalance associated with mood disorders, manic depression
62
What is the function of dopamine?
Major role in award motivated behaviour; influences attention, emotion, and movement
63
What is associated with behavioural and physical malfunctions of dopamine?
Undersupply associated with tremors in muscle rigidity in Parkinson's disease; oversupply associated with schizophrenia and impulsive behaviour
64
What is the function of seratonin?
Major role in the regulation of mood, appetite, arousal, and sleep
65
What is associated with behavioural and physical now functions of serotonin?
Undersupply associated with depression, sleep problems, and compulsive behaviour
66
What is the function of nitrous oxide?
Involved in redox signalling; relaxes gastrointestinal smooth-muscle; vasodilator
67
What behavioural and physical malfunctions are associated with nitrous oxide?
Deficiency associated with depressed mood and impulsive behaviour
68
What is the function of endorphins?
Pain and stress inhibitors
69
What behavioural and physical malfunctions are associated with endorphins?
Undersupply associated with hyper sensitivity to pain and depression; oversupply associated with in sensitivity to pain and addictive behaviour
70
Where is acetylcholine present?
It is present at every junction between motor neurons and skeletal muscles
71
What does ACh uptake by muscle cells causes the muscles to do?
Contract
72
When ACh transmission is blocked what occurs?
Muscle contraction occurs resulting in paralysis
73
When ACh is released into the central nervous system what role does it play
Plays a role in learning and memory
74
What type of neurotransmitter is ACh?
Small molecule neurotransmitters
75
What type of neurotransmitter are amino acid's?
Small molecule neurotransmitter
76
What type of neurotransmitter are Monoamines?
Small molecule neurotransmitters
77
What type of neurotransmitter is unconventional neurotransmitters?
Small molecule neurotransmitters
78
What type of neurotransmitter are neuropeptides?
Large molecule neurotransmitters
79
Which neurotransmitter comprises the majority of fast acting neurotransmitters found in the nervous system?
Amino acid neurotransmitters
80
What are the four primary amino acid neurotransmitters?
Aspartate, glutamate, glycine, and gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA)
81
What is the major excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS?
Glutamate
82
What is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS?
GABA (modified derivative of glutamate)
83
What are the four monoamine neurotransmitters?
Dopamine, epinephrine, norepinephrine and serotonin
84
What are the four monoamine neurotransmitters synthesised from?
Single amino acids and is slightly larger than an amino acid neurotransmitter
85
What are the two types of monoamine neurotransmitters?
Catchecholamines and indolamines
86
What amino acid synthesises dopamine?
Tyrosine
87
What amino acid synthesises epinephrine ?
Tyrosine
88
What amino acid synthesises norepinephrine ?
Tyrosine
89
What group of monoamine neurotransmitters are synthesised by tyrosine? What neurotransmitters do these include?
Catchecholamines; dopamine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine
90
What are neurons called that release epinephrine?
Adrenergic
91
What are neurotransmitters called that release norepinephrine?
Noradrenergic
92
What neurotransmitters make up the monoamine neurotransmitter group indolamine? Which amino acid is this synthesised from?
Serotonin; tryptophan
93
What are the unconventional neurotransmitters? What are two examples of subclasses of these organisms?
The unconventional neurotransmitters act along different pathways and are a group of misfits; soluble gas neurotransmitters and endocannabinoids
94
What neurotransmitters does the subclass soluble gas neurotransmitters include?
Carbon monoxide and nitric oxide
95
What is the unique value of soluble gas neurotransmitters?
Due to their high lipid solubility, these neurotransmitters readily pass through cellular membranes and quickly stimulate a second messenger before being deactivated
96
Where are most neurotransmitters released in a cell?
Axon terminal
97
Where are endocannabinoids generally released from in a cell?
Dendrites of a cell; not the axon
98
What is the function of endocannabinoids?
Affect presynaptic neurons and inhibit or reduce synaptic transmission
99
What behavioural effects do endocannabinoids produce?
