The design, operation, and maintenace of building systems, part2 Flashcards
0
Q
What are the four basic elements of facility security that the property manager relies on?
A
Physical barriers
Electronics
Personnel
Procedures
1
Q
What are three basic features that should be identified by a facility profile?
A
If should identify the building structure, function, and occupants.
2
Q
What are the key security areas that require proper security measures in every building?
A
Windows Ventilation intakes Doors Locks and key control Lighting
3
Q
What are the three functional assemblies of a lock?
A
A latch for bolt – holds the movable parts, such as a door or window, to its frame
A maze obstacle segment or tumbler array that is the barrier that must be passed to move the bolt.
The key for unlocking device that is specifically designed to pass the barrier and move the ball
4
Q
What are the three common types of bolts and latches?
A
Spring-loaded latches – automatically engages the strike by action of the spring
Deadbolts – must be manually moved into the strike
Spring-loaded deadbolt latch – like a dead bolt latch but can only be opened with the key
5
Q
What is a change key?
A
Standard key that fits a single lock within a master key system or any other single lock that is not a part of a Master Key system
6
Q
What is a sub master key?
A
The key that opens all locks in a particular area or grouping in the facility.
7
Q
What is a grand master key?
A
The key that opens every lock and key system involving two or more master keys.
8
Q
What is a control key?
A
It is a maintenance key that removes the core of the lock from the housing and allows the combination for the lock to be reset.
9
Q
What are the three types of protective lighting?
A
Continuous lighting – series of fix lights flood the protected area with overlapping cones of light.
Glare protection lighting – used to illuminate the perimeter of facility. Creates glare in the eyes of intruder while building remains in darkness.
Controlled lighting – parking lots
10
Q
What is Watch tour monitoring?
A
Specifically designed hardware and software used to document a security officers patrol.
11
Q
Other than cost, what you look for when identifying a quality security company?
A
Documented proof of comprehensive hiring procedures and training
Hiring – education and prior employment, criminal history, screen for substance abuse, administering preemployment screening, conducting personal interviews
Training – preassigned the training, on-the-job training, retraining systems, management training
12
Q
What are the two types of physical barriers and what are some examples of each type?
A
Physical barriers are natural barrier such as bodies of water, earth berms, plantings, and mountains; and structural barriers such as walls, fences, grills, and bars.
13
Q
What is the difference between intrusion contacts and wire and screen sensors?
A
Intrusion Contacts use a magnetic or spring-loaded switch that breaks electrical circuit during unauthorized entry; wire and screen sensors used electrical conductors woven into screen fabric to detect cutting or removal.
14
Q
What is the difference between motion detectors and photoelectronic sensors?
A
Motion detector sensed changes in heat, vibration, or soundwaves; photo electronic sensors detect the breaking of a beam of light.
15
Q
How do CCTV cameras support security personnel?
A
Close circuit television cameras provide unobtrusive surveillance, allow identification prior to entry or exit, provided deterrent, can record incidents, provide better and more effective use of security personnel.
16
Q
What are the major issues to consider when determining the number of security officers needed to monitor facility?
A
Issues to consider are building hours of operation, number of contacts, vehicle entrances, number and type of patrols per shift, and whether escort or other special services will be provided.
17
Q
Which is a structural barrier related to facility security? Earth berm Wall Body of water Plantings
A
Wall
18
Q
Physical barriers, both natural and structural, are used to do all of the following except:
Notify authorities of an emergency
Delay and impede unauthorized entry
Restrict and channel the flow of traffic
Provide for efficient and effective use of security personnel
A
Notify authorities of an emergency
19
Q
In a facility, the key that opens all locks that are part of a hierarchal key system is a: Change key Maison key Master key Sub master key
A
Master key
20
Q
A sensor that detects intrusion by breaking the beam of light is a (N): Intrusion contact Wire and screen sensor Motion detector Photoelectric sensor
A
Photoelectric sensor
21
Q
All of the following are issues to consider when determining the number of security officers needed to monitor a facility except:
Building hours of operation
The number of contacts (people passing by)
Vehicle entrances and their operating hours
Frequency of OSHA inspections
A
Frequency of OSHA inspections
22
Q
Fill in the blank: data gathering devices the capture watch tour security information via magnetic strips or barcodes are part of a (n) \_\_\_\_\_watch tour system. Electronic Operating Mechanical Closed circuit
A
Electronic
23
Q
Identification of the quality security company depends on documented proof of comprehensive and proper: Uniforms and procedures Posted patrols Hiring and training Expenses and fees
A
Hiring and training
24
Who should be represented on the incident response management team?
Each business function or building tenant.
25
What should happen to incident response management team members that do not attend meetings or fully engage in the planning process?
They should be replaced
26
What data should be gathered as part of an emergency response plan?
– Name, title, and department or building location
– Phone contact numbers
– Emergency contact numbers
– Email addresses
27
What are the basic areas that should be addressed concerning task assignments in an emergency response plan?
– Establish communication channel for upper management
– Establish command center location and stock with supplies
– Establish expectations for all employees who are aware of incident
– Evacuation plan
– Notification procedures for in-house security and local authorities
– Identify equipment and staff will secure affected areas
– Identify qualified medical staff
– Develop public response plan
– Procedures for alternate work locations
28
What is included in a technical operations analysis?
– Data storage and backup
– Recovery processes and timetables
– Capturing programming modifications
– Unique systems identification
29
To ensure full commitment, who should introduce a business recovery plan?
The president or senior management
30
In order to identify and develop BOC plans, how should business functions be prioritized?
– Facility recovery
– Recovery of business processes
– Technical data and systems recovery
– Other recovery procedures
31
What should a written and well-documented emergency and disaster plan include?
Provisions for occupants safety and security; prevention or minimization of damage to facilities; protection of assets; safeguards against damage or loss of critical information; rapid restoration of critical facility mechanical operations and functions
32
What are the basic areas that should be addressed concerning task assignments in an emergency response plan?
Communication channels; incident command center location; expectations for employees; evacuation and assembly plan; notification procedures; responsibilities of staff and identification of quality medical staff; accounting for missing employees; public response plan; alternative work locations
33
What should be addressed a post-incident meeting?
– Whether damage has occurred and whether business functions will be disrupted
– Employee return to work notifications
– Employee incident debriefing
– Employee and community communications
– Communication with local authorities if criminal activities are identified
– Identification and retention of all related security records
34
What is included in business operations continuation planning?
-Business operations analysis
– Technical operations analysis
– Developing the recovery plan
– Writing the plan
35
What are the three most important steps in the business recovery plan development process?
– Identify critical business functions
– Capture technical functions
– Establish recovery priorities
36
Which is least likely to be part of emergency and disaster planning?
– Identification of the most affordable insurance companies
– Prevention or minimization of damage to facilities
– Protection of assets
– Protection against loss of critical information
– Identification of the most affordable insurance companies
37
Which is true concerning the incident response management team for a facility?
– Each business function or building tenant should have a representative on the team.
– If the main team has more than 10 members, backup personnel are not necessary.
– Participation in the team should be considered proprietary and kept private within the organization.
– Members who do not attend meetings should be accommodated rather than replaced.
– Each business function or building tenant should have a representative on the team.
38
Which information would be least helpful to local law enforcement and fire department personnel when developing an emergency response plan?
– Facility floor plans
– Average vacancy and churn rates
– Emergency contact lists
– Whether security staff is armed or unarmed
Average vacancy and churn rates
39
Which should be established in the emergency response plan and communicated to team members prior to the incident?
– The average response time of the local fire department
– An estimate of the number of emergencies per year
– The average water pressure required in local fire hydrants
– An incident command center location
– An incident command center location
40
For emergency planning, which is part of the post incident action plan and occurs after the initial emergency is over?
– A determination of whether damage will disrupt any business functions
– Development of contact list emergency service providers
– Identification and preparation of an incident command center location
– Development of the facility occupant evacuation or assembly plan
A determination of whether damage will disrupt any business functions
41
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In order to secure for commitment to a business recovery plan, introduction of the plan should be provided by the:
– Middle managers
– Staff or union representatives
– Company president or senior management
– Supervisory staff
```
– Company president or senior management
42
What are the three ingredients necessary for fire?
Fuel
Oxygen
Heat
43
What is a code?
Documented requirements adopted by a legally empowered legislative body, such as a city or state government
44
What is a standard?
A document that contains specific details of design or construction methods.
45
What is a check valve?
The device that permits water to flow in one direction only.
46
What does a fire – pump system typically consist of?
Primary fire pump – four waterflow
Jockey pump – pressurize the system to compensate for incremental pressure lost due to leaks, etc.
Controller –
Driver – motor on emergency power, engine, etc.
47
What are the four occupancy hazard levels classified by NFPA 13?
Light hazard – quantity and combustibility of content is low, fire low heat-offices, cafeteria seating areas.
Ordinary hazard (group 1) – combustibility low quantity moderate, fire moderate heat, stockpiles less than 8 feet are; parking lots, display areas
Ordinary hazard (group 2) – high quantity and combustibility, stockpiles less than 12 feet, mother to high heat; machine shops, plants
Extra hazard (group 1 and two) – high quantity highly combustible such as flammable liquids. Rapid spreading fire with high heat – hydraulic fluid use a printing areas.
48
Why is the fire extinguishing agent Halon being phased out?
Due to regulations due to ozone depletion.
49
What are the four classes of fires extinguishing agent used in fire extinguishers specifically for each class?
Class a – combustibles – water-based and multipurpose dry chemical
Class B liquids – phones, dry chemical, CO2
– class c – electrical – CO2, dry chemical
class D – metals – agent specifically for that metal
50
What is stratification?
When smoke can no longer arrive because it is the same temperature as the surrounding air
51
Briefly explain the building codes and firefighting procedures for high-rise buildings.
High-rise building has occupied floors 25 feet above the lowest level with fire department access.
A fire command system station is established to monitor and control all fire systems. Includes voice alarm, fire communication, fire detection, and fire signaling systems.
52
Where are voice alarm system speakers generally installed?
Elevators, elevator lobbies, exit stairways, and rooms greater than 1000 ft.²
53
Explain the use of independent controls for a smoke control system.
Ensure smoke control system is always available for operation. They should include position indicators of airflow and manual controls that are separate yet available to the fire department. Power should be from a constant source. Should be incorporated into the HVAC system.
54
How should fire protection control valves be positioned and inspected?
Each valve should be open and locked open or have a tamper switch. They should be numbered and should have a sign indicating the portion of the system they control. Period inspections with valve condition listed on a report.
55
Explain the code requirements for a new building.
The new building is designed, constructed, and occupied under the current edition of applicable building codes and standards; usually the date of application for a permit dictates which edition of a code applies to the work covered by that permit; once completed the new building must remain in compliance with the building codes that applied when it was legally approved for occupancy.
56
Explain the code requirements when a renovation, addition, or change of use is made to an existing building.
Changes must comply with the codes applicable to the new construction time of renovation, addition, or change of use.
57
What is the purpose of fire rated walls, and why do fire rated doors usually have a lower rating than the fire rating of the surrounding walls?
They prevent horizontal passage of fire; because building contents (the fuel for the fire) are not located in front of the doors.
58
What are the benefits of an automatic sprinkler system?
– Apply water automatically and directly to the burning area prior to the arrival of the fire department
– Warn occupants of the fire
– Cool hot gas smoke and minimize smoke development
– Allowing area to be safely occupied longer by controlling or limiting fire size
– Prevent flashover
59
How should fire protection control valves be handled when building alterations or repairs are being done?
Ves should remain open, sprinkler systems kept in service to the greatest extent possible; when sprinkler protection is expected to be interrupted, insurance company and fire department should be notified.
60
Any changes or modifications to building made after the initial occupancy date are usually subject to code requirements:
– For a new building.
– In effect only at the initial occupancy date.
– That may take effect within the following two years.
– That apply nationwide.
– For a new building.
61
Proposed renovations and existing building must meet code provisions:
– Applicable to the building only when it was originally constructed.
– Applicable to new construction.
– Applicable within the past five years.
– That are under consideration but not yet adopted.
– Applicable to new construction.
62
Besides controlling the fire, an automatic sprinkler system is designed to:
– Eliminate smoke.
– Replace active fire protection.
– Work only while the building is unoccupied.
– Prevent flashover.
– Prevent flashover.
63
```
A foam based fire extinguisher is most likely to be used on a:
– Class A fire.
– Class B fire.
– Class C fire.
– Class D fire.
```
– Class B fire.
64
Which is true concerning firefighting in high-rise buildings?
– Firefighting efforts are executed entirely from outside the building.
– Whenever possible, the fire floor and those above and below it are evacuated simultaneously.
– The complete and immediate evacuation of all occupants from all floors is always warranted.
– The building codes do not contain specific fire alarm provisions for high-rise buildings.
– Whenever possible, the fire floor and those above and below it are evacuated simultaneously.
65
```
For a voice fire alarm system high-rise building, speakers are generally installed in:
– Small rooms.
– Restrooms.
– Corridors.
– Private offices.
```
– Corridors.
66
```
Activation of the smoke control system is best done by operation of:
– Smoke detectors.
– Manual pull stations.
– Sprinkler system.
– Heat detectors.
```
– A sprinkler system.
67
Which is true concerning control valves in a fire protection system?
– Control valves should never be oiled or greased. – Each control valve should be secured in it's normal, open position with a seal.
– Electronic tamper switches for control valves are no longer legal.
– By law, control valves must be inspected daily.
– Each control valve should be secured in it's normal, open position with a seal.
68
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All of the following should be notified when the sprinkler valve is closed or when sprinkler protection is expected to be interrupted except the:
– Insurance company.
– Property manager.
– Police Department.
– Fire department.
```
– Police Department.
69
What is electricity?
The flow of electrons through a conducting medium.
70
What is current, and what is a conductor?
Current – the flow of electrical charge
| Conductor – the wire that carries current to a load
71
What a volt and a voltmeter?
Volt – the measure of the pressure of electrical current in an electrical circuit.
Voltmeter – the meter that is connected across the terminals of either a source of applied electromotive force or a circuit component to measure the EMF or voltage.
72
What are an ampere and an ammeter?
ampere – the measure of the flow of electrical current in an electrical circuit
Ammeter- the meter that measures the flow of electrical current and antlers
73
What is the formula for calculating Watts?
W=VA
74
What is a kilowatt hour?
It is 1000 W per hour
75
What is a dedicated circuit?
An electrical circuit or telephone line reserved exclusively for one appliance or occupant.
76
What is a fuse?
A device that provides overcurrent protection by acting as a controlled weak link in a circuit. The metal ribbon or element is made of an alloy that will melt from the heat of an overcurrent condition.
77
What is a circuit breaker?
A device that allows a circuit to be opened and closed manually. This device will also open the circuit automatically if a predetermined amount of current flows through it.
78
What is a variable frequency drive?
A solid-state device to use to vary the speed of a typical three phase induction motor to satisfy change in load.
79
What is the difference between a brown out and a blackout?
Brownout – planned drops in voltage of 5% or more.
| Blackouts – total electric supply failure.
80
In addition to the equipment categories that typically constitute the electric load in commercial buildings, what else should be included in the planning for the distribution system?
Estimates of future loads.
81
What is EMT?
A very popular metal conduit for non-watertight applications.
82
What are electrical system safety regulations intended to govern?
They govern the design and use of electrical systems and components to protect the public and the workers who operate and maintain those systems as well as the equipment and buildings in which it is installed.
83
What is the best way to avoid being injured in an electrical accident while performing repairs or maintenance?
Deenergizing the circuit to be worked on.
84
What is clean power?
It is electrical power that has been filtered to eliminate any electromagnetic interference, harmonic distortion, and noise.
84
When are three-phase and single phase power systems used?
Large electrical motors for pumps and HVAC systems and commercial buildings typically operate with three-phase power
General office lighting and receptacles operate with single phase power
85
What are the two basic types of UPS systems?
Static – rectifier charger, DC bus, and inverter
Rotating – motor generator set the flywheel. AC electric drives motor and flywheel, generator provides power. Flywheel keeps generator running if AC power goes away. Most drive-through times Are ½ seconds.
85
What is grounding and how is it accomplished?
Grounding is safely connecting electrical equipment and devices to earth; it is accomplished by attaching a grounding wire to a metal rod inserted into the ground or attached to the building steel frame or plumbing system
86
What are the two types of battery-operated emergency power sources?
Central battery systems – bank of batteries, transfer switch, Control Panel. Loss of power, transfer switches to internal batteries.
Individual battery systems – emergency lighting, fire panel battery, etc.
86
What is a transformer and what does it do?
A transformer is a device the transfers electrical energy from one AC to a second AC circuit, with no direct electrical connection.
It uses electromagnetic energy to either increase or decrease the input voltage that is supplied as an output value appropriate for the load.
87
For what types of buildings and facilities might on-site power generation be more economical?
– Buildings with large demands or areas greater than 500,000 ft.²
– Multiple buildings on one site
– Poor reliability
– Low fuel rates
– Sophisticated operating personnel
– Financial policy that accept payback periods in excess of eight years
– Space to accommodate equipment installation
87
What is the difference between dual service and normal reserve service?
Both dual and normal reserve service are two full capacity lines originating from the utility company and terminating in the automatic transfer switch gear; the difference is that for the normal reserves service the entire load receive power from one line.
88
What is the main advantage of on-site power generation?
The ability to use waste heat from the machine generating power.
88
What are electrical system safety regulations intended to govern?
Electrical system safety regulations govern the public and workers who operate and maintain the system, as well as the equipment and buildings in which it is installed.
89
What are the major components of a total energy system?
– Fuels
– Prime movers
– Waste heat boilers
-Steam absorption refrigeration equipment
89
```
General office lighting and receptacles operate using:
– Single phase power.
– Three-phase power.
– Rectifiers.
– Motor generators.
```
– Single phase power
90
What are the most frequently used fuels for a total energy system?
– Diesel fuel oil
| – Natural gas
90
```
What provides an emergency path to remove current safely in case of a malfunction in the electrical system?
– Rectifying
– Phasing
– Grounding
– Generating
```
– Grounding
91
Why is there a trend with total energy systems to be able to convert readily between different fuels?
To minimize vulnerability to unexpected price increases or shortages of one particular fuel.
91
```
Filling the blank: a 100 W lamp that operates for 10 hours uses _____of electricity.
– 1/2 kWh
-1 kWh
-10 kWh
-1000 A
```
1000 amperes
92
What must current interrupting device be able to do?
They must be able to interrupt faults successfully.
92
```
The automatic tripping mechanism in the circuit breaker can either be thermal or:
– Magnetic.
– Chemical.
– Pressure based.
– Rotary
```
– Magnetic.
93
What are harmonics?
Distortion of both voltage and current in an electrical system.
93
Which is the best description of a transformer?
– A group of large fuses and circuit breakers the control the flow of electricity
– An electrical device that converts alternating current to direct current
– Electrical device that allows a circuit to be opened and closed manually
– An electrical device that changes the voltage electricity passing through it
– An electrical device that changes the voltage of electricity passing through it
94
What does a power factor of less than one cause?
Part of the current performs no work; instead it builds and drains electrical magnetic energy fields once each cycle.
94
Which is true concerning a VFD?
– It is an old technology that is being phased out.
– It raises or lowers the load on an electric motor and provide circuit protection.
– It is a highly flexible device that is compatible with almost any type of motor.
– There is a limit to the distance between it and the motor
– There is a limit to the distance between it and the motor.
95
What is a common technique for offsetting the phase lag and the resulting poor power factor from large inductive motor loads?
To install capacitors – a device that stores electricity for short periods of time by establishing an electrostatic field between two conducting media.
95
The difference between normal reserve service and dual service is that:
– Only the normal reserve service has two full capacity services originating from the utility company.
– With the normal reserve service the entire load received its power from one line.
– Only the normal reserves service terminates in the automatic transfer switch gear.
– With the normal reserves service, if one service fails, the load is transferred to the other service.
– With the normal reserves service, the entire load receives its power from one line.
96
What are the general maintenance requirements for switchgear?
Removing dust and dirt to exercise components that do not move during normal operation.
96
```
Planning for the distribution system for a commercial building should include an estimate of:
– Future building loads.
– Increases in utility charges.
– Alterations of local building codes.
– Changes in utility providers.
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– Future building loads.
97
What are the five specified steps for switchgear maintenance?
```
– Cleaning
– Inspecting
– Exercising
– Servicing
– Testing
```
97
```
The best way to avoid being injured when working with electrical equipment is to:
– Wear rubber sold shoes.
– Deenergize the circuit.
– Work in pairs.
– Double ground the equipment.
```
– Deenergize the circuit
98
What is the most important maintenance function for transformers?
Ensuring that the means for continuously removing heat is maintained
99
Why is it important to keep motors clean and adequately ventilated?
- Capacity of an electric motor is a function of temperature
| - motor should be inspected to prevent the restriction of air passages
100
With the three primary categories of charges for electrical service?
Customer charge – flat fee for service connection
Energy charge – fee for energy consumption
Demand charge – recoup costs gear needed to meet demands
101
What are how are factor charges?
Charges for larger generation and distribution facilities needed to compensate for reduced system efficiency.
102
What are time – of – use charges?
Charging based on when electricity is used.
103
What is the demand ratchet?
Charging a minimum charge for electrical usage based on a peak demand for the previous 12 months.
104
What are the two primary purposes for UPS system?
– To supply a constant voltage, frequency, and generally clean AC power
– To maintain power for a specified during power outages.
105
What is power factor and what is the concern associated with low power factor and utility charges?
- Power factor is the ratio of real power in kilowatts to apparent power involved amps expressed as a decimal or percentage
- with low power factor, the utility companies may require equipment that will increase the power factor, and they charge penalties for a low-power.
106
Why is heat a concern with Transformers?
He will decrease the life of a transformer, and excessive heat will cause a transformer to lose rated capacity.
107
What is infrared thermography?
It is an effective way to survey electrical switchgear and electrical circuit connections by detecting and recording the overheating and thermal agitation of electrical equipment and connections that usually indicates a loose connection, corrosion, or other pending failure.
108
Why is it important to keep motors clean and adequately ventilated?
Temperature control is critical to satisfactory operations of motor with regard to capacity, so they must be adequately ventilated to maintain proper temperatures.
109
The main reason to have a well-designed UPS system is to:
– Reduce utility bills.
– Provide computer data backup.
– Maintain power for a specified time period during power outages.
– Raise direct current power for motor startup.
– Maintain power for a specified time period during power outages.
110
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For which of the following is on site electricity generation least likely to be economical?
– Multi building campus
– Suburban retail building
– Specialized building
– Large industrial plant
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– Suburban retail building
111
The advantage of on-site electric power generation rising its:
– Decreased maintenance costs.
– Use of waste heat from the generating machine.
– Quick payback period of 2 to 4 years.
– Efficiency when used in smaller buildings.
– Use of waste heat from the generating machine.
112
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The growing trend in gaseous fuel usage for electric power generation is toward:
– Exclusive use of natural gas.
– Experimentation was sore gas.
– Ready conversion between fuels.
– Long-term commitment to one fuel.
```
– Ready conversion between fuels.
113
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Fuses, circuit breakers, relays, and switches not only provide overload protection, but must be able to:
– Interrupt faults successfully.
– Step down or step up voltage.
– Supply emergency or backup power.
– Hold power for storage.
```
– Interrupt faults successfully.
114
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Which problem for electrical distribution systems has been created by technological advances and power supplies for sensitive electronic equipment such as computers and printers?
– Harmonics
– Short circuits
– Overvoltages
– Surges
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– Harmonics
115
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The ratio of true power to the apparent power in an electrical circuit is:
– Reactance.
– Power efficiency.
– Power factor.
– Frequency.
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– Power factor.
116
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In most buildings, a low-power factors caused by major industrial load from:
– Fluorescent lighting ballasts.
– Large motors.
– High-voltage transformers.
– Low-voltage switchgear.
```
– Large motors.
117
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The most important maintenance function performed on transformers concerns:
– Ventilation for heat removal.
– Lubrication of parts.
– The replacement of worn-out parts.
– Inspection of insulation.
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– Ventilation for heat removal.
118
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Many electric utility companies charge for _____ since larger generation and distribution facilities are needed to compensate for the system deficiency.
– High power factor
– Every five floors
– Low power factor
– Four insulation
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– Low power factor
119
What is candlepower?
The measure of light intensity of a ray of light and specific angle to the light source. The light intensity, or candlepower is measured in candelas. One candela is the light intensity in one direction of the standard size burning candle.
120
What is glare?
Any brightness from the light source within the field that causes the viewer discomfort; excessive contrast between the light source and surrounding areas that results in impaired vision.
121
What is reflectance?
The ratio of light reflected from the surface to that which initially strikes the surface.
122
What has the greatest effect on the difficulty of seeing a task?
The size and contrast of the detail.
123
What is the relationship between lighting and productivity?
Lower lighting leads to lower productivity.
| Must strike balance between enough lighting to keep productivity up and economy of lighting costs.
124
What is task lighting?
It is lighting designed and located primarily to illuminate the worksurface (desk, table, wall) where writing is done.
125
What is the most significant internal heat source in the building?
Lighting
| 1 W of light equals 3.41 BTUs of heat.
126
What can be done to ease the summer cooling load created by lighting?
Heat transfer fixtures can be used to cause heat to go to ceiling Plenum rather than conditioned space.
127
What are lumens and footcandles?
Lumens are the measure of the total output of light from the light source;
Footcandles of the measure of luminance for light density.
128
What causes veiling reflections and how can they be eliminated?
Veiling reflections happen when the light source itself is reflected as a blurred image on a visual task;
They can be eliminated by blocking the problem source, changing the angle of the worksurface in relation to the source, changing the reflective characteristics of the surface, or adding a fine mesh screen.
129
When is visibility at its minimum and maximum in relation to contrast?
