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Veterinary Board Exam - Volume 2 > The ''Ologies'' > Flashcards

The ''Ologies'' Flashcards

1
Q

Upon ligation of a patent ductus arteriosus, the aortic and carotid baroreceptors sense a rise in blood pressure, triggering the Branham reflex. What is the response?

A

A decrease in heart rate

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2
Q

Which organ system in which livestock species is the reservoir for Brachyspira hyodysenteriae?

A

The gastrointestinal tract of pigs

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3
Q

What are the mechanism and site of diuretic action of spironolactone?

A

Antagonizes aldosterone in the late distal tubule and collecting duct of the nephron

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4
Q

Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF) id a tick-borne zoonosis caused by this G- obligate intracellular parasite

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

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5
Q

Which bacterium is the causative agent of ‘‘circling disease’’?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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6
Q

Rhodococcus equi, an obligate intracellular bacterium, infects which imune cell?

A

Macrophage

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7
Q

Name 2 classes of antibiotics that act by inhibiting cell wall synthesis.

A

Cephalosporins and penicillins.
This caracteristic makes them bactericidal.

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8
Q

What is the causative agent of infectious canine hepatitis?

A

Canine Adenovirus I

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9
Q

Right heart failure affects which zone of the hepatic lobule?

A

Zone 3 - Centrilobular

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10
Q

What is the mechanism of edema caused by inflammation?

A

Inflammation results in edema by causing endothelial damage, leading to increased vascular permeability

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11
Q

Bovine pyelonephritis and ovine posthitis (‘‘pizzle rot’’) are associated with infection with which organism?

A

Corynebacterium renale

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12
Q

What is the effect of hypomagnesemia on the cell membrane threshold potential?

A

Decreases threshold potential (Which increases cellular excitability)

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13
Q

Canine localized demodicosis most often produces lesions localized to these areas of the body

A

Face and/or forelimbs

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14
Q

Cephalexin is a member of which class of antibiotics?

A

First generation cephalosporin

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15
Q

Which phase of estrus in dogs and cats is predominantly characterized by high circulating levels if progesterone?

A

Diestrus
(Also high during pregnancy or ovarian lesions such as cysts ot neoplasia)

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16
Q

What is the main excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain and spinal cord?

A

Glutamate

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17
Q

The anti-ulcer drug omeprazole functions by which mechanism?

A

Proton pump inhibitor - Inactivates H+-K+ ATP-ase pump in the gastric parietal cell

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18
Q

Which bacterium is most commonly implicated in cases of pyoderma in the dog?

A

Staphylococcus pseudointermedius (formerly called Staph intermedius)

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19
Q

Postmortem examination of a sheep with a history of decreased appetite, diarrhea and wasting reveals marked irregular thickening of the abomasal wall with a convoluted appearance (sometimes likened to Morocco leather). What is the most likely cause?

A

Ostertagia circumcincta

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20
Q

Pimobendan exerts its effects via which mechanisms?

A

Calcium sensitization and phosphodiesterase (PDE) inhibition causing increased myocardial contractility and arterial dilation

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21
Q

In cats and dogs, the presence of renal tubular necrosis with large numbers of intratubular calcium oxalate crystals on microscopic examination of the kidney is characteristic of which chemical intoxication?

A

Ethylene Glycol Toxicosis

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22
Q

A deficiency in these nutrients is associated with muscle necrosis and mineralization in calves, lambs and foals (white muscle disease). Name the nutrients.

A

Vitamin E & Selenium

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23
Q

What is the causative agent of infectious canine thrombocytopenia?

A

Anaplasma platys

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24
Q

On which part of the kidneys does furosemide exert its primary diuretic effects?

A

Thick portion of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle

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25
Q

What kind of virus are parvoviruses?

A

Non-envelopped, single stranded, DNA viruses

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26
Q

Intradermal skin testing for Mycobacterium bovis is an example of what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type IV hypersensitivity, which is cell-mediated hypersensitivity. (aka delayed-type hypersensitivity)

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27
Q

Which physiologic stimulus leads to vasopressin (ADH - antidiuretic hormone) release from the pituitary?

A

Increased plasma osmolality (also severe hypovolemia and hypotension)

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28
Q

What is the potential concern with combining tramadol with a pure mu-receptor agonist opiod (e.g. morphine, hydromorphone)?

A

Compounding central nervous system and respiratory depression

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29
Q

What is the minimum number of weeks of oral antibiotic administration typically recommended for treatment of superficial pyodermas?

A

3 to 4 weeks

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30
Q

How does severe hypophosphatemia cause anemia?

A

Hemolysis due to altered RBC membrane deformability (also decreased ATP availability)

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31
Q

On which ionic process are oxytocin-induced uterine contractions dependent?

A

Adequate influx of extracellular calcium

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32
Q

Canine distemper virus is a member of which genus and family?

A

Genus: Morbilivirus
Family: Paramyxoviridae

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33
Q

In myocardial infarction, the primary type of healing involves which cell type?

A

Fibroblast

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34
Q

Renal conjugation of bilirubin with urinary excretion is seen in which domestic species?

A

Canine. This phenomenon explains the lack of importance of mild bilirubinemia in the dog

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35
Q

Where is renin produced?

A

In the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney

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36
Q

What effect does aldosterone have on the collecting duct of the kidney?

A

It enhances sodium and water reabsorption

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37
Q

Necropsy of an equine fetus aborted at 9 months of gestation reveals multifocal pinpoint hepatic necrosis and severe pulmonary edema. What is the likely etiology of the abortion?

A

Equine herpesvirus 1 (EHV-1)

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38
Q

Zinc-responsive dermatosis is a zinc deficiency-induced disorder of keratinization common in this type of dog breed.

A

Northern breeds (Siberian Husky, Samoyed, and Alaskan Malamute)

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39
Q

Does chocolate toxicosis cause an increase or a decrease in CNS activity?

A

Increase (until terminal)

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40
Q

Plants of the genus Lantana can be toxic to cattle. Which 2 organ systems are affected?

A

Liver (hepatotoxicosis) and integument (phototoxicosis)

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41
Q

Treatment of adult heartworm infection in dogs now involved administration of doxycycline in addition to adulticide drugs. Why?

A

It kills Wohlbachia spp., bacteria that live inside heartworms and without which the worms are weakened and more susceptible to adulticide drugs

42
Q

What is the most common clinical manifestation of brucellosis in males?

A

Epididymitis and orchitis

43
Q

Which organism is the most common cause of fungal nasal infections in dogs?

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

44
Q

Which G- red blood cell parasite causes anemia in cats?

A

Mycoplasma haemofelis (less commmony mycoplasma haemominutum), formerly called Haemobartonella felis

45
Q

A serum deficiency in which electrolyte causes muscular weakness and cardiac conduction disturbances due to decreases cell membrane excitability?

A

Potassium

46
Q

Which 2 domestic animal species are most susceptible to infection with Bacillus anthracis?

A

Cattle and Sheep

47
Q

What is the causative agent of Q fever?

A

Coxiella burnetii

48
Q

Nigropalladial encephalomalacia (also called necrosis of the substantia (corpora) nigra) is the characteristic lesion of which plant toxicosis in horses?

A

Yellow star thistle (Centaurea solstitialis) or Russian knapweed (C. repens), commonly found in California and other arid regions

49
Q

This trematode causes severe disease in sheep, but often mild clinical disease in cattle and cervids.

A

Fascioloides magna

50
Q

Pectoral abscesses in horses (‘‘Pigeon fever’’) are a result of infection with which organism?

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

51
Q

The Cushing reflex/Cushing response is activated with severe increases in intracranial pressure. What is the expected change in arterial blood pressure that occurs as a result if the Cushing reflex?

A

Systemic arterial hypertension.
When intracranial pressure rises markedly (e.g. injury, inflammation), this reflex helps ensure that arterial perfusion of the brain is maintained.

52
Q

What is the most common histologic diagnosis in feline mammary tumors?

A

Adenocarcinoma

53
Q

Brucellosis is a disease of worldwide importance and affects a number of species, What is the most common clinical manifestation in females?

A

Abortion

54
Q

Which bacterial etiologic agent is responsible for septic vasculitis with secondary thrombosis in the CNS of cattle?

A

Histophilus somni (Thrombotic meningoencephalitis)

55
Q

The descending loop of Henle is:
A) Permeable to water but rather impermeable to solute
B) Rather impermeable to water nut permeable to solute
?

A

A) Permeable to water but rather impermeable to solute

56
Q

What is the mechanism of action of toxicosis from ingestion of Poinsettia plants?

A

Topical oral mucosal irritation (mild and rare; large amounts need to be ingested to produce any signs at all). No GI, renal, hepatic or other effects of clinical significance.

57
Q

What are two common ddx for multiple homogeneous gray-white nodules in the kidney of a cat?

A

Lymphoma and feline infectious peritonitis (PIF)

58
Q

What is the maximum rate of decrease in plasma sodium levels during the treatment of chronic (more than 24h) severe hypernatremia?

A

8-12 mEq/L/day (or 0.5 mEq/L/h); a more rapid rate of correction risks cerebral edema

59
Q

What are 3 classical histologic findings in the liver resulting from pyrrolizidine alkaloid toxicosis in herbivores?

A

1) Fibrosis
2) Bile duct proloferation
3) Megalocytosis

60
Q

___________ is the major intracellular cation and _________ is the major extracellular cation.

A

Potassium (K+), and sodium (Na+)

61
Q

Necrosis in the CNS is typically of which pathological type?

A

Liquefactive necrosis

62
Q

Which porcine virus causes disease that is characterized by stillbirth, mummification, early embryonic death, and infertility (SMEDI)?

A

Porcine parvovirus

63
Q

What is the etiological agent for bacillary hemoglobinuria (icterohemoglobinuria)?

A

Clostridium hemolyticum/ C. novyi type D (characterized by massive intravascular hemolysis). This disease is sometimes referred to as ‘‘red-water’’, a term also used for describing bovine babesiosis.

64
Q

Amoxicillin, metronidazole, or trimethprim-sulfa. Which of these is the most appropriate oral antibiotic treatment for oral giardiasis?

A

Metronidazole. (50-60% efficacy); the other two have no appreciable effect. Fenbendazole is the treatment of choice though.

65
Q

Foxglove, lily of the valley (Convallaria majalis) and oleander (Nerium oleander) plants all contain the same toxic agent. What is it?

A

Digitalis glycosides, causing cardiac arrhythmias, anorexia, lethargy and nausea

66
Q

Which structure in birds is the location of B cell differentiation?

A

Bursa of Fabricius

67
Q

Since striated muscle cells do not replicate, physiological enlargement is due to __________________ of myocytes.

A

Hypertrophy (NOT hyperplasia)

68
Q

How do dogs typically become infected by Neorickettsia helminthoeca?

A

Ingestion of raw fish parasitized by Nanophyteus salmincola (trematode), which in turn carry N. helminthoeca

69
Q

If nystagmus changes direction with head position, is the vestibular lesion most likely central or peripheral?

A

Central.
i.e. due to a brain lesion. Nystagmus due to peripheral (middle/inner ear) lesions does not change directions with changes in head position.

70
Q

Macrophages are derived from which circulating blood cell?

A

The Monocyte

71
Q

Which component of a blood pressure measurement (systolic, diastolic, or mean) is the best determinant of organ perfusion?

A

Mean arterial pressure

72
Q

Immune-mediated polyarthritis is the result of which type of immune reaction?

A

Type III hypersensitivity reaction, in which immune complexes are deposited in the synovial membrane

73
Q

What is the intermediate host for the tapeworm Dipylidium caninum?

A

The flea

74
Q

What are the average erythrocyte lifespans in circulation for the cow and the horse?

A

Cow: 160 days
Horse: 145 days

75
Q

How many types of toxin are produced by clostridium botulinum, and what are they?

A

Seven. Types A, B, C1, D, E, F, G.
Types A,B,E, and F cause human disease.
Types C and D cause disease in birds and mammals; More than 99% of canine cases are caused by type C.

76
Q

Bromethalin rodenticide intoxication affects which body system?

A

CNS

77
Q

Brightly-colored ornamental beads made from tropical seed pods and used for jewelry classically contain which toxin?

A

Ricin (Castor bean)

78
Q

Name 3 drugs that reduce circulating thyroid hormone levels.

A

Sulfonamides, corticosteroids, phenobarbital, clomipramine, NSAIDs, methimazole.

79
Q

Leishmania spp. are intracellular parasites of which cell type, primarily?

A

Macrophages

80
Q

Which etiologic agent is associated with equine sarcoids?

A

Bovine papillomavirus 1 and 2

81
Q

Do T lymphocytes function primarily in cell-mediated or humoral (antibody-mediated) immunity?

A

Cell-mediated

82
Q

Newcastle disease is caused by a virus of which family?

A

Paramyxoviridae

83
Q

What is the most common cause of fungal infection of the nail (onychomycosis) in dogs? What is it in cats?

A

Dogs: Trichophyton mentagrophytes
Cats: Microsporum canis (Microsporum gypseum and candidasis are less common)

84
Q

Which antibiotic is best known for causing esophageal strictures in cats?

A

Doxycycline. When administered without water or food, the tablet remains in the esophagus, causing a chemical esophagitis and subsequently stricture.

85
Q

Name the medication used in the treatment of hyperadrenocorticism that blocks the conversion of pregnenolone to progesterone in the adrenal gland.

A

Trilostane

86
Q

Name the 2 most common pathogenic bacteria associated with canine keratomalacia.

A

Streptococcus spp. and staphylococcus spp.

87
Q

Which hormone is most important in fine regulation of blood calcium levels, with highest levels being elicited when blood calcium levels are low?

A

Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

88
Q

Which G- bacterium is the causative agent of the plague?

A

Yersinia pestis

89
Q

What is the most common type of oral neoplasm in cats?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

90
Q

In health, approximately how long does a neutrophil stay in the blood?

A

10 hours (all blood cell neutrophils are replaced approximately 2.5 times each day)

91
Q

Anticoagulant rodenticides inhibit the activation of all these coagulation factors with the exception of: II, III, VII, IX, or X?

A

III

92
Q

What does a V/Q mismatch of infinity mean? In what clinical situation may this occur?

A

Alveoli are receiving ventilation but have no blood flow (V/Q = 1/0), as may occur with a pulmonary embolus.

93
Q

Name 3 cutaneous manifestations of hepatic failure.

A

Icterus, superficial necrolytic dermatitis (also called necrolytic migrating erythema and hepatocutaneous syndrome), photosensitization, ecchymoses/bruising, poor wound healing.

94
Q

A mare presents with a history of stallion-like behavior and a large ovarian mass, which on cut surface is cystic. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

GCT (Granulosa Cell Tumor)

95
Q

Doramectin, milbemycin and abamectin belong to which class of antiparasitic drugs?

A

Macrolides

96
Q

Which commonly used class of over-the-counter human medications is often associated with gastric erosive-ulcerative disease and may also cause acute renal failure?

A

NSAIDs

97
Q

A dog has seizures and hyperthermia. The owners recently ‘‘treated’’ their yard due to a snail infestation. What is the likely toxin?

A

Metaldehyde

98
Q

At rest, skin, erythrocytes, brain, skeletal muscle, and intestine all produce lactate. Which of these are the major producers of lactate during systemic tissue hypoxia?

A

Skeletal muscle and intestine

99
Q

Deficient production or lack of response to this hormone results in diabetes insipidus.

A

Arginine vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone)

100
Q

Total body water makes up approximately which percentage of the total body weight in healthy, non-obese adult animals?

A

60%

Veterinary Board Exam - Volume 2 (6 decks)

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