Thyroid and calcium homeostasis Flashcards

(73 cards)

1
Q

What medications can you prescribe for hypothyroidism

A

Levothyroxine (T4)
Liothyrine (T3)
Liotrix (T3+T4)

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2
Q

What are the goals of treating hypothyroidism

A

provide resolution in patients symptoms

Achieve normalization of serum thyrotropin (TSH) w/ improvement in thyroid hormone concentrations

avoid over treatment - especially in elderly

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3
Q

What may decrease absorption of T4

A

Aluminum and magnesium containing antacids

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4
Q

What is the PK of T4

A

Metabolized in the liver
eliminated in bile
half life 7 days
deiodinated in patients tissue

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5
Q

What is the PK of T3

A

Oral
short half life
metabolized by liver
eliminated in bile

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6
Q

What is important to teach patients when prescribing T4

A

Needs to be on an empty stomach

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7
Q

What are some adverse effects of T3

A

Increased risk of cariotoxicity
transient hyperthyroidism

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8
Q

When is T3 alone typically prescribed

A

When patient comes in and has myxedema coma

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9
Q

What are some medications for hyperthyroidism

A

methimazole
propylthiouracil
propranolol
iodine + potassium iodine

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10
Q

What drugs are Thiomides

A

Propylthiouracil (PTU)
Methimazole

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11
Q

What are the MOA of PTU and methimazole

A

Inhibit thyroid hormone synthesis and thyroperoxidase

PTU also inhibits D1

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12
Q

What is the DOC for thyroid storms

A

PTU

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13
Q

Which thioamide is preferred in early pregnancy

A

PTU

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14
Q

Which thioamide is preferred in 2nd and 3rd trimester

A

methimazole

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15
Q

What are the side effects for thioamides

A

Teratogenic
Hepatotoxicity
BM suppression (Agranulocytosis)

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16
Q

What is the advantage of methimazole over PTU

A

Methimazole has clinical advantages and is less toxic

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17
Q

What is the MOA of propranolol

A

Non-selective beta blocker
Inhibits deiodination of T4
reduces circulating T3

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18
Q

What is the PK of propranolol

A

IV in emergent settings

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19
Q

What are the adverse effects of propranolol

A

Decrease CO

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20
Q

What is the MOA of iodine and KI

A

Inhibition of biosynthesis (iodination of tyrosine)

inhibition of secretion of T3/T4

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21
Q

When are the effects of iodine at their max

A

10 days post admin

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22
Q

What are the adverse effects of iodine

A

exacerbation of hyperthyroidism
mucosal injury

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23
Q

What are the indications for potassium iodide

A

Preoperative preparation for thyroidectomy in Graves disease to decrease gland vascularity

thyroid storm

combo treatment to improve short term control of graves

S/P admin of radioiodine in Graves disease

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24
Q

When is potassium iodine used most commonly

A

used to treat severe hyperthyroidism and to protect the thyroid gland when using radiopharmaceuticals

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25
What is the PK of radioactive iodine
orally admin. as sodium iodide rapidly absorbed into thyroid causing local destruction
26
How long does it take to inactivate the thyroid after taking radioactive iodine
6-18weeks
27
What are the indications for radioactive iodine
Graves Toxic adenoma multi nodular goiter
28
What are clinical presentations of hypercalcemia
Shortened QT wave ST depression AV blocks
29
What are some common causes of hypercalcemia
hyperparathyroidism malignancy thiazides lithium pancreatitis granulomatous disease
30
What are some options for treating hypercalcemia
IV hydration calcitonin bisphosphonates loop diuretis glucocorticoids denosumab dialysis
31
What is the treatment for low to moderate hypercalcemia
hydration and fix underlying causes
32
How do you treat severe hypercalcemia
Calcitonin Zoledronic acid Denosumab
33
What is the job of calcitonin
Stimulates Ca2+ deposites in bones and decrease uptake in the kidney
34
What is the job of vitamin D
Increase intestinal and renal uptake of Ca2+ and stimulates release from bones to stimulate bone mineralization
35
What does estrogen do
Inhibits apoptosis in osteoblasts Induces apoptosis in osteoclasts estrogen deficiency leads to excess remodeling and bone resorption = osteoporosis
36
A low or intermittent levels of PTH, what effect does it have
anabolic effects of osteoblasts
37
If there is Hugh PTH levels, what is the cause
catabolic effects of osteoblasts
38
What is the MOA of bisphosphonates
Inhibits osteoclast activity which reduces bone resorption and turnover
39
What are medications that are bisphosphonates
Alendronate Risendronate Zoledronic acid Ibandronate
40
What is the indication for alendronate
Osteoporosis pagets Osteopenia in non-ambulatory pts
41
What is the indication for risedronate
Osteoporosis pagets
42
What is the indication for ibandronate
Osteoporosis
43
What is the indication for Zoledronic acid
osteoporosis malignant hypercalcemia bone metastesis multiple myeloma
44
What are the side effects of bisphosphonates
Bone/joint/muscle pain Nausea, heartburn, diarrhea Upper GI irritation (Alendronate) Headache Atypical femur fractures osteonecrosis of jaw Hypcalcemia
45
What are contraindications for bisphosphonates
Esophageal disorders renal insufficiency hypocalcemia Taking with food (30-60 min before food)
46
What is the MOA of calcitonin
Antagonizes effects of PTH inhibits osteoclast activity promotes renal secretion of Ca2+
47
What are the indications for calcitonin
Hypercalcemia pagets disease Post menopausal osteoporosis pain from osteoporotic fx
48
What are adverse effects of calcitonin
Rhinitis epistaxis back pain N/V bronchospasm hypocalcemia anaphylaxis
49
What is the MOA of vitamin D
Cholecalciferol is a provitamin. The active metabolites 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D which stimulates Ca2+ absorption from the small intestine to promote bone mineralization
50
What are the indications for vitamin D
Deficiency Osteoporosis Hypoparathyroidism
51
What are the adverse effects of vitamin D
Well tolerated
52
What are contraindications for Vitamin D
Hypercalcemia Primary hyperparathyroidism Sarcoidosis
53
What is the MOA of Calcitriol
Vit. D analog that stimulates intestinal Ca2+ absorption which decreases PTH synthesis and stimulate bone mineralization
54
What are the indications for Calcitriol
Renal failure Hypoparathyroidism rickets hypophosphatemia
55
What are the adverse effects of Calcitriol
Hypercalcemia hyperphosphatemia N/V
56
What are the contraindications for calcitriol
Pancreatitis soft tissue calcification arrhythmias
57
What is the MOA of denosumab
Recombinant antibody that inhibits RANK-L to bind to RANK (antiresorptive)
58
What are the indications for Denosumab
Osteoporosis Unable to tolerate/unresponsive to bisphosphonates renal impairment
59
What are the side effects of denosumab
Osteonecrosis of jaw atypical subtrochanteric fracture bone pain
60
What are the contraindications of denosumab
Hypocalcemia
61
What is the MOA of Teriparatide (Recombinate PTH)
Anabolic affect on bone metabolism by stimulating bone formation and activating bone remodeling treatment <2yrs / lifetime
62
What are the indications for teriparatide
Osteoporosis
63
What are the side effects of teriparatide
Generally well tolerates hypercalcemia/hypercalciuria orthostatic hypertension
64
What is the BBW for teriparatide
Osteosarcoma
65
What are the contraindications for teriparatide
Hypercalcemia severe renal impairment
66
What is the MOA for Raloxifene
Selective estrogen receptor modifier (SERM) acts like estrogen adonis in the bone, decreasing bone resorption and overall bone turnover = increase in bone density
67
What are the indications of Raloxifene
postmenopausal Osteoporosis
68
What are adverse effects of Raloxifene
Hot flashes leg cramps peripheral edema DVT/PE
69
What are the contraindications for Raloxifene
History of DVT/PE pregnancy
70
How do Thiazides effect calcium levels
Decrease urinary excretion Ca2+ inhibits secretion of calcium sometimes leading to hypercalcemia
71
How to loop diuretics effect calcium levels
Increases urinary calcium concentration useful with hypercalcemia because it stimulates Ca2+ excretion
72
What therapeutic effects do the fluoride ions have on the body
Increases osteoblast activity increase bone density *fx risk NOT reduced
73
What are the toxic effects of the fluoride ion
GI effects (N/V & Diarrhea) Renal/cardiac dysfunction