When contrast is greatest, visibility is at its maximum;
| When contrast is low, visibility is reduced.
130
What is uniform lighting?
Uniform lighting is ceiling mounted lighting fixtures arranged in an even pattern in all directions, providing for adequate lighting for any possible arrangement of workstations.
131
Compare uniform and nonuniform lighting with regard to cost and workstation arrangement.
Uniform lighting allows for greater flexibility for workstation arrangement but has higher energy costs than non-uniform lighting, which is appropriate for areas were workstation placement remains constant and consistent.
132
What is the best description of the footcandle?
– The measure of illuminance, or light density
– The measure of the total output of light from a light source
– The measure of the light intensity array of light and the specific angle to the light source
– The measure of reflectance of the surface, sometimes referred to as the brightness of the surface
The measure of illuminance, or light density
133
A quick method to determine whether veiling reflections are a problem is to:
– ask the worker to describe the problem.
– Measure the glare zone near the seated worker.
– Is a footcandle meter to measure reflected light.
– Use a mirror at viewing angle to see reflections.
– Use a mirror at viewing angle to see reflections.
134
Which is true concerning light and performance?
– The difficulty of seeing a task is most affected by the size and contrast of the detail.
– To have contrast, the detail must be the same in color and luminance as it's background.
– One contrast is greatest, visibility is a minimum.
– What a contrast is low, visibility is greatly increased.
– The difficulty of seeing a task is most affected by the size and contrast of the detail.
135
Worker productivity can be improved with all of the following changes except:
– Reduced number of lamps in a fixture.
– New, lighter, and more reflective finishes.
– New, more efficient lighting fixtures.
– Added task lighting for the working surfaces.
– Reduced number of lamps in a fixture.
136
```
Which design allows for maximum flexibility and laying out furniture systems?
– Nonuniform lighting
– Task lighting
– Uniform lighting
– Accent lighting
```
– Uniform lighting
137
Which is a benefit of localized task lighting?
– Creation of shadows
– Variations in light on the work surface
– Reflections on the work
– Reduction of the total energy cost
– Reduction of the total energy cost
138
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Type of lighting that illuminates the general area surrounding work positions is:
– Task lighting.
– Ambient lighting.
– Accent lighting.
– Nonuniform lighting.
```
– Ambient lighting.
139
```
The most significant internal heat source in the building is:
– People.
– Hot water storage.
– Solar gain.
– Lighting.
```
– Lighting.
140
What is the basic idea underlying the concept of lifecycle costing relating to selecting lighting fixtures and lamps for long-term use?
The basic idea is that the purchase price alone is not the sole element to cost. The total cost of the lighting project is better determined by realative comparison of both purchase cost and future operation and maintenance costs or savings due to factors such as higher operating efficiency.
141
What is accent lighting?
It is lighting that produces unusual or dramatic effect to accentuate or draw attention to a specific object or area.
142
What is ambient lighting?
It is the general level of illumination.
143
What is chromeacity and how is it measured?
Is a common measurement of the color of light source based on heat. It is measured in degrees Kelvin.
144
What are the three types of fluorescent electrical circuits?
Preheat – used on low wattage fluorescent lamps and require a separate starter.
Rapid start – used for most 3 foot 4 foot lamps, provides longest length life.
Instant start – coldstart ballast primarily used on 8 foot lamps
145
Which meant to be used to replace a T 12 lamp for more energy efficiency?
T8 lamps
146
What are the common types of fixtures for fluorescent lamps?
Recessed Troffer – 2' x 4', industry-standard for office lighting.
Ceiling mounted wraparound – hung below ceiling and are enclosed on the bottom and two long sides by plastic lenses.
Open reflectors – industrial
Suspended fluorescent – helpdesk uses ceiling as a reflector
147
And what applications are metal halide lamps useful?
They are useful in applications appropriate for compact lighting sources such as downlights and indirect lighting.
148
What is a major limitation of high-pressure sodium lamps?
They must be used for color is not important – parking lots, garages, industrial, etc.
149
What are the four types of tungsten halogen lamps?
Tubular double – ended with a coil filament.
Tubular single ended with a coil filament.
Quartz filament tube sealed in an outer bold for PAR lamp applications.
Low-voltage, multifaceted, ellipsoidal reflector
150
What are three common fixtures for incandescent, compact fluorescent, and HID lamps?
Open bottom downlights – open recessed lighting
Close bottom downlights – recessed lighting with lens on bottom.
Surface mounted luminance enclosures – any of a great variety of decorative styles of indirect fixtures that are suspended from the ceiling and reflect light from the ceiling back to the space
151
What is group relamping and how can it save money?
All lamps are replaced at once. Reduces labor costs two between one fifth and 1/10 cost per lamp by saving prep time, etc.
152
Why is cleaning important for lighting fixtures?
Because light losses result from dirt on lamps, reflectors, etc.
153
List and briefly describe the basic shielding devices.
The basic shielding devices are a lens, which is formed a glass or plastic panel; a diffuser, similar to a lens, but has a milk white glass or plastic panel; ia louver, an open metal or plastic grid; a baffle, a lampshade that blocks direct view of the lamp to prevent glare; and the recessed cone, a ceiling mounted tapered cylinder who sidewalls reflect and focus from the lamp downward.
154
What is the most common application and advantages of fluorescent lamps?
The most practical source of general illumination for interior commercial spaces because of their low energy, high efficiency, long life, and low overall cost.
155
What are the three common types of high-intensity discharge lamps (HID), and which are the most and least efficient?
Mercury – least efficient
Metal halide
High-pressure sodium – most efficient
156
Which lamps are the least efficient source of white light?
Standard filament lamps
157
What is simple payback?
It is the amount of time in decimal years that will go by before a system upgrade option's energy savings reach the next installation cost.
158
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Which analysis compares the initial cost of the lighting project with future costs and savings?
– Lifecycle cost
– Market value
– Capital assessment
– Past and present value
```
– Lifecycle cost
159
```
Lampshades the block direct view of the lamp and thus prevent glare called:
– Lenses.
– Baffles.
– Louvers.
– Diffusers.
```
– Baffles.
160
The most practical choice for general illumination of interior working areas in an office is:
– Fluorescent lighting.
– Incandescent lighting.
– High intensity discharge lamps.
– Combination incandescent and HID lighting.
– Fluorescent lighting.
161
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A lamps color temperature indicates visual warmth or coolness and is also called:
– Illuminance..
– Impedance.
– Candlepower.
– Chromacity.
```
– Chromacity.
162
```
In multi year payback and significant energy savings can be realized by replacement of T12 lamps with:
– Rapid start, high output lamps.
– T8 lamps and EL ballasts.
– Long life T12 lamps.
– PAR or ER lamps.
```
– T8 lamps and EL ballasts.
163
Which is true concerning high-pressure sodium lamps?
– They are more efficient than the standard metal halide lamps.
– Their efficiency drops drastically with lower wattage sizes.
– They must be used for color is important.
– They are less efficient than the standard mercury vapor lamps.
– They are more efficient than the standard metal halide lamps.
164
```
Incandescent lamps offer all of the following benefits except:
– Efficiency.
– Versatility.
– Warm color.
– Effective floodlighting.
```
– Efficiency.
165
Simple payback is defined as: – the term of the loan, in months or years used to purchase capital equipment.
– The amount of time and decimal years that will go by before the system upgrade options energy savings reach the net installation cost.
– The amount of loan payment that applies to the principal amount of the loan and not the interest.
– The net profit after taxes divided by the total value of assets employed to generate income.
– the amount of time in decimal years that will go by before a system upgrade options energy savings reach the net installation cost.
166
What is benchmarking?
It is establishing a standard of performance against which something can be compared or measured.
167
What areas of a building organization should be represented on energy team?
```
– Engineering
– Purchasing and accounting
– Public affairs/tenant relations/investor relations
– Operations and maintenance
– Building facilities management
– Environmental health and safety
– Corporate real estate and leasing
– Construction management
– Contractors and suppliers
– Utilities
```
168
What are the key aspects of assessing energy performance?
– Gathering and tracking data on energy performance
– Setting a baseline used to evaluate future energy use
– Benchmarking performance against similar buildings
– Setting goals for future energy performance
169
Once a baseline for a building's energy consumption has been established, what is the next step and why is it critical?
The next step is to set an energy performance goal by estimating the potential for improvement and financial benefits. It is critical for understanding intended results, developing effective strategies, and reaping financial games.
170
What is an audit and what is an energy audit designed to do?
An audit is a methodical examination and review; energy audits are designed to examine energy use and costs.
171
To take advantage of potential energy savings, what existing building features and functions should be reviewed?
– Equipment start and run times
– Building setpoints as weather conditions change
– Correctly set outdoor temperature reset controls for space heating systems that move warm air
– Resume night setback of thermostats
– Check outdoor air damper settings
– Optimize energy management systems
– Accurately calibrate utility meter
-Optimize electrical demand Limiting opportunities
172
What is the process for incorporating energy performance into a building's design?
– Assemble multidisciplinary team
– Set energy performance goals
– Make the most of the predesigned phase
– Confirm that the building design meets the goals
– Select a qualified construction team
– Assemble a library of building documentation
– Train staff on building systems
– Ensure proper commissioning of the building
173
Typically, who is responsible for choosing utility rates based on the options available?
The customer.
174
Why is it important to check utility bills monthly?
Utility companies occasionally make billing errors.
175
What are several sources of information and advice on improving utility rates and opportunities for reducing energy costs?
– Utility companies
– Fellow utility customers
– Energy consultants
– Energy tracking and utility auditing firms
176
What two types of balances connected to utilities should the property manager calculate and compare each month?
The quantity and cost of utilities bought with the quantity and cost of utilities sub metered.
177
What utility is most commonly charged for after hours use?
Heating and cooling
178
In a building that is not sub metered, how is utility cost escalation usually determined?
It is usually determined as the amount that the current year's cost exceeds the base year's cost.
179
What does measuring energy performance at a specific time establish and provide?
Measuring energy performance at a specific time establishes a baseline and provides the starting point for setting goals and evaluating future efforts and overall performance.
180
How does changing the timing, sequence, or approach to cleaning effect energy consumption?
Daytime cleaning can reduce energy consumption by reducing nighttime use of lights and HVAC; team cleaning can reduce energy consumption by shortening the use of lights and HVAC.
181
Briefly describe a demand-side management program.
A DSM is intended to reduce the consumption of and/or demand for energy, and most of them involve offering of free advice or subsidization of the purchase and installation of various energy saving products.
182
What are the various methods for recovering utility expenses?
```
– Submetering
– Energy rent conclusion
– Utility cost allocation
– Tenant utility auditing firms
– After hours charges
– Excess energy use
-Common area cost allocation
– Utility cost escalation
```
183
Two. Utility cost allocation submetering and explain when it is fair to use.
Utility cost allocation is less costly and requires less equipment (or no equipment at all) as compared to submetering, and is fair when utility use is uniform.
184
Measuring energy performance at a specific time provides the starting point for:
– Setting goals and evaluating future efforts.
– Setting lease rates and maintenance charges.
– Overseeing equipment purchasing.
– Reducing the size of the energy management team.
– Setting goals and evaluating future efforts.
185
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After establishing a baseline for a buildings energy consumption, setting clear and measurable energy performance goals is critical for all of the following except:
– Justifying past practices.
– Understanding intended results.
– Developing effective strategies.
– Leaving financial gains.
```
– Justifying past practices.
186
```
Most buildings are cleaned after normal business hours, and energy consumption associated with cleaning:
– Is negligible.
– Can be significant.
– Cannot be charged to tenants.
– Require separate metering.
```
– Can be significant.
187
Which is false concerning existing building features and efforts to reduce energy consumption? – Equipment start and run time should be reviewed to ensure maximum energy efficiency that corresponds with building occupant needs.
– Building setpoints and humidification settings should remain constant regardless of changes in weather conditions.
– Thermostat should be set at minimal heating and cooling temperatures for as many nighttime hours is feasible without compromising daytime comfort.
– Outdoor air damper settings should be adjusted to lower energy costs without sacrificing the meeting of indoor air quality standards and building codes.
– Building setpoints and humidification settings should remain constant regardless of changes in weather conditions.
188
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The choice of utility rates for a commercial building is typically the responsibility of the:
– Customer/property manager.
– Lender.
– Prime tenants.
– Utility company.
```
– Customer/property manager.
189
One of the most cost-effective practices to reduce energy costs is to:
– Scrutinize utility bills monthly.
– Review utility rates annually.
– Take advantage of the billing grace period.
– Eliminate meter readings by building staff.
– Scrutinize utility bills monthly.
190
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Filling the blanks: each month the property manager should calculate two types of bounces; these balances compare the quantity and cost of utilities _____ with the quantity and cost of utilities ______.
– Available, bought
– Submetered, not used
– Used, not used
– Bought, submetered
```
– Bought, submetered
191
```
Prorating Kennons utility costs by the landlord is fair when:
– Use is varied.
– Use is uniform.
– Tenants occupy large areas.
– Meters are read daily.
```
– Use is uniform
192
Which is true concerning utility cost allocation?
– It is more costly than submetering.
– It always avoids local laws that apply to submetering.
– It is a fair method only when utility use is varied among tenants.
– In some cases, it requires no extra equipment.
– In some cases it requires no extra equipment.
193
What are the peak periods in buildings with elevators?
Critical times of the day when traffic flow is heaviest.
194
How do elevator professionals measure elevator traffic flow?
The record flow in five minute intervals. These measurements are recorded on a flowchart.
195
What are service elevators?
They are elevators intended to transport maintenance materials and building service personnel to avoid inconveniencing building occupants and protect interior Decor of the passenger elevators from damage.
196
What are freight elevators?
Elevators used for moving heavy materials
Class A handtruck loading
Class B motor vehicle of them
Class C support the weight of the truck
197
Describe what the hydraulic elevator pump does during elevator operation and how the direction of fluid is controlled.
During elevator operation, output of the pump remains fixed. The valve assembly controls the amount of fluid pumped into the cylinder or allowed to return to the tank. The direction of flow is controlled by three valves – up, down, bypass.
198
What is the major environmental issue with hydraulic elevators?
Hydraulic fluid leakage into surrounding ground.
199
What elevator equipment should be evaluated prior to the construction or before renovation plans are finalized?
DC drives – smooth the rides, stop at the right spot
AC drives – more economical, not as smooth as DC
Elevator controller – control starts and stops, speed, and which cars will answer calls
Elevator motion control determines elevators precise location
200
Why are center opening doors used in commercial buildings with heavy traffic patterns?
Because they open and close faster.
201
What is a traveling cable?
Is a cable which carries communications between the car and the machine room equipment.
202
What is terminal dispatching?
Elevators run on a preset schedule
203
Explain why escalators are usually installed in pairs and how theirdirection can be changed.
They are installed in pairs to allow for two-way service most of the day. They can be changed to allow both escalators to flow in the same direction during periods of heavy one way travel.
204
Under what conditions do escalators provide the best service?
Carrying steady streams of people for limited distances.
205
Which buildings are usually served by hydraulic and traction elevators?
Hydraulic elevators are typically used in buildings with 2 to 7 stops; traction elevators are typically using buildings with eight or more levels.
206
How are the quality and quantity of elevator service measured?
Quality is measured according to the average interval, which is the average time between elevator departures from the lobby during a five minute period; quantity is measured by the total number of passengers transported by a group of elevators during a five-minute peak period.
207
Describe the machine room for a hydraulic elevator.
The machine room for a hydraulic elevator is generally located adjacent to the bottom of the shaft (the pit), and typically contains a machine, controller, hydraulic fluid reservoir, and the piping the carries hydraulic fluid to the plunger and cylinder.
208
Explain the advantages of microprocessor controllers.
Microprocessor controllers have a few moving parts, are extremely reliable, require less hoistway wiring than do relay controllers, provide greater reliability, require shorter installation time, and are less maintenance intensive.
209
What is multiple zoning and computerized dispatching?
Multiple zoning is with the building is divided into zones, with an elevator programmed to park in each zone during off-peak periods; computerized dispatching is when the computer in the elevator controller continuously evaluates the status of all the elevators and decides which elevator will respond to a particular call.
210
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The quality of elevator service is measured by:
– Trip time.
– Average interval.
– Response time.
– Traffic capacity.
```
– Average interval.
211
Which is the best description of a freight elevator?
– A secondary elevator that operates from the middle of a high-rise building
– An elevator constructed to withstand the rigors and rough use associated with moving heavy materials
– An elevator with two stack cabs
– An elevator intended to transport maintenance materials and service personnel
– An elevator constructed to withstand the rigors and rough use associated with moving heavy materials
212
All of the following are benefits of hydraulic elevators except:
– They lack overhead machinery.
– Their walls do not carry heavy vertical loads.
– They are environmentally safe.
– Their construction costs are lower than those for traction types.
– They are environmentally safe.
213
```
An elevator controller send commands to the car after receiving information from the:
– Safety system.
– Speed control system.
– Motion control system.
– Leveling system.
```
– Motion control system.
214
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All communications between an elevator car and it's machine room equipment move through a bundle of conductors known as the:
– Traveling cable.
– hoist rope.
– Selector sheave.
– Relay controller.
```
– Traveling cable.
215
Which is true concerning escalators?
– Escalators installed in pairs must always move in opposite directions (one up, one down).
– The need for small entry and landings are one of the advantages of escalators.
– Elevators are better than escalators for carrying steady streams of traffic for limited distances.
– Escalators are usually installed in pairs for two way service most of the day.
– Escalators are usually installed in pairs for two way service most of the day.
216
What are the six objectives of a successful elevator maintenance program?
```
– Provide dependable service
– Preserve capital investment
– It's your passenger safety
– Comply with applicable codes
– Predict and control costs
– Maintain optimal performance
```
217
Where is most maintenance of car and counterweight buffers, rope pulleys, Corredor door hangers and locks, switches and safety devices performed?
In the hoistway
218
What is the acceptance date for a new elevator installation, and what are the concerns associated with it?
The acceptance date is when the service company assumes responsibility for the elevator.
To the contractor it is when the contract is signed.
To the owner it should be close to the date of excepted of the building.
219
And what five areas should a prospective elevator maintenance provider be prequalified?
```
– Technical expertise
– Workforce
– Facilities, spare parts
– Support
– Financial soundness
```
220
Who can provide elevator maintenance?
– Equipment manufacturers
– Other manufacturers
– Non-manufacturers
– Do-it-yourself basis if qualified personnel are on staff
221
Which items are typically excluded from an elevator maintenance contract?
– Refinishing
– Repairing components of elevator cab
– hoist way enclosures, doors, frames, and walls
– Hydraulic cylinders, casings, and concealed hydraulic piping
– Lighting
– Standby power
– Main power switches, breakers, and feeders to control equipment
222
What circumstances usually result in additional charges under an elevator maintenance contract?
– Overtime
– Travel time
– Overtime trouble calls versus OT repair.
223
What are the four types of records and reports the elevator maintenance company can provide?
– Call back and repair records
– Ingles equipment surveys
– Repair recommendation reports
– Performance reports
224
What are the five key improvement areas of elevator modernization?
```
– Performance
– Appearance
– Technology
– Code compliance
– Safety
```
225
What are some examples of elevator peripheral equipment that can be modernized?
– Door operators
– Roller guides
– Door detector systems
– Emergency lighting
226
What are some examples of elevator equipment that can be modernized to meet building codes?
– Fire service
– Emergency power
– Emergency communication regulations
227
How does visual modernization providing economic benefits?
Because materials used today are more wear resistant, visual modernization can reduce maintenance and repair costs.
228
What happens first when special emergency service is initiated in an elevator system?
Elevators are returned, nonstop, to the main floor where they remain until the emergency is over.
229
What equipment is usually located in a traction elevator machine room and hoistway?
The machine room usually contains the elevator hoistway machines, motor generator sets or solid-state power supply, and control equipment; the hoist way usually contains the guide rails in which the elevator car counterweight run; the Corredor doors, hangers, door locks, and operating mechanisms; switches and other operating safety devices; and space for cable and other equipment
230
Describe a full maintenance contract for elevator maintenance.
The elevator service company takes total responsibility for elevator components identified in the contract; it is sold as insurance to eliminate all of the managers concerns relating to elevator problems.
231
Who is responsible for handling accident claims and problems associated with elevator vandalism or misuse of equipment under a full maintenance contract?
The elevator maintenance company is responsible for accident claims; the property owner is responsible for problems associated with vandalism or misuse of equipment.
232
Briefly explain what a overlay system is.
A microprocessor-based enhancement of existing elevator control equipment that includes individual car controllers and a group dispatcher, costs about 65% less than a totally new elevator control system and can produce 20 to 40% traffic handling improvements over an existing, older electro mechanical control system.
233
Briefly explain what to do when an elevator stops between floors with passengers in the car.
Immediately summon a qualified elevator professional and use the intercom system to reassure the passengers.
234
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The heart of the system for traction elevators and the location of most routine maintenance is the:
– Hoist way.
– Cab.
– Pit.
– Machine room.
```
– Machine room.
235
```
Andre full maintenance contract for elevator service, the frequency of service visits to a building is usually determined by the:
– Property manager.
– Building engineer.
– Maintenance contractor.
– Manufacturer.
```
– Maintenance contractor.
236
```
The microprocessor-based enhancement of existing elevator control equipment is a:
– Group overlay.
– Peripheral equipment modification.
– Visual modernization.
– Total retrofit.
```
– Group overlay.
237
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The best example of modernization of elevator peripheral equipment is installing a:
– New emergency power system.
– Group overlay control system.
– Variable frequency motor.
– More efficient door operator.
```
– More efficient door operator.
238
Which is the best example of an elevator modernization to meet code requirements?
– Installing a group overlay control system.
– Upgrading the emergency communication system.
– Preparing roller guides.
– Installing new wall panels.
– Upgrading the emergency communication system.
239
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When special emergency service in control systems is initiated, all of the following elevator components stop working except:
– Hoisting machines.
– Car buttons.
– Door reopening devices.
– Hall buttons.
```
– Hoisting machines.
240
Which is true concerning communication with car occupants when an elevator stops between floors?
– Tell the passengers to try to open the doors.
– Tell the passengers that there's plenty of air in the car.
– Tell the passengers to move to the edges of the car and stand against the walls.
– Tell the passengers to open the maintenance trapdoor to determine which floor is the closest.
– Tell the passengers that there is plenty of air in the car.
241
Where does dirt most quickly accumulate and why?
Horizontal surfaces because dirt is subject to gravity.
242
Why are recognizable uniforms and photo identification badges for cleaning workers important?
– To allow building occupants to easily identify them.
| – Uniforms create group identity which contributes to positive attitudes towards the job.
243
What are the five basic types of cleaning contracts?
```
– Fixed rate contracts
– Cost-plus percentage fee contracts
– Cost plus fixed fee contracts
– Management fee contracts
– Incentive contracts
```
244
What factors normally influence cleaning costs?
– Age – older buildings cost more to clean
– Height – costs increase as the number of floors increases
– Labor cost area – area labor costs in general
– Location – cities cost more than suburbs
– Market conditions
– Size – as square footage increases cost per square foot decreases.
245
What are the five basic supervisory duties for cleaning workers?
```
– Assigning
– Training
– Inspecting
– Retraining
– Disciplining
```
246
What three basic supervisory duties for cleaning workers are most often neglected?
– Training
– Inspecting
– Retraining
247
What are the four basic types of cleaner training?
– Orientation training
– On-the-job training
– Classroom training
– Vendor training programs
248
What are the four levels of cleaning quality, and what dictates the level of cleanliness for a given area?
– Basic cleaning is when visible dirt is cleaned
– Prestige cleaning is cleaning whether dirt is visible or not
– Clinical
– Specialized
The function of area dictates the level of cleanliness for a given area
249
What are the basic facilities and tools the cleaning staff must be equipped with, and ideally where should central and storage cleaning facilities be located?
A base of operations, Equipment and supplies, and uniforms and identification;
Adjacent to a service elevator.
250
Briefly describe a fixed rate cleaning contract any management fee cleaning contract.
A fixed rate contract can be used on either a grand total or cost per unit area, can include a quality definition or frequency specifications, is used most frequently and is available in uncontrolled input and controlled demand forms;
In a management fee contract, the customer provides the personnel, equipment and supplies, and the contractor provides the management and usually supervision for the work (normally used when the employees need to be on the customer's payroll).
251
List and briefly describe the four common forms of organizing cleaning tasks.
Area assignments – where a worker performs all repetitive tasks in a given building area.
Job specialization – where the worker does a limited type of work in many different areas.
Team cleaning – a group of workers moves through the building doing all cleaning tasks
Gang cleaning – large number of workers enter an area for a limited period of time
252
What are the four ways to determine whether cleaners are performing their tasks adequately?
– Regular inspections by supervisors
– Complaints from occupants
– Customer surveys
– Property manager inspections.
253
```
The primary purpose of cleaning is to remove:
– Horizontal surface dirt.
– Dirt from walls.
– Obvious dirt
- Pathogens.
```
– Obvious dirt.
254
The best location for a cleaning equipment and supply storage room in an office high-rise is:
– Next to the supervisors office.
– Adjacent to the service elevator.
– In a heavily populated general office area.
– On the ground floor near the managers office.
– Adjacent to a service elevator.
255
```
The power cleaning machine that can be used for many types of floor surfaces is the:
– What dry vacuum.
– Suction sweeper.
– Floor machine.
– Spray buffer.
```
– Floor machine.
256
```
The floor finish that is least susceptible to removal by detergents contains:
– Paraffin and beeswax.
– Kanuba wax.
– Water emulsion Wax.
– Metal linked polymers.
```
– Metal linked polymers.
257
```
The controlled demand requirement is sometimes preferred with the:
– Management fee contract.
– Cost-plus percentage fee contract.
– Cost plus fixed fee contract.
– Fixed priced contract.
```
– Fixed price contract.
258
```
Which form of organized cleaning is used when a large number of cleaners are needed for a limited period of time?
– Gang cleaning
– Area assignments
– Job specialization
– Team cleaning
```
– Gang cleaning
273
What accounts for 90% of the dirt deposited on exterior windows?
Dirt that is suspended in precipitation cascading over the windows
274
What is the best cleaner to use to dissolve extremely difficult dirt or deposits on exterior windows?
Hydrofluoric or hydrochloric acid and running water
275
What should be used to remove stubborn particles and films such as paint from glass?
Scrapers and blades
276
What is the maximum extended height for extension ladders?
50 feet
277
Who is responsible for maintaining a permanent window cleaning installation in a safe working condition?
The property owner or the property manager
278
Who has the responsibility for training contracted window cleaning employees?
The window cleaning contractor
279
Who is responsible for maintaining a log of inspections and completed work for contracted window cleaning?
The contractor
280
Who should be called to gain access to a stranded worker on a suspended scaffold during window cleaning?
A glass company to remove glass to allow the employee to get off the scaffold and back into the building
281
What is the most cost-effective way to protect steel sheet metal from rust and corrosion?
Paint
282
What metal has become the major material used to clad building curtainwalls because it is soft, lightweight, and architecturally strong?
Aluminum
283
What are the benefits of an anodized finish on aluminum?
It gives the aluminum a durable finish that can be maintained economically if serviced properly.
284
What is one of the most beneficial characteristics of corten steel?
It is virtually maintenance-free.
285
If corten steel is vandalized or damaged, what is the usual treatment?
It's crust must be completely removed. The exposed steel must go through the oxidation process again and it will be years before is a uniform color.
286
What is the guiding criterion in selecting lobby metals?
The ability to repair and refinish them if they are damaged.
287
Why is anodized aluminum infrequently used in the building lobbies?
Because metal maintenance is difficult.
288
Why is stainless steel commonly used as the accent metal for an elevator cab interior?
Because of it's pure metal characteristics. If it is damaged or vandalized, scratch can normally be removed in the middle refinished to its original condition.
289
Why is the refinishing of architectural metal in a building usually done at night?
Because of the odors given off by the solvent born products used in the process
290
Why should ammonia and ammonia solutions not be used on solar films on windows?
Because ammonia breaks down the solar film and makes it soft.
291
What is a typical schedule for window cleaning?
Entrances and storefronts daily; other street-level windows monthly; inside of upper elevation windows yearly; outside of upper-level windows two times per year; skylights once per year or less
292
Who has the responsibility for training contracted window cleaning employees for maintaining a log of inspections and completed work for contracted window cleaning?
The contractor
293
What are architectural grade metals?
Metals that provide an aesthetic appearance and visual effect while performing a function.
294
Why is anodized aluminum infrequently used in building lobbies?
It is difficult to repair
295
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Although ammonia is an effective routine window glass cleaner, it should not be used for:
– Removing tobacco smoke.
– Cleaning frosted glass.
– Neutralizing acid rain.
– Cleaning solar film on glass.
```
– Cleaning solar film on glass.
296
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Maintaining a permanent window cleaning installation in safe working condition is the responsibility of the:
– Equipment manufacturer.
– Property manager.
– Cleaning supervisor.
– Cleaning employee.
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– Property manager.
297
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As part of a typical window cleaning schedule, the building elements that should be cleaned twice a year are the:
– Outside of street-level windows.
– Inside a street-level windows.
– Inside of upper-level windows.
– Outside of upper-level windows.
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– Outside of upper-level windows.
298
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Metals that exhibit qualities of appearance as well as function are classified as:
– Exterior grade metals.
– Sheet metals.
– Architectural grade metals.
– Ornamentation metals.
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– Architectural grade metals.
299
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The anodizing finish on aluminum offers all of the following benefits except:
– Hardness and durability.
– Economical maintenance.
– A selection of color finishes.
– Easy repair of pitting.
```
– Easy repair of pitting.
300
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Metal maintenance costs vary, depending on all of the following except:
– Degree of design detail.
– Access for workers.
– Where and tear on the building.
– Training of workers.
```
– Training of workers.
301
What are the eight functional uses of plants in landscaping?
```
– Defined space
– Provide sense of privacy
– Supply Shade
– Block wind
– Absorbs sound
– Curtail erosion
– Reduce runoff
– Provide on-site contaminant filtration
```
302
What three soil conditions should be considered in preparation for planting and plant selection?
-pH
– Drainage
– Nutrients
303
What is xeriscape?
It is a landscaping concept that uses locally grown, native plants that require little or no supplemental irrigation beyond normal rainfall amounts.
304
What are the seven components of landscape maintenance?
```
– Watering
– Fertilizing
– Mulching
– Weeding
– Lawnmowing
– Disease and pest control
– Pruning
```
305
What is the most essential element for plant growth?
Watering (more formally irrigation)
306
What is the major factor in the prevalence of plant diseases?
Climate – as humidity increases prevalence of diseases increases
307
What are the three basic components of flexible (asphalt) pavement?
– Subgrade
– Space
– Asphalt
308
Why is ventilation important in enclosed parking garages?
Because of carbon monoxide.
309
what is the primary need for plumbing in parking facilities?
Drainage – proper drainage helps prevent premature pavement deterioration.
310
What are the three types of parking management?
– In-house
– Lease
– Management contract
311
What are the four basic methods used control parking and it's revenue?
– Layout
– Traffic flow
– Equipment
- Revenue control systems
312
What is the key to safety and security in parking facilities?
Lighting
313
If the parking operator holds the keys to a customers car, who is usually liable in the event of a claim?
The operator
314
What is the key to successful planting?
The preparation of the soil.
315
What are the basic guidelines for watering?
- Supply water before plant show signs of wilting;
- do not overwater as wet soil restricts route development;
- the top inch of soil should be dry before wondering again;
- water enough to pay penetrate deeply
316
What is electricity used for an parking facilities, and which systems should have an emergency backup?
Lighting, power ventilation fans, sump pumps, overhead doors and gates, alarm systems, elevators, and parking controls; emergency power should be available for lights, exhaust fans, and sump pumps.
317
Describe self parking and attendant parking.
And self parking the customer parks his own car in either random or a sign spaces, taking his keys and parking ticket offsite.
In attendant parking cars are parked by either customer or attendant, with customers receiving a claim check to identify their cars; cars can be parked in front of other cars.
318
What are the categories of revenue control systems for parking facilities, and what are the basic components of electronic monthly parking?
The categories are manual, permit, monthly, credit card, and debit card; the components are coded access cards, card readers, entrance and exit gates, and a centralized computer.
319
The investment any plant should be matched by:
– An analysis of surrounding landscaping on other properties.
– Increased compensation for landscape maintenance staff.
– Preparation of the soil in which is planted.
– An equal area of hard scape.
– Preparation of the soil in which is planted.
320
Which is true concerning watering plants?
– It is important to wait until plants show signs of wilting before watering.
– Overly wet soil restricts root development.
– The top 3 inches of soil should be dry before plants are watered again.
– Shallow watering produces deep roots and encourages plant growth.
– Overly wet soil restricts root development.
321
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Plant diseases are most likely to multiply in areas with:
– Steady winds.
– Dry weather.
– Sandy soil.
– High humidity.
```
– High humidity.
322
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Which is least likely to be needed in indoor parking facilities?
– Exhaust ventilation system.
– Manual control of fans.
– Carbon monoxide monitoring system.
– Fluorescent lighting system.
```
– Fluorescent lighting system.
323
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In a power failure, electricity from an emergency generator is supplied to a parking garage in order to operate:
– Cash registers.
– Gates and treadles.
– Ticket spitters.
– Lights and fans.
```
– Lights and fans.
324
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With random self parking, a customer enters the parking facility and parks in:
– An assigned space.
– An attended space.
– Any available space.
– A valleted space.
```
– Any available space.
325
Which is true concerning attendant parking?
– Cars can be parked in front of other cars.
– Payroll and insurance cost tend to be lower.
– Customer should never park their own cars.
– Parking attendants are not responsible for customers car.
– Cars can be parked in front of other cars.
326
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Parking control software to record parking transaction is a revenue control system that uses:
– A cash drawer.
– A fee computer.
– Video equipment.
– Gates and treadles.
```
– A fee computer
327
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In most cases, which person is liable for a car and its contents when the parking operator holds the keys to a customers car?
– Customer
– Building owner
– Parking operator
– Property manager
```
– Parking operator
328
What is likely to have the biggest impact on the type of pests encountered in and around the building?
The region of the country the building is located in.
329
Which types of past commonly infest and breed with instructions?
Cockroaches, fruit flies, fungus mats, rodents, and termites
330
In most areas of United States, bird-control (other than exclusion) is limited to which types of birds?
Pigeons, starlings, and sparrows
331
What is the key difference between IPM and other methods of pest management when it comes to the property manager/pest management expert relationship?
In a traditional program, the client looks to a pest-control vendor to take responsibility for acting to solve pest control problems.
In IPM program the client actually becomes the pest-control vendors partner and is actively involved in helping to resolve past problems by implementing recommendations given by the vendor.
332
What should property managers consider when deciding whether to use in-house personnel or pest management vendors?
The pests to be controlled, scope of service, technical expertise, and certification requirements.
333
What explanations should be given to a building occupant to facilitate willingness to obtain a pest sample?
– By getting a sample the control process can be accelerated
– With a positive ID, the pest management expert can determine the appropriate control methods for the specific pest problem
– Pesticide use can be reduced, reducing the occupants pesticide exposure as well
– A long-term solution to the problem can be developed
334
How does the property manager's role differ from the building occupants role in a pest management program?
– The manager has a higher level of communication with pest experts
– The manager must decide on a course of action
– The manager bears greater responsibility for implementing recommendations from the pest experts
– The manager must establish guidelines for pest expert communications with occupants
335
What are some innovative technologies for pest-control brought about by the increased regulation of pesticides and pesticide applications?
Baiting – introduces toxins to pest population
– Climate control
– Vacuuming removing cockroaches
336
List the factors that will influence the types of pests that a building is likely to experience.
The factors are building location, exterior landscaping, interior plantscaping, type of business, level of sanitation, personal pest problems, nearby pest pressures.
337
What are the three major reasons for selecting IPM (integrated pest management)?
– To prevent pest situations before they occur
– To reduce pesticide usage and exposure
– To reduce emergency expenditures by focusing on proactive rather than reactive measures.
338
What are the key principles guiding in IPM program?
-The key principles are to prevent rather than react past problems;
-use nonchemical solutions to prevent or solve past problems;
-establish action thresholds;
-adopt a procedure for managing potential risk associated with the toxicity of or exposure to pesticide should that become necessary
– Prevent active pest problems from occurring again in the future.
339
What are the three major factors affecting the success of an IPM program?
The three major factors are proper education of the property manager and occupants in IPM philosophies, the level of knowledge and expertise of the pest management technician, and the degree of implementation of cultural, mechanical, and structural recommendations
340
What are the general roles of the building occupant in a pest management program?
Cooperating with and understanding the programs objectives, collecting pest samples, communicating with the pest management specialist about pest problems, and following recommendations made by the pest management expert.
341
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Which factor is least likely to influence the types of pests that the building is likely to experience?
– Interior plantscaping
– Level of sanitation
– Size of the building
– Personal pest problems
```
– Size of the building
342
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In general, which type of pest is most likely to be a problem in urban properties?
– Ants
– Ground beetles
– Gnats
– Rats
```
– Rats
343
The control of cockroaches and many other types of pest is often best achieved through:
– Spraying insecticide on a regularly scheduled basis.
– Eliminating harborage areas and removing food sources.
– Placing baits and traps for every hundred square feet.
– Replacing building and structural material more frequently.
– Eliminating harborage areas and removing food sources.
344
Which is least likely to be a reason for selecting IPM for a building?
– To reduce cleaning and maintenance costs
– Prevent past situations before they occur
– To reduce pesticide usage and exposure within and around the building
– To reduce emergency expenditures by being proactive
– To reduce cleaning and maintenance costs
345
Which is true concerning an IPM program?
– The key difference between IPM and other methods of pest management is that the relationship that exists between the client and the vendor is more like a partnership.
– In an IPM program, the client typically looks to the vendor to take responsibility for acting to solve the pest problem.
– The vendor in an IPM program is only responsible for reacting to pest problems and applying solutions, such as baits and sprays.
– The client in an IPM program is responsible for inspections and recommendations, while the vendor performs maintenance and preventative measures.
```
Considerations in setting up an IPM program include all of the following except sent:
– In-house versus contracted service.
– Range of pesticides to be used.
– Types of pest to be controlled.
– Worker certification requirements.
```
346
```
Considerations in setting up an IPM program include all of the following except:
– In-house versus contracted service.
– Range of pesticides to be used.
– Types of pests to be controlled.
– Worker certification requirements.
```
– Range of pesticides to be used.
347
Which is true concerning the property manager's role in an IPM program?
– The building occupant has a higher level of communication than the manager with the pest-control expert regarding problems and solutions.
– The pest management expert has the ultimate decision on the course of action to take control of a problem.
– The property manager bears greater responsibility than the pest-control employees for implementing recommendations regarding structural change and sanitation.
– The pest management employees must decide on the level of communication they will have with building occupants.
– The property manager bears greater responsibility than the pest-control employees for implementing recommendations regarding structural change and sanitation.
348
What is a waste generator?
The organization that produces waste or turns material into waste.
349
What is solid waste?
Any discarded (abandoned, disposed of, recycled) material; includes hazardous and nonhazardous waste
350
What is a regulated generator?
Generators that produce more than 220 pounds of hazardous waste per month or more than 0.5 pounds of acutely hazardous waste per month.
351
What are the four main types of large waste storage containers?
– Frontload containers
– Reload containers
– Rolloff containers
– Stationary compactors
352
What type of waste is most appropriate for frontload containers?
Low-density wastes such as food, paper, and garbage
353
What is one big disadvantage of open top rolloff containers as compared to frontload containers and closed compactors?
They are far less efficient at controlling pests
354
what are the three steps of waste recovery, or recycling?
– Separation
– Processing
– Marketing
355
What is the most common recyclable business item and the largest component of solid waste?
– Paper
356
What are the two categories of plastic bottles?
HDPE (high density polyethylene)
| PET (polyethylene terephthalate)
357
Other than identifying the categories and volumes of waste generated by occupants, what does a waste audit do?
It indicates the type and size of the recycling program that should be implemented.
358
What should be done to ensure maximum participation by occupants in a recycling program?
– Awareness building promotions
– Educational sessions on every phase of the recycling loop
– Follow-up meetings
359
Briefly explain OSHA's definition of regulated medical waste.
OSHA defines regulated medical waste as blood or other potentially infectious materials and contaminated items that would release them, contaminated sharps, and pathological or microbiological wastes containing blood or other potentially infectious materials.
360
What is a waste audit?
Waste audit is an analysis conducted periodically in conjunction with a waste service company to evaluate and predict the occupants current and future waste streams.
361
What type of waste is most appropriate for roll off containers?
Bulky, non-compactible wastes such as wooden pallets, sawdust, and paper are most appropriate for rolloff containers.
362
What are some space considerations with large waste containers?
Space considerations with large waste containers include: placing them on a concrete surface, never store underground, and allow ample unoccupied area for truck turning radius.
363
What should a reliable recycling vendor provide?
– Educational programs for occupants
– Promotional opportunities for the building
– Help implementing programs
– Answers to questions
– Meeting program modifications
– Recommendations for the best material to recycle on the basis of available markets.
364
```
To be regulated, a wasted generator must produce an amount of hazardous waste that exceeds:
– 220 pounds per month.
– Hundred and 40 pounds per month.
– 80 pounds per month.
– 45 pounds per month.
```
– 220 pounds per month.
365
```
The type of waste disposal service and the frequency of pickups needed for each source of waste any building can best be estimated through a (n):
– Review of local building codes.
– Waste audit.
– Analysis of neighboring buildings.
– Analysis of present and past leases.
```
– Waste audit.
366
```
Book he wastes such as wooden pallets, sawdust, and paper I best removed by a:
– Frontload container.
– Reload container.
– Rolloff container.
– Compactor.
```
– Rolloff container.
367
The surface of a waste storage area should be constructed of concrete rather than blacktop because blacktop is more:
– Easily destroyed by container movement.
– Expensive to install.
– Susceptible to pest infestation.
– Likely to develop stains.
– Easily destroyed by container movement.
368
```
The single largest source of waste collected for recycling is:
– Aluminum cans.
– Glass.
– Plastic.
– Paper and paper board.
```
– Paper and paper board.
369
To evaluate the buildings waste stream to see what is discarded and how much is recoverable, the easiest and most reliable method is to:
– Have a property manager inspect the building.
– Hire a recycling services company or consultant.
– Have the cleaning supervisor check with cleaners.
– Ask occupants to fill out questionnaires.
– Hire a recycling services company or consultant.
370
A recycling vendor should be able to accomplish all of the following for a building except:
– Lower fees for disposal of non-recyclables.
– Provide an educational program.
– Publicize and promote participation.
– Recommended the best materials to recycle.
– Lower fees for disposal of non-recyclables.