Role in long term memory interference, stress and anxiety suppression, regulation of motivation and pleasure associated with feeding behaviour
100
What are the five categories of large molecule neurotransmitters?
Pituitary peptides, hypothalamic peptides, brain gut peptides, opioid peptides, and miscellaneous peptides
101
How are neuropeptides used?
They are used for neuronal Communication just as they are used for hormonal communication
102
What is the difference between the release of neuropeptides and peptide hormones?
Neuropeptides are released from neuronal cells in signal to other neighbouring neurons; peptide hormones are released from neuroendocrine cells and travel through the blood various receptors in the body
103
Do neuropeptides have local or distant communication?
Local
104
Do peptide hormones have local or distant communication?
Distant
105
What are endorphins?
(Endogenous morphine) Neuropeptide transmitters released in response to pain and intense exercise, helps explain why eating spicy food and working out make someone feel good afterwards
106
What do endorphins mimic?
Morphine
107
What are agonists?
Molecules that are structurally similar enough to certain neurotransmitters to allow them to bind to the same receptors and elicit a similar response
108
What are antagonists?
Molecules that also bind to the same receptors but instead block the neurotransmitters function
109
What are the two divisions of the nervous system?
Peripheral nervous system and central nervous system
110
What is the central nervous system?
Consists of the brain and spinal cord and is responsible for making decisions
111
What is the peripheral nervous system?
Consists of sensory and motor near on that connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body and is responsible for reflexes, gathering information, transmitting this information to the CNS, and then transmitting CNS Decisions throughout the body
112
What are the two divisions of the peripheral nervous system?
Somatic nervous system
| Autonomic nervous system
113
What is the somatic nervous system?
It interacts with the external environment and enables us to control our skeletal muscles voluntarily
114
What is the autonomic nervous system?
It regulates our internal environment, such as our glands and smooth muscles, autonomously (on its own) and therefore is considered to be involuntary
115
What are the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system?
Sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems
116
What is the sympathetic nervous system?
It arouses the body under stressful conditions and uses energy resources to do so; releases epinephrine and norepinephrine to create a flight or fight response
117
Which division of the nervous system creates a fight or flight response?
Sympathetic nervous system
118
What is the parasympathetic nervous system?
It re-gains control when the stress or condition passes and acts to conserve energy and bring the body back to homoeostasis
119
Why are the two divisions of the central nervous system?
The brain and spinal cord
120
What covers the brain and spinal cord?
Three layers of connective-tissue called the meninges and Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
121
Why are the three layers of the meninges?
(Exterior) dura mater, arachnoid membrane, and pia mater (internal)
122
What is cerebrospinal fluid?
It is found in between the arachnoid membrane and the pia mater, it supports and cushions the brain and spinal cord to provide added protection against trauma and aid in the circulation of nutrients to the brain
123
What is the spinal cord?
It is a bundle of nerve fivers connected to the brain
124
What two types of matter are in the spinal cord? Which is the inner layer and which is the outer layer?
Grey matter (inner) and white matter (outer)
125
What is grey matter?
That in a portion of the spinal-cord composed of cell bodies and unmyelinated interneurons
126
What is white-matter?
The outer portion of the spinal-cord composed of myelinated axons
127
What is the function of the spinal cord?
The spinal-cord transmit sensory information from the body to the brain and transmits motor information from the brain to the body
128
Where are afferent nerve tracts found? What did they do?
There found on the backside of the spinal cord. They carry sensory information to the brain
129
What are efferent nerve tracts? Where are they found?
Efferents nerve tracts are found on the ventral side of the spinal-cord. They carry motor function information to the skeletal muscles via the somatic nervous system or smooth muscles by the autonomic nervous system
130
Which organs are involved with the somatic nervous system?
Skin and skeletal muscles
131
Which organs are involved with the autonomic nervous system?
Smooth muscles
132
Where do you afferent nerve tracts enter the spinal cord?
Dorsal horn
133
Where do you efferent nerve tracts enter the spinal cord?
Ventral horn
134
The vertebrate embryo contains a fluid filled neural tube with three distinct swelling is that eventually develop into?
Forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain
135
What does the forebrain differentiate into?
Telencephalon and diencephalon
136
What does the midbrain become?
Mesencephalon
137
What does the hindbrain differentiate into?
Metencephalon and mylencephalon
138
What is the oldest portion of the brain? What are its divisions?
Brainstem; diencephalon, mesencephalon, metencephalon, and myelencephalon
139
Which portion of the brain experiences the greatest growth during development? What are is left and right portions called?
Telencephalon; cerebral hemispheres
140
What is the order from top to bottom the distinct swellings the neural tube early in gestation?
Forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain, and spinal cord
141
What is the order of the brain sections from top to bottom later in gestation?
Telencephalon, diencephalon, mesencephalon, metencephalon, and myelencephalon
142
What is another name for the mylencephalon? Where is this structure located?
Medulla ; it lies at the posterior (bottom) part of the brain and connects the brain to the spinal cord
143
What is the reticular formation structure a part of?
The mylencephalon (medulla)
144
What is the reticular formation? What does it do?
It is a complex neural networkof nuclei extending from the myelencephalon the mesencephalon. The reticular formation please and important role in regulating sleep, movement, attention, alertness, and various autonomic functions including: heart rate, blood pressure, vomiting, coughing, and sneezing
145
What three portions of the brainstem house the reticular formation?
Myelencephalon, metencephalon, and mesencephalon
146
What are the two major structures of the metencephalon?
Pons and cerebellum
147
What is the pons?
A bulged section of the reticular formation that connects the medulla with the cerebral cortex
148
What is the function of the pons?
It serves as a communication and coronation centre between the body and the hemispheres of the brain
149
What is the function of the cerebellum?
It is a large convoluted structure that controls balance, or nation, equilibrium, and fine motor skills
150
What sections are the mesencephalon divided into?
Tectum and tegmentum
151
What structure is the tectum a part of ? What are its subdivisions?
Mesencephalon; inferior colliculi and superior colliculi
152
What is the function of the inferior colliculi? Where is it located?
It regulates auditory function; tectum/ mesencephalon
153
What is the function of the superior colliculi? Where is it located?
Regulates visual motor function; tectum/mesencephalon
154
What are the three major components of the tegmentum?
Periaqueductal gray, substantia nigra and red nucleus
155
Where is the periaqueductal gray located? What is its function?
Tegmentum/ mesencephalon; analgesic mediator of opiate drugs
156
What is the function of the substantia nigra and red nucleus? Where are these located?
Help to regulate visual motor function; tegmentum/mesencephalon
157
Loss of substantia nigra results in what disease?
Parkinson's disease
158
What is Parkinson disease? Loss of function of what causes it?
slow and progressive deterioration of muscle, movement, and balance control. Loss of the substantia nigra causes this
159
What are the divisions of the diencephalon?
Thalamus and hypothalamus
160
What is the function of the thalamus?
It receives sensory information pertaining to each of the senses except for smell. (Important to relay station to the cortex)
161
Where does the thalamus send information it receives from the cortex?
Cerebellum and medulla
162
Where is the hypothalamus located? What is its function?
Located below the thalamus in the diencephalon; functions to regulate various motivated behaviours including hunger, thirst, sleep, body temperature, and sexual behaviour
163
How does the hypothalamus regulate behaviour?
It influences specific warm on release from the pituitary gland
164
What is the largest division of the human brain?
Telencephalon
165
What is the function of the telencephalon?
It interprets sensory information, enables complex volunteer emotion, and allows one to think, learn, and speak
166
What covers the cerebral hemispheres of the telencephalon?
Cerebral cortex--it is highly convoluted increase its functional surface area and without increasing its volume
167
What are the four specialised regions of the cerebral cortex?
The motor cortex, the somatosensory cortex, auditory cortex, and the visual cortex
168
What are the deep grooves of the cerebral cortex called?
Fissures
169
What are the shallow grooves of the cerebral cortex called?
Sulci
170
What are the raised bridges between fissures and sulci?
Gyri
171
What is the longitudinal fissure?
The largest fissure that almost completely separates the cerebral hemispheres
172
What is the corpus callosum?
The largest cerebral commissure
173
What is a cerebral commissure?
A nerve tracts that joins two hemispheres
174
What connects the various lobes of the brain?
Cerebral commissure
175
Where is the frontal lobe located? What is its function?
It is located just behind the forehead; it is involved with the decision making, planning, emotions, behavioural control, and motor control
176
Where is the motor cortex located? What is its other name?
Located within the posterior portion of the frontal lobe; precentral gyrus
177
What is the function of the motor cortex?
It controls the planning and execution of voluntary movements.
178
Where is the parietal lobe located? What is its function?
Is located at the top and rear of the head; it in the great sensory information, processes tactile sensory information ( pressure, pain, touch) and helps as perceive the spatial location of objects and our own bodies
179
The integration of sensory information, processing of tactile and sensory information and perceive spatial location Is facilitated by what? What is another name for this?
Somatosensory cortex; postcentral gyrus
180
Where is the somatosensory cortex located?
The parietal lobe portion adjacent to the motor cortex
181
What separates the motor cortex from the somatosensory cortex?
The central sulcus
182
Where is the occipital lobe located? What is it main function?
It is located at the back of the head; it primarily deals with visual processing involving the visual cortex
183
Where is the visual cortex located within the occipital lobe? What divides this region?
It is located in the most posterior portion of the occipital lobe; divided by the calcarine fissure
184
Where is the temporal lobe located? What is its function?
Located below the frontal and parietal lobes; it is involved with auditory processing, language comprehension, speech, and memory
185
What is the sylvian fissure?
The fish are separating the temp oral lobe from the frontal and parietal lobes above
186
Where is the auditory cortex found?
It is located in the sylvian fissure
187
Where is the hippocampus located? What is its function?
Temporal lobe; plays a major role in the development and processing of memories
188
Where is the amygdala located? What is its function?
Temporal lobe; processes memories and has been linked to the emotional responses of fear and aggression
189
What is lateralisation of function?
The functional differences between the left and right hemispheres
190
What is the theory of cerebral dominance?
It states that one hemisphere plays a dominant role in controlling behavioural and cognitive functions, well the other plays a minor role
191
Are both hemispheres involved when one side is dominant?
Yes, both play a role but one has a slight fever towards the dominant hemisphere regarding the specific function
192
What is a aphasia?
A lack of ability to comprehend or produced language caused by brain damage
193
Where is Broca's area? What does damage to this area cause?
The inferior prefrontal cortex of the left cerebral hemisphere; damage to this area results in expressive aphasia were normal language comprehension still takes place yet the production of language becomes disruptive and impaired
194
What are other names for expressive aphasia? What is expressive aphasia?
Ataxic/motor aphasia; normal language comprehension still takes place, yet the production of language becomes disrupted and impaired
195
Where is Wernicke's area? What does damage to this area cause?
Located in the posterior temp oral lobe of the left cerebral hemisphere; produces deficits in language comprehension
196
What type of aphasia does damage to Wernicke's area cause? What other names does this have?
Receptive aphasia/sensory aphasia
197
What lies between Wernicke's and Broca's areas?
Sylvian fissure
198
What is the result of damage to the areas an example of?
Localisation and lateralisation of cortical functions
199
What does the lesion method of brain study allow?
Allows one to compare the subjects behaviour prelesion and postlesion to try to discover the functions of the targeted structure
200
What is the purpose of an electroencephalogram?
Measures the electrical activity emitted from the brains billions of no runs and produces an amplified read out
201
What are the neural oscillations of an EEG called?
Brain waves
202
What is a positron emission tomography PET scan?
And imaging tool that can track each brain areas energy consumption
203
How does PET scan work?
2-deoxyglucose is injected into the carotid archery for direct delivery to the cerebral hemispheres; it cannot be metabolised so it accumulates in active neuronal cells that the PET scan identifies
204
Why is computed tomography scan?
Scans that use computer processing to integrate a series of x-rays taken from different angles to create cross sectional images of the brain and other body structures
205
What is magnetic resonance imaging?
Brain scans measure the signals that relaxing hydrogen atoms in bed after being temporarily realigned by radio waves within a magnetic field. They create cross-sectional images of a higher resolution than CT scans
206
What is a functional MRI?
It produces images of active brain areas by tracking the flow oxygenated blood to these areas
207
What are hormones?
Chemical messengers of the endocrine system
208
Where do hormones travel through to reach their target tissues?
The bloodstream
209
How did the responses of hormones compare to neurotransmitters?
The effects of hormones are comparatively slow to initiate yet prolonged in response
210
What is the function of the hypothalamus?
Links the nervous system to the Endocrine system by way of regulating and controlling the pituitary gland
211
What is the function of the pineal gland?
Influences the bodies daily circadian rhythm
212
What is the function of the pituitary gland?
It secretes numerous peptide hormones and is often referred to as the master gland because of its significant influence over other organs and endocrine glands in the body
213
What is the function of the thyroid gland?
It influences the rate of cellular metabolism
214
What is the parathyroid gland?
The parathyroid or four small land is located on the backside of the thyroid. They play a major regulatory role in the release and uptake of calcium
215
What is the role of the adrenal glands?
They mediate the body stress response; help maintain blood volume and pressure; and influence metabolism
216
What is the function and location of the pancreas?
The pancreas is a large plant located behind the stomach that maintains healthy blood sugar levels
217
What is the endocrine function of the ovary?
To release sex for months to develop and maintain the health of the reproductive system
218
What is the endocrine function of the testis?
To produce testosterone to develop one physically, pretty sperm, and maintain healthy bone and muscle mass
219
What are the five main hormones of the hypothalamus?
(1) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone
(2) Gonadotropin releasing hormone
(3) growth hormone releasing hormone
(4) corticotropin releasing hormone
(5) somatostatin
220
What gland is thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH) released from? What is its function?
Hypothalamus; stimulates release of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) and prolactin from anterior pituitary
221
What gland is gonadotropin releasing hormone released from? What is its function?
Hypothalamus; Stimulates the release of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) from anterior pituitary
222
What gland growth hormone releasing hormone released from? What is its function?
Hypothalamus; Stimulates the release of growth hormone (GH) from anterior pituitary
223
What gland is corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) released from? What is its function?
Hypothalamus; stimulates release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from anterior pituitary
224
What gland is somatostatin released from? What is its function?
Hypothalamus; inhibits pituitary release of growth hormone (GH) and thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
225
Why are the six hormones released from the anterior pituitary gland?
1) Growth hormone (GH)
2) Prolactin
3) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
4) thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
5) luteinizing hormone (lh)
6) follicle stimulating hormone
226
What gland releases growth hormone? What is the function of this hormone?
Anterior pituitary gland; in childhood promotes growth; in adulthood maintains healthy bone and muscle mass
227
What gland releases prolactin?What is the function of this hormone?
Stimulates milk production in women
228
What gland releases adrenocorticotropic hormone ? What is the function of this hormone?
Anterior pituitary gland; stimulates release of corticosteroids from adrenal glands
229
What gland releases thyroid stimulating hormone? What is the function of this hormone?
Anterior pituitary gland; stimulates release of triiodothyronine h(T3) and thyroxine (T4) from the thyroid gland
230
What gland releases luteinizing hormone? What is the function of this hormone?
Anterior pituitary gland; acts on ovaries are females to regulate estrogen; acts on testes of males to regulate testosterone
231
What gland releases follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)? What is the function of this hormone?
Anterior pituitary gland; in females stimulates release of eggs; in males regulates normal sperm production
232
What are the two hormones released by the posterior pituitary gland?
1) oxytocin
| 2) anti diuretic hormones (ADH) (vasopressin)
233
What gland releases oxytocin? What is the function of this hormone?
Posterior pituitary gland; regulates female reproductive functions of childbirth and breastfeeding
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What gland releases antidiuretic hormone (ADH)/vasopressin? What is the function of this hormone?
Posterior pituitary gland; regulates bodys water balance
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What two hormones are released by the thyroid gland?
1) triiodothyronine (t3)
| 2) thyroxine (t4)
236
What gland releases triiodothyronine? What is the function of this hormone?
Thyroid gland; important regulator of metabolism
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What gland releases thyroxine? What is the function of this hormone?
Thyroid gland; important regulator of metabolism
238
What hormone is released by the parathyroids?
Parathyroid hormone (pth)
239
What gland releases parathyroid hormone ? What is the function of this hormone?
Parathyroid; regulates the body's calcium and phosphate levels to a very narrow range
240
What is the stress hormone of the body?
Cortisol
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What two hormones are released by the adrenal cortex?
1) cortisol
| 2) aldosterone
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What gland releases cortisol? What is the function of this hormone?
Adrenal cortex; increases blood glucose levels; suppresses immune system
243
What gland releases aldosterone? What is the function of this hormone?
Adrenal cortex; regulates the bodies balance of salt and water; helps regulate blood pressure
244
What two hormones are released by the adrenal medulla?
1) epinephrine
| 2) norepinephrine
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What gland releases epinephrine ? What is the function of this hormone?
Increases heart rate and blood flow to muscles and brain; increases blood glucose levels
246
What gland releases norepinephrine ? What is the function of this hormone?
Adrenal medulla; increases heart rate and alertness; acts as a vasoconstrictor
247
What to hormones are secreated by the pancreas?
1) insulin
| 2) glucagon
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What gland releases insulin? What is the function of this hormone?
Pancreas; decreases blood glucose levels
249
What gland releases glucagon ? What is the function of this hormone?
Pancreas; increases blood glucose levels
250
What two hormones are secreted by the ovaries?
1) estrogen
| 2) progesterone
251
What gland releases estrogen ? What is the function of this hormone?
Ovaries; develops secondary sexual characteristics; regulates reproductive function
252
What gland releases progesterone? What is the function of this hormone?
Ovaries; thickens endometrium for implantation
253
What gland releases testosterone? What is the function of this hormone?
Testes; develops male reproductive tissues; regulates secondary sexual characteristics
254
What hormone is secreted by the testes?
Testosterone
255
How doesn't animal adjust to its environment?
Behaviour
256
How can behaviour be biologically modified?
Coordinated internal and external responses of the Endocrine system to a given situation
257
What are genes?
Small segment of DNA molecule is that code for proteins and are passed from parents to offspring through inheritable factors
258
Where are genes located?
Chromosomes
259
How many sets of chromosomes do you diploid organisms have?
Two sets of chromosomes; one pair from the mother and one from the father
260
What are the two forms of an allele?
Dominant and recessive
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What is a dominant allele?
An allele that expresses (codes for a functional protein) regardless of the other allele
262
What is a recessive allele?
An allele that only expresses its tree when paired with another identical allele
263
What determines if genes are active or inactive?
Environmental circumstances
264
What is heredity?
The passing of treats from parents to offspring in the form of genes
265
What does heredity allow for?
Individuals to accumulate variations of traits over time and evolve
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What is fitness?
And organisms ability to survive and propagate its genes
267
What is natural selection?
When an individual's genes are selected for in the population in a pass to the next generation
268
When natural selection is repeated generations, what occurs?
Evolution
269
What is adaptive value?
A positive influence on an animals evolutionary fitness
270
What is nature versus nurture?
The debate whether behaviours were acquired genetically or through learning
271
What three factors influence and animals behaviour?
Its genetics, its experiences, and its current environment
272
What is the neurological disorder phenylketonuria (PKU)?
People with PKU lack the ability to phenylalanine hydroxylase into tyrosine to make dopamine. The high levels of PAH and low levels of dopamine lead to abnormal brain development. This can be avoided by following a PAH restricted diet to environmentally alter a hereditary condition
273
What is epigenetics?
The study of mechanisms of inheritance aside from the genetic code and changes to DNA sequences (epigenetic seeks to reveal way organisms with essentially identical DNA sequences possess such a large variation in trait expression)
274
What are two epigenetic mechanisms?
Chromatin remodelling and DNA methylation
275
What are histones?
Proteins are around which DNA winds
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What is chromatin remodelling?
Occurs when histones change confirmations either to expose or hide DNA segments. Chromatin interferes with the ability of transcriptional protein machinery to access regulatory proteins and effectively regulate gene expression
277
What is chromatin?
Condensed DNA
278
What is DNA methylation?
Occurs when a methyl group is covalently added to the 5-carbon of cytosine bases in vertebrates. DNA methylation effectively blocks transcriptional protein machinery from binding to the methylated site thus reducing gene expression
279
What to groups do scientists compare to assess the influences of heredity?
Monozygotic and dizygotic twins
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What are monozygotic twins?
Identical twins are developed from a single fertilised egg that splits into two resulting in two offspring the share exactly the same genes
281
What must differences in behaviour be attributed to in monozygotic twins?
Environmental factors
282
What are dizygotic twins?
Fraternal twins that develop from two separately fertilised eggs and are generally no more similar than any other pair of non-twin siblings
283
What percentage of their genes do you dizygotic twins and non-twin siblings share?
50%
284
What percent of their genes do monozygotic twins share?
100%
285
What factor do twin studies control for?
The environment, although the environment each twin faces is not identical, the difference with in a house is negligible compare to between houses
286
What are concordance rate? What type of study compares them?
The probability that both twins will possess the same tree given that one twin already possesses it; twin studies between monozygotic and dizygotic twins
287
How are concordance rates used?
If the concordance rate for a particular trait is found to be higher for monozygotic twins genetics are indicated playing important role in the expression of that trait
288
What are adoption studies? What do they control for?
Adoption studies control for hereditary factors and examine the variable of environment by studying monozygotic twins separated at birth via adoption
289
What can be used to quantify the heritability of a trait?
Twin and adoption studies
290
What is heritability ?
A measure of observed variations among populations not individuals
291
What are the successive stages of human development?
Prenatal, infancy, adolescence, and adulthood
292
What are the three stages of prenatal development?
The germinal stage, the embryonic stage and the fetal stage
293
What is the first part of the germinal stage?
Conception
294
What is the germinal stage?
It is characterised as the time period between fertilisation and implantation and last for approximately two weeks.
295
When does fertilisation occur?
It is when the sperm and ovum unite in one of the Fallopian tubes to create a fertilised egg or zygote.
296
Cell differentiation of the zygote is made possible because cells are totipotent. What does totipotent mean?
Cells have the ability to develop into any cell type
297
Once the zygote has divided and becomes 200-300 cells, what is it called?
Blastocyst
298
What are the two layers of the blastocyst?
Trophoblast and inner cell mass
299
What is the trophoblast?
The outer layer of the blastocyst that becomes the placenta
300
What is the inner cell mass?
The portion of the blastocyst that eventually forms the embryo and is further composed of three distinct germ layers they guide organisation and differentiation
301
What three layers are formed by the inner cell mass?
Ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm
302
Which embryonic layer is the ectoderm? What does this layer form?
Outermost layer; forms the epidermis, nervous system, and sensory organs
303
Which embryonic layer is the mesoderm? What does this layer form?
Middle layer;
| Bones, cartilage, circulatory system, dermis, excretory system, muscles, and reproductive system
304
Which embryonic layer is the endoderm? What does this layer form?
Inner layer;
| Endothelium, lining up day just abstract, line of respiratory system
305
What is implantation? What process occurs?
When the blastocyst attaches itself to the endometrial epithelium. The outer trophoblast will penetrate the decidualised uterine wall to establish a firm connection of the placenta to the mother well also modifying vasculature to maintain adequate blood supply
306
What role does the placenta serve?
The placenta serves an intermediary role between the developing fetus and mother by either supplying it with blood and nutrients or removing waste
307
When does the embryonic stage of development begin? what constitutes this stage?
During the third week following conception; blastocyst has attached to the year in lining and has begun to differentiate and is now an embryo and divides into the endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm
308
During what stage do the endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm form?
The embryonic stage
309
At 22 days, what is the first sign of the nervous system? What does this become?
Neural plate, folds into the neural groove, edges fuse to form the neural tube
310
What is the neural tube?
A structure formed during embryonic development that eventually becomes the brain and spinal cord
311
When specialised ectodermal sells break off from the neural tube as it is being formed, what do these cells create? What does this structure become?
Neural crest; do you cells differentiate into the majority of neuronal cells in the peripheral nervous system
312
What type of cells are neural crest cells and neural plate cells?
Embryonic stem cells
313
What are embryonic stem cells?
Pluripotent cells with a relatively unlimited capacity for self renewal under proper conditions
314
What is the final portion of the embryonic stage? Describe this portion of development
Organogenesis--when all of the major organs develop and the embryo now resembles a distinct 1 inch long human
315
When does the fetal stage begin and how long does it last?
The fetal stage begins when cell differentiation is almost complete, usually during the ninth week after conception, and lasts until birth
316
Because little differentiation is needed during the fetal stage what is the embryo now considered?
A fetus
317
What development characterises the fetal stage?
Tremendous growth, primarily due to bone and muscle formation
318
What is fetal viability?
The increased chance of babies survival as it approaches the 40th week following conception
319
What is habituation?
Decreased responsiveness with repeated stimulation
320
What are teratogens? What structure screens them out?
Any agent that can disrupt or hall the development of an embryo or fetus; The placenta screens them out from the mothers blood supply
321
What do teratogens lead to? What is an example?
Birth defects; fetal alcohol syndrome
322
What are four main reflexes babies are able to complete when born?
Moro reflex, sucking reflex, grasping reflex, babinski reflex
323
What is the Moro reflex?
And outstretching of limbs in response to a sudden loss of support
324
What is the sucking reflex?
Sucking that begins with an object touches the lips
325
What is the grasping reflex?
Firm grasping triggered when in object touches the palm
326
What is the Babinski reflex?
Flexing and fanning of toes in response to stroking the sole of the foot
327
In what direction do human infants develop?
Cephalocaudal direction--The head and upper body develop before the lower body and limbs
328
What are two types of motor skills?
Gross motor skills and fine motor skills
329
What are gross motor skills?
Skills that involve larger muscles such as arms and legs and are necessary for balance, coordination, and walking
330
What are fine motor skills?
They involve the coordination of smaller muscles such as those eyes and fingers and are necessary for intricate movements and hand eye coordination
331
What years are adolescent development characterised by?
The transitional years from childhood to adulthood
332
When does adolescent physical development begin?
Puberty
333
What is puberty?
The period when sexual organs mature; caused by a surge of hormones that alter moods, behaviour, and trigger the rapid development of primary and secondary sex characteristics
334
What are primary sex characteristics?
They include reproductive organs (ovaries, testes) and external genitalia necessary for reproduction
335
What are secondary sex characteristics?
Include nonreproductive features such as pubic hair and underarm hair in both sexes, breasts and hips and females, and facial hair and a deeper voice in males
336
What is the term for a girls first period?
Menarche
337
What is the term for a boys first sperm ejaculation?
Spermarche
338
What is social development?
When adolescents become aware of other peoples thoughts and judgements while simultaneously developing questions of who they are and who they want to become
