Flashcards in TM Questions Deck (900):
1.1. As defined by Campbell & Stanley (1963), selection is likely to be a threat to a study’s internal validity when:
A. two different intact groups act as the experimental group and control group
B. there is a differential loss of participants in the experimental and control groups.
C. participants are not randomly selected from the population.
D. participants in one group communicate important information to participants in another group.
1.1. Campbell and Stanley (1963) distinguished between eight major threats to a study's internal validity. These threats are described in the Statistics and Research design chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT Selection is a potential threat to a study's internal validity when, because of the way participants were assigned to groups, the groups differed in a relevant way before the treatment was applied.
b. Incorrect This answer describes the threat to internal validity known as mortality or attrition.
c. Incorrect In the context of threats to internal validity, selection refers to how participants were assigned to groups, not how they were selected from the population.
d. Incorrect This answer describes the threat to internal validity known as diffusion.
1.2. Research looking at the relationship between “expressed emotion” and Schizophrenia has found that:
A. negative expressed emotion is often an early sign of the disorder.
B. expressed emotion is related more to the negative than the positive symptoms of the disorder.
C. a high degree of negative expressed emotion by family members is associated with a high risk for relapse for a person with this disorder
D. an extremely high or extremely low level of expressed emotion by family members is an environmental factor that increases the risk for the development of this disorder.
1.2. In the context of Schizophrenia, negative expressed emotion refers to excessive criticism or hostility or, at the other extreme, emotional overinvolvement and overprotectiveness.
c. CORRECT The research has consistently linked negative expressed emotion by family members to a high risk of relapse and rehospitalization for a family member with Schizophrenia.
1.3. A 42 year old woman who has just begun taking lithium carbonate as a treatment for Bipolar Disorder will most likely experience which of the following side effects?
A. constipation, abdominal pain, and excessive salivation
B. nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain
C. increased appetite, carbohydrate craving, and weight gain
D. nausea, vomiting, constipation, and salt craving
1.3. Lithium may produce a number of unpleasant gastrointestinal side effects.
b. CORRECT Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, anorexia, and dry mouth are common early gastrointestinal side effects of lithium. These symptoms usually appear within a few weeks and, if they occur late in therapy, may be a sign of lithium toxicity.
1.4. The primary purpose of the state and provincial licensing board is to:
A. protect the profession of psychology.
B. Protect the public.
C. Define ethical standards of conduct.
D. Define standards of care.
1.4 The primary purpose of the licensing boards is to protect the public.
b. CORRECT To achieve this goal, the boards establish minimum standards of competence for psychologists including degree, supervision, and examination requirements.
1.5 Research by Nettlebeck and Burns (2000) found that declines in fluid intelligence (reasoning ability) that are observed after age 55 are due to decreases in:
A. overall cognitive ability
B. working memory capacity
C. prospective memory
D. the efficiency of sensory memory.
1.5 T. Nettlebeck and N. R. Burns investigated the causes of increases in fluid intelligence in children ages 8 to 14 and declines in fluid intelligence in older adults ages 50 and older [Processing speed, working memory, and reasoning ability from childhood to old age, Personality and Individual Differences, 48(4), 379-384, 2010].
b. CORRECT Nettlebeck and Burns found that an age-related decrease in working memory capacity is directly responsible for declines in reasoning ability and that, while some of the decrease in working memory capacity is attributable to a slower processing speed, a portion of the decrease is independent from processing speed. They attribute this age-related decrease in working memory to a loss of neurons in the hippocampus.
1.6. Stanley Milgram investigated which of the following Yale University in the 1960s?
A. the willingness of individuals to conform to group norms even when those norms were obviously incorrect
B. the willingness of individual to obey an authority even when doing so hard harmful consequences for someone else.
C. the ability of individuals holding a minority opinion to influence the opinion of the majority
D. the ability of exposure to repeated conflict among groups to generate hostility and aggression toward members of the outgroup
1.6 Milgram's research at Yale University is among the most well-known and conroversial research in the field of social psychology.
b. CORRECT Milgram's research found that, under certain conditions, people are willing to comply with the requests of an authority, even when doing seems to have negative consequences for another person.
1.7 Complete or almost complete loss of movement is referred to as:
1.7 All of the terms listed in the responses refer to movement disturbances.
a. Incorrect Athetosis refers to slow, uncoordinated, and involuntary movements of the extremities.
b. Incorrect Atonia is a lack of muscle tone.
c. Incorrect Akathisia is an inability to sit or stand motionless along with a feeling of restlessness.
d. CORRECT This is the definition of akinesia, which is associated with several disorders including stroke and Parkinson's disease.
1.8 A colleague of yours, an industrial psychologist, designs a study to investigate the relationship between job satisfaction and mental and physical health. Based on your knowledge of the research in this area, you tell him that:
A. there is no consistent relationship between job satisfaction and mental or physical health.
B. There is a positive relationship between job satisfaction and mental and physical health.
C. there is a positive relationship between job satisfaction and mental health but no relationship between job satisfaction and physical health.
D. there is a positive relationship between job satisfaction and physical health but no relationship between job satisfaction and mental health.
1.8 Even if you are unfamiliar with the research in this area, it seems logical that job dissatisfaction might be either a cause or effect of poor physical and/or mental health.
b. CORRECT Several studies have found a positive relationship between job satisfaction and both mental and physical health. Note, however, that the research has not demonstrated that job satisfaction causes mental/physical health or vice-versa, only that they are correlated.
1.9 Mike M., age 17, has an IQ of 80 and exhibits mild deficits in social and self-help skills. The most likely DSM-IV-TR diagnosis for Mike is:
A. Mild Mental Retardation
B. Moderate Mental Retardation
C. Borderline Intellectual Functioning
D. Borderline Cognitive Impairment
1.9 A diagnosis of Mental Retardation requires subaverage intelligence, deficits in adaptive functioning, and an onset prior to age 18.
a. Incorrect Because Mike’s IQ score is 80 and he exhibits only mild deficits in social and self-help skills, Mental Retardation is less likely than Borderline Intellectual Functioning to be the appropriate diagnosis for Mike.
c. CORRECT Mental Retardation is ordinarily not diagnosed unless the individual’s IQ is 70 or less. However, when an individual's IQ is between 71 and 75, the diagnosis may be assigned when the individual also has "significant deficits in adaptive behavior" (DSM-IV-TR, p. 48). Because Mike has an IQ of 80 and only mild deficits in adaptive functioning, a diagnosis of Borderline Intellectual Functioning is most appropriate.
d. Incorrect Borderline Cognitive Impairment is not a DSM-IV-TR diagnosis.
1.10 Reactive Attachment Disorder of Infancy or Early Childhood, Inhibited Type, is most likely to involve which of the following?
B. unusual verbal and nonverbal communication
C. indiscriminant attachments
1.10 As defined by DSM-IV-TR, Reactive Attachment Disorder, Inhibited Type, is characterized by inhibited, hypervigilant, or highly ambivalent and contradictory responses in social interactions.
a. Incorrect This is not characteristic of this disorder.
b. Incorrect This is also not characteristic of this disorder.
c. Incorrect This describes the Disinhibited Type.
d. CORRECT Hypervigilance is one of the features of this form of Reactive Attachment Disorder.
1.11 In the context of family therapy, the purpose of “reframing” is to:
A. diffuse balance
B. redefine behaviors
C. increase specificity
D. anchor behaviors.
1.11 Even if you've never heard of "reframing," you probably could have guessed that its purpose is to redefine the situation.
b. CORRECT As its name implies, reframing is done in order to help a client see things from a different perspective. It is often used in a paradoxical way -- e.g., telling an adolescent that "your parents' nagging is a sign of their love for you."
1.12 Dr. Nillson, a behavioral psychologist, is teaching clinical psychology at a university. She does not use, nor can she tolerate the use of, psychodynamic principles and interventions in psychotherapy. She refuses to teach psychodynamic therapy in her classes and actually makes fun of it in front of her students during informal gatherings. Her behavior is:
A. unethical- she has an obligation to provide accurate and objective information about the topic she is teaching.
B. ethical — she has the freedom of choice to teach whatever she wants in her classes.
C. acceptable — she would be poorly trained to teach psychodynamics and psychotherapy anyway.
D. ethical — but she should not be making fun of any psychological practice in front of her students.
1.12 Dr. Nillson’s behavior violates Standard 7.03 of the Ethics Code, which calls for accuracy in teaching, as well as General Principle C (Integrity), which encourages "accuracy, honesty, and truthfulness."
a. CORRECT Dr. Nillson’s behavior is in violation of the Ethics Code.
b. Incorrect As a psychologist, Dr. Nillson has an ethical duty to teach objectively, fully, and accurately.
c. Incorrect Dr. Nillson is ethically obligated to make sure her choice of topics is not biased by her own personal beliefs. If she is unqualified to teach certain areas, she could arrange to have someone else do so.
d. Incorrect Dr. Nillson’s behavior is biased and, therefore, is unethical.
1.13 An advantage of structural magnetic resonance imaging (MRI0 over computed tomography (CT) is that the former:
A. provides clearer images
B. is less likely to require sedation of the patient.
C. provides information on functional brain activity.
D. can detect electrical abnormalities.
1.13 Neuroimaging techniques are divided into two types – structural and functional. CT and MRI are both structural techniques.
a. CORRECT MRI uses magnetic fields to produce detailed cross-sectional images of the brain. An important advantage of MRI over a CT scan is that MRI has better resolution.
b. Incorrect Because MRI requires the patient to be completely still for a prolonged period of time, the patient may need to be sedated. A CT scan requires less time and, therefore, is less likely to require sedation.
c. Incorrect Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) provides information on the functional activities of the brain, but MRI is a structural technique that provides information on the structure of the brain only.
d. Incorrect This is an advantage of EEG (electroencephalography), which is why it is used in the assessment of epilepsy.
1.14 When a forensic evaluation of a minor by a psychologist is court-ordered, the psychologist:
A. must get an informed consent from one of the minor’s parents or his/her legal guardian before conducting the evaluation.
B. must get an informed consent from both of the minor’s parents or his/her legal guardian before conducting the evaluation.
C. does not have to get an informed consent form the minor’s parent(s) or legal guardian before conducting the evaluation
D. does not have to get an informed consent from the minor’s parent(s) or legal guardian only if the minor is incapable of giving informed consent him/herself.
1.14 In forensic settings, the need to obtain an informed consent for an evaluation of a minor depends on who is requesting the evaluation.
c. CORRECT R. I. Simon and L. H. Gold address this issue and state that, when a forensic evaluation of a minor is court-ordered, it is not necessary to obtain consent from the minor's parents (American Psychiatