Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Patho II > The Gastrointestinal Tract > Flashcards

The Gastrointestinal Tract Flashcards

(258 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What is the function of the GI Tract?

A

consumes, digests, and eliminates food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does the Upper Division contain?

A

Oral Cavity
Pharynx
Esophagus
Stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the function of the upper division of the GI tract?

A

helps with food consumption

Start of chemical digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does the Lower Division contain?

A

Small Intestine
Large Intestine
Anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the function of the lower division of the GI tract?

A

absorption of nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does the Hepatobiliary System contain?

A

Liver
Gallbladder
Pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the function of the hepatobiliary system of the GI tract?

A

accessory system that secreted digestive enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 4 layers of the GI wall?

A

Mucosa
Submucosa
Muscle
Serosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the function of the peritoneum?

A

large serous membrane that lines the abdominal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What layer is the parietal peritoneum?

A

outer layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What layer is the visceral peritoneum?

A

inner layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the peritoneal cavity?

A

space between the two layers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the function of the mesentery?

A

double layer of peritoneum containing blood vessels and nerves that supplies the intestinal wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the epithelium?

A

most exposed part of the mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the epithelium composed of?

A

simple columnar epithelium or stratified squamous epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What cells can be found within the epithelium?

A

Goblet cells

Endocrine cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the function of Goblet cells?

A

Secrete mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the function of Endocrine cells?

A

secrete hormones into blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does the lamina Propia contain?

A

Myofibroblasts
Blood Vessels
Nerves
Immune Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the muscularis mucosa?

A

Layer of smooth muscle

Helps with continued peristalsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What layers are found within the Mucosa?

A

Epithelium
Lamina Propia
Muscularis Mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What layers are found within the Submucosa?

A

Major Blood and lympathics vessels
Submucosal plexus
Elastic fibers with collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What layers are found within the Muscularis externa?

A

Circular Muscle
Myenteric Plexus
Longitudinal Muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the other name for the submucous plexus?

A

Meissner’s plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the function of the submucosa layer of the GI wall?
stretches with increased capacity | Maintains shape of the intestine
26
What is the function of the Muscular layer of the GI wall?
Continued Peristalsis | Movement of digested material out of and along the gut
27
What is the other name for the Myenteric Plexus?
Auerbach's plexus
28
What is the serosa?
A serous membrane that covers the muscularis externa of the digestive tract in the peritoneal cavity
29
What is swallowing coordinated by?
Medulla swallowing center | Cranial Nerves V, IX, X, and XII
30
What do salivary glands secrete?
Bicarbonate | Salivary Lipase
31
What does the Stomach secrete?
``` Hydrochloric Acid Pepsin Gastric Lipase Intrinsic Factor Mucus ```
32
What is the action of bicarbonate?
moistens food
33
What is the action of salivary lipase?
digests food
34
What is the action of hydrochloric acid?
kills bacteria
35
What is the action of pepsin?
digests protein
36
What is the action of Gastric lipase?
Digests fat
37
What is the action of intrinsic factor?
Aids in vit. B12 absorption
38
What is the action of mucus?
protects the stomach lining
39
What is Agenesis?
the complete absence of the esophagus
40
What is Atresia?
incomplete development of the esophagus
41
What is more common: Agenesis or Atresia?
Atresia
42
Where does atresia occur most commonly?
at or near the tracheal bifurcation sometimes with a fistula
43
What is atresia usually associated with?
Congenital heart defects Genitourinary Malformations Neurologic Disease
44
When is atresia usually discovered?
shortly after birth when the baby regurgitates during feeding
45
What can atresia lead to?
Aspiration Suffocation Pneumonia Severe fluid and Electrolyte imbalances
46
What is acquired stenosis?
inflammatory scarring
47
What can cause acquired stenosis?
GERD Irradiation Systemic Sclerosis Caustic Injury
48
What is a Diaphragmatic Hernia?
Incomplete formation of the diaphragm allows the abdominal viscera to herniate into the thoracic cavity
49
What is Omphalocele?
Occurs when closure of the abdominal musculature is incomplete and the abdominal viscera herniates into a ventral membranous sac
50
What is Meckel's Diverticulum?
True Diverticulum Blind outpouching of the alimentary tract that communicates with the lumen
51
What causes Meckel's Diverticulum?
Failed involution of the vitelline duct
52
What is the Vitelline duct and when is it normally supposed to disappear?
connects yolk sac to developing GI tract after 9 weeks of gestation
53
What may also be present with Meckel's Diverticulum?
Ectopic Pancreatic or gastric tissue
54
What are the classical Symptoms of Meckel's Diverticulum?
Occult Bleeding = Bright red bleeding per rectum (BRBPR) | Abdominal pain resembling acute appendicitis or obstruction
55
What is the rule for Meckel's Diverticulum and what does it mean?
Rule of 2s ``` Occurs in 2% of population Present within 2 ft. of ileocecal valve approx. 2 inches long 2X as common in men Symptomatic by age 2 ```
56
What is pyloric stenosis?
Narrowing of pyloric areas of the stomach
57
What is pyloric stenosis caused by?
hyperplasia of pyloric muscularis externa which obstructs the gastric outflow tract
58
Who is pyloric stenosis more common in?
3-5X more common in males
59
How many live births does it occur in?
1 in 300-900
60
Who are at an increases risk of developing pyloric stenosis?
``` Monozygotic twins Dizygotic twins Siblings Turner Syndrome Trisomy 18 Exposure to erythromycin or azithromycin ```
61
When and what does pyloric stenosis present as?
3-6 weeks of life New-onset regurgitation Projectile, non-bilious vomiting after feeding Frequent demands for re-feeding
62
What may aggravate pyloric stenosis?
Edema | Inflammatory Changes in mucosa and submucosa
63
What is the acquired form of pyloric stenosis?
Antral Gastritis | Peptic Ulcers close to pylorus
64
What causes Hirschsprung Disease?
Failure of migration of neural crest cells
65
What do neural crest cells form?
form the plexuses of the GI tract
66
Who is most at risk of developing Hirschsprung disease and how many live births does it occur in?
1 in 5000 births Those with Down Syndrome
67
What does Hirschspring disease present with?
Failure to pass meconium in immediate postnatal period No secretions or peristalsis of GI tract
68
What is the most important clinical feature of Hirschsprung disease?
Congenital Aganglionic MegaColon
69
What are the major threats of Hirschsprung Disease?
Enterocolitis Fluid and Electrolyte Imbalances Perforation Peritonitis
70
What causes Achalasia?
Decreased Nitric Oxide and Vasoactive Intestinal Peptide | Increased Acetylcholine
71
What is Achalasia?
Increased tone of the lower esophageal sphincter
72
What are the symptoms of Achalasia?
``` Dysphagia for solids and liquids Difficulty in Belching Regurgitation Chest Pain Weight Loss ```
73
What is primary achalasia caused by?
Ganglion cell degeneration
74
What is secondary achalasia caused by?
Chagas Disease Diabetic Neuropathy Infiltrative Disorders (malignancy, amyloidosis, or sarcoidosis) Lesions of dorsal motor nuclei (polio, surgical ablation)
75
What is secondary achalasia associated with?
Down syndrome Alacrima Adrenal insufficiency
76
What is esophagitis?
Inflammation of the esophagus
77
What is hematemesis?
vomiting of blood
78
What are the esophageal causes of Hematemesis?
``` Lacerations (Mallory-Weiss Syndrome) Esophageal Perforation (cancer) Varices (cirrhosis) Reflux Esophagitis (erosive) Esophageal ulcers Barrett esophagus Adenocarcinoma Squamous cell carcinoma ```
79
What is Reflux Esophagitis?
reflux of gastric contents into the lower esophagus
80
What is reflux esophagitis caused by?
Loose tone of lower esophageal sphincter | Increased Abdominal Pressure
81
What is the other name for reflux esophagitis?
GERD
82
What covers the tract from the mouth to the end of the esophagus?
stratified squamous epithelia
83
What covers the tract from the stomach to the anus?
ciliated columnar epithelium
84
What is the function of the ciliated columnar epithelium?
to protect that area from acid erosion
85
What causes increased abdominal pressure?
``` Alcohol/Tobacco Obesity CNS depressants Pregnancy Hiatal hernia Decreased gastric empyting ```
86
What is decreased gastric emptying called?
gastropiesis (sp?)
87
What are the clinical features of Reflux Esophagitis?
Heartburn Dysphagia Regurgitation of sour-tasting gastric contents
88
What are the complications of Reflux Esophagitus?
``` Ulceration Blood vomiting Melena Stricture development Barrett Esophagus ```
89
What is melena?
blood in stool
90
What are esophageal varices?
Abnormal dilation of the veins at the junction between the portal and systemic venous systems
91
What causes esophageal varices?
portal hypertension
92
Who are esophageal varices most present in?
nearly half of patients with cirrhosis
93
What is the concern with esophageal varices?
bleeding
94
What is Barrett Esophagus?
complication of chronic GERD characterized by intestinal metaplasia
95
What is the intestinal metaplasia that occurs in Barrett esophagus?
replacement of normal stratified squamous epithelium lining to simple columnar epithelium with goblet cells
96
What patients is Barrett esophagus most common in?
white males 40-60 yrs. old
97
What are patients with Barrett esophagus at an increased risk of having?
Esophageal adenocarcinoma
98
How is Barrett esophagus identified?
By endoscopy and biopsy
99
What is the 7th leading cause of cancer deaths?
Esophageal tumors
100
What are the two most common types of esophageal cancer?
Squamous cell carcinoma | Adenocarcinoma
101
Where does squamous cell carcinoma usually occur?
middle 3rd of esophagus
102
Where does adenocarcinoma usually occur?
lower 3rd of esophagus
103
Which esophageal cancer is most common in the US?
Adenocarcinoma
104
Which esophageal cancer is most common worldwide?
Squamous cell carcinoma
105
What are the risk factors for Squamous Cell carcinoma?
``` Alcohol and Tobacco use Caustic esophageal injury Achalasia Tylosis Plummer-Vinson syndrome Diet deficient in fruits and veggies Very hot beverages Genetic abnormalities in p53 and EGFR ```
106
What are the risk factors for Adenocarcinoma?
``` Barrett esophagus GERD Hiatal hernia Obesity Smoking Increased acid exposure - Zollinger ellison syndrome ```
107
What is Zollinger Ellison syndrome?
multiple gastrinomas
108
What are the Clinical Features of Esophageal Tumors?
``` Dysphagia Odynophagia Progressively increasing obstruction Prominent weight loss and debilitation Hemorrhage and sepsis ```
109
What is the 5 year survival rate of esophageal tumors?
<25%
110
What are the four major regions of the stomach?
Cardia Fundus Body Antrum
111
What are the cardia and antrum lined by?
mucin secreting foveolar cells that form small glands
112
What do the antral glands contain?
G cells
113
What is the function of G cells?
release gastrin to stimulate parietal cells
114
What is the function of parietal cells?
secrete luminal acid
115
Where are parietal cells located?
Gastric fundus and body
116
What else does the gastric fundus and body contain?
chief cells
117
What is the function of chief cells?
produce and secrete digestive enzymes like pepsin
118
What is acute gastritis?
Inflammation of gastric mucosa | Diverse set of disorders marked by gastric injury or dysfunction
119
What are the causes of gastritis?
``` NSAIDs Alcohol Bile Stress Induced INjury Acute Mucosal Erosion or Hemorrhage - Curling Ulcers or portal hypertension ```
120
What are the asymptomatic symptoms of Gastritis?
variable degrees of: Epigastric pain Nausea Vomiting
121
What are the severe symptoms of Gastritis?
``` Mucosal Erosion Ulceration Hemorrhage Hematemesis Melena Massive Blood Loss is rare ```
122
What do the crypts of leiberkahn contain?
stem cells | Paneth cells
123
What is the pathogenesis behind gastritis?
loss of protective mechanism
124
What is the pathogenesis of NSAID causes of gastritis?
Decrease in COX causing decrease in PGE2/I2 causing decreased mucosal protection
125
What is the pathogenesis of H. pylori causes of gastritis?
decreased hydrochloric acid
126
What is the pathogenesis of chemicals, alcohol, and radiation causes of gastritis?
direct epithelial injury
127
What is the pathogenesis of chemotherapy as the cause of gastritis?
decreased epithelial regeneration
128
What is the most common cause of Chronic gastritis?
H. pylori infection
129
What is the most common cause of non H. pylori chronic gastritis?
Autoimmune diseases
130
What does chronic gastritis normally present as?
antral gastritis with normal or increased acid production
131
How does H. pylori survice the harsh acidic conditions of the stomach?
By producing urease
132
What is the function of urease and how does it help the h. pylori?
It neutralizes stomach acid by reacting with urea to form ammonia which is toxic to human cells and causes an overproduction of stomach acid
133
What are the virulence factors of H. Pylori?
``` Flagella Urease LPS and Outer proteins Exotoxins Secretory enzymes Effectors Type IV secretion system ```
134
What is the function of the LPS and outer proteins?
adheres to host cells and inflammation
135
What are the secretory enzymes released by H. pylori?
Mucinase Protease Lipase
136
What is Peptic Ulcer Disease?
Deep lesion in mucosa of stomach or duodenem
137
What is peptic ulcer disease a complication of?
chronic gastritis
138
What is peptic ulcer disease most commonly associated with?
H. pylori infection NSAIDs Cigarette smoking
139
What are the clinical features of peptic ulcer disease?
``` Epigastric burning Iron Deficiency anemia Hemorrhage Perforation Nausea/Vomiting Bloating Belching Significant Weight Loss ```
140
What are complications of peptic ulcer disease?
Bleeding Perforation Obstruction
141
What causes antral gastritis?
H. pylori causing increased acid and decreased bicarbonate
142
What does antral gastritis cause?
antral/duodenem ulcers
143
What does H. pylori cause in the fundus/body?
gastric atrophy
144
What does gastric atrophy cause?
Intestinal metaplasia
145
What should be considered colon adenocarcinoma unless proven otherwise?
Iron deficiency anemia in post menopausal women or elderly men
146
What are the most common types of gastric polyps?
Inflammatory and Hyperplastic Polyps
147
What is the pathogenesis of inflammatory and hyperplastic polyps?
H. pylori causes chronic gastritis which leads to reactive hyperplasia which causes the polyps
148
What size of the polyp requires it to be resected and biopsied?
> 1.5 cm
149
What are 25% common gastric polyps and who do they most often occur in?
Fundic Gland Polyps In younger people
150
What are fundic gland polyps most commonly associated with?
individuals with familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)
151
What causes fundic gland polyps?
proton pump inhibitory therapy which causes increased gastrin and causes the gland to overgrow
152
What are the clinical features of fundic gland polyps?
They can be asymptomatic or associated with: Nausea Vomiting Epigastric pain
153
What is the most common malignancy of the stomach?
Gastric adenocarcinoma
154
What are the two morphological types of gastric adenocarcinoma?
Intestinal type | Diffuse type
155
What does the intestinal type have?
bulky mass
156
What characterizes the diffuse type?
it spreads and invades wall of GI tract
157
What are the early symptoms of gastric adenocarcinoma?
Similar to Chronic Gastritis and peptic ulcer disease
158
What are the advanced symptoms of Gastric adenocarcinoma?
``` Weight Loss Anorexia Early Satiety Anemia Hemorrhage ```
159
What are the precursors to Gastric adenocarcinoma?
Gastric dysplasia | Adenomas
160
What mutations cause Gastric adenocarcinoma?
BRCA2 | TP53
161
What are the clinical features associated with Intestinal Obstruction?
``` Abdominal pain Distinction Vomiting Constipation Hypovolemia Metabolic Acidosis ```
162
What is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction?
Adhesions
163
What is a hernia?
Any weakness or defect in the abdominal wall that permits a protrusion of a serosa-lined pouch of peritoneum called a hernia sac
164
What is a volvulus?
Twisting of bowel
165
What is intussesception?
Segment of the intestine telescopes into the immediately distal segment and is constricted by a wave of peristalsis
166
Who is intussesception most common in?
Children less than 2
167
What is a common cause of intestinal obstruction in pregnancy?
Volvulus
168
What is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction in places other than the US?
Hernia
169
What is the majority of the GI tract’s arterial supply?
Celiac Superior Mesenteric Inferior Mesenteric
170
What are the causes of Ischemic Bowl Disease?
``` Severe Atherosclerosis Aortic Aneurysm Hypercoagulable states Oral Contraceptive use Embolization Hypoperfusion ```
171
What is ischemic bowel disease?
Necrosis of the GI tract
172
What types of infarction occur in Ischemic bowl disease?
Mucosal Mural Transmural
173
Where does a mucosal infarction occur?
In the superficial layer
174
Where does the transmural infarction occur?
In the entire 4 layers
175
What is the phase 1 of Ischemic bowel disease?
Hypoxia injury
176
What is phase 2 of Ischemic bowel disease?
Reperfusion injury
177
What are the clinical features of ischemic bowel disease?
Sudden onset of cramping Left lower abdominal pain Desire to defecate Bloody diarrhea
178
What is the cause of bloody diarrhea in ischemic bowel disease?
Shock and vascular collapse
179
When is ischemic bowel disease most common?
In those 70 years of age or older
180
What are the clinical features of Infectious Enterocolitis?
``` Diarrhea Abdominal Pain Urgency Perinatal discomfort Incontinence Hemorrhage ```
181
What is the major cause of death worldwide?
Infectious Enterocolitis
182
What is the cause of Infectious Enterocolitis?
E. Coli is most frequently responsible but etiology varies with age, nutrition, host immune status, and environmental influences
183
What are the common bacterial agents of Infectious Enterocolitis?
``` Cholera Campylobacter jejuni Shigella flexneri Salmonella typhoid/enteriditis/typhirmurium E. Coli C. Difficile ```
184
Where does cholera occur?
Where there is a natural disaster
185
How would a patient get cholera?
By drinking contaminated drinking water or contaminated food
186
What are the symptoms of cholera?
Watery, rice stool diarrhea at a rate of 1L/hour Vomiting following an incubation of 1-5 days
187
What does cholera cause?
``` Dehydration Hypotension Muscular cramping Anura Shock Loss of consciousness Death ```
188
What is the pathogenesis behind cholera and its secretory diarrhea?
Cholera toxin increases adenylate cyclase which increases cAMP CAMP increase opens a chloride channel with causes sodium and water to also leave the cell = Water diarrhea
189
What bacteria causes Campylobacter Enterocolitis?
Campylobacter jejuni
190
What is Campylobacter jejuni?
Most common bacterial enteric pathogen in developed countries
191
What are the symptoms of Campylobacter Enterocolitis?
``` Traveler’s Diarrhea/Watery Diarrhea Dysentery Reactive arthritis Erythema Nodosum Guillain-Barré syndrome ```
192
What is Campylobacter Enterocolitis associated with?
Ingestion of improperly cooked chicken, unpasteurized milk or contaminated water
193
What are the virulence factors of Campylobacter jejuni?
Motility Adherence Toxin production INvasion
194
Where does the bacteria proliferate?
In Lamina propia and mesenteric lymph nodes
195
How does C. Jejuni invade the bacteria?
1) adheres to host cell 2) F-actin and/or microtubules rearrange at this site causing engulfment and bacterial uptake 3) host cell signaling molecules and pathways like the intracellular survival in campylobacter containing vacuoles cause infection
196
What bacteria causes Shigellosis?
Shigella Flexneri
197
What is shigella flexneri?
Gram negative unencapsulated, non-motile, facultative anaerobes
198
What does Shigella flexneri secrete that causes the disease?
Shiga toxin (Stx)
199
What does shiga toxin cause?
Decreased protein synthesis
200
What is shigellosis the most common cause of?
Blood diarrhea (dysentery)
201
How is shigellosis transmitted?
Fecal-oral route or via contaminated water and food
202
Who is shigellosis the most common cause of death in?
In children less than 5
203
What are the clinical features of Shigellosis?
Incubation period - 1 week Dysentery diarrhea Fever Abdominal Pain
204
How does Shigella invade and cause inflammation?
1) crosses epithelial barrier through M-cells where they encounter macrophages 2) Binding of lipoprotein to TLR2 in macrophages results in production of IL-1 and IL-8 3) IL-8 causes PMN transmigration 4) death of cells
205
What is the primary destructive force in Shigella infection?
PMNs
206
What is the function of PMNs?
Cause chloride secretion through generation of a precursor to the secretagogue adenosine Also causes ulceration of epithelium resulting in decrease in absorptive surface and maximizing permeability
207
Which bacteria causes Salmonella exclusively in the GI tract only?
S. Enteriditis | S. Typhimurium
208
How many cases of Salmonellsis are there per year and what does it cause?
More than 1 million cases FOOD POISONING
209
Who is salmonellosis most common in?
Young children and older adults
210
When is the peak incidence of salmonellosis?
Summer and fall
211
What are the clinical features of Salmonella?
Inflammatory Diarrhea | Fever resolving in 2 days
212
How long does the diarrhea persist for with Salmonellisi?
Week or more with organisms being present in stool for several weeks
213
What does the bacteria possess that cause Salmonellisis?
Virulence genes that encode a type III secretion system
214
What is the Type 3 secretion system capable of?
Transferring bacterial proteins into M cells and enterocytes
215
What bacteria causes typhoid fever?
S. Typhi
216
What are the two things that can form due to S. Typhi?
Typhoid nodules | Typhoid ulcers
217
Where do typhoid nodules occur?
Liver Bone marrow Lymph node
218
What are the clinical features of Typhoid fever?
``` Anorexia Abdominal Pain Bloating Nausea/Vomiting Bloody diarrhea followed by short asymptomatic phase Rose spots Extraintestinal complications ```
219
What is E.coli?
Gram negative bacilli that colonize the healthy GI tract Mostly nonpathogenic but can cause human disease
220
What are the 4 strains of E. Coli?
Enterohemorrhagic Enterotoxigenic Enteroinvasive Enteropathogenic
221
What is the most dangerous form of enterohemorrhagic e. Coli?
O157H7
222
What does enterohemorrhagic E. Coli secrete?
Shigella like toxin that inactivates ribosomes
223
What is enterohemorrhagic E. Coli associated with?
Consumption of inadequately cooked ground beef
224
What are the clinical features of enterohemorrhagic E. Coli?
Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome
225
What does hemolytic uremic syndrome cause?
Lysis of RBS’s Renal Failure Thrombocytopenia
226
What does enterotoxigenic E. Coli secrete?
Heat stable toxin (ST) | Heat-labeled toxin (LT)
227
What is enterotoxigenic E. Coli similar to?
Cholera
228
What does enterotoxigenic E. Coli cause?
Increase in adenylate cyclase/cAMP causing increased secretions Secretory, non-inflammatory diarrhea Shock in severe cases
229
How is Enteroinvasive E. Coli transmitted?
Food Water Person to person contact
230
What is so different about enteroinvasive E. Coli compared to the other strains of E. Coli?
It is the only one that invades the epithelial host cells and doesn’t produce toxins
231
What does Enteroinvasive E. Coli cause?
Dysentery
232
What does enteropathogenic E. Coli cause?
Endemic diarrhea in children under 2
233
How does enteropathogenic E. Coli work?
Attaches to epithelium and destroys microvilli in small intestine
234
What is osmotic diarrhea caused by?
Failure to absorb food
235
What is Pseudomembranoous Colitis caused by?
C. Difficile
236
What are the risk factors for Pseudomembrance COlitis?
Advanced age Hospitalization Antibiotic treatment
237
What are the clinical features of Pseudomembranous COlitis?
``` Fever Leukocytosis Abdominal Pain Cramps Watery Diarrhea Dehydration Protein loss/hypoalbuminemia ```
238
What is the major challenge with Pseudomembranous colitis?
Recurrent infection
239
What is the mnemonic for Viral Gastroenteritis viruses?
CANCAR ``` Corona virus Adenovirus NOROVIRUS Calcivirus Astrovirus ROTAVIRUS ```
240
Who are most vulnerable to get Viral Gastroenteritis?
Children between 6-24 months
241
Where are rotavirus outbreaks most common?
In hospital and daycare centers Infection spreads quickly
242
How many viral particles are required to cause Viral Gastroenteritis?
10 viral particles
243
What does viral gastroenteritis typically cause?
Secretory and osmotic diarrhea
244
What is the pathogenesis of Viral Gastroenteritis, particularly that caused by Rotavirus?
NSP-4 acts like a viral endotoxin and causes an increase in calcium inside the cell This stimulates the enteric nervous system and activation of epithelial cell chloride secretion This causes cell death and a reduction in absorptive surface of the intestine
245
What parasites cause Parasitic Enterocolitis?
``` Entamoeba hystolytica Giardia Lamblia Giant roundworm - ascaris lumbricoides Threadworm - stronglyoides Hookworm - Necator duodenale and ancylostoma duodenale Pinworm - enterobius vermicularis Whip worm - trichuris trichura Cryptosporidium ```
246
What is inflammatory bowel disease?
Inappropriate mucosal immune activation
247
What are the two types of Inflammatory Bowel Disease?
Crohn Disease | Ulcerative Colitis
248
What are the clinical features of Crohn Disease?
extremely variable ``` Intermittent Mild Diarrhea Fever Abdominal Pain Iron deficiency anemia Serum protein loss and hypoalbuminemia Malabsorption of Vitamin B12 and bile salts Fibrosing strictures of the terminal ileum Fistulae ```
249
What are the clinical features of Ulcerative Colitis?
Bloody Diarrhea with stringy, Mucosa material Lower abdominal pain Cramps that are temporarily relieved by defecation
250
What are the trigger factors for Ulcerative Colitis?
Infectious enteritis | Stress
251
Where does Crohn’s disease occur?
Ileum and colon
252
What is the distribution of Crohn disease?
Skip lesions
253
What is the type of inflammation with Crohn’s disease?
Transmural inflammation
254
What type of ulcers are there in Crohn’s disease?
Deep, knife like
255
Where does Ulcerative Colitis occur?
colon only
256
What is the distribution of Ulcerative Colitis?
Diffuse
257
What is the type of inflammation of Ulcerative colitis?
Limited to mucosa inflammation
258
What type of ulcers occur in Ulcerative Colitis?
Superficial, broad-based

Patho II (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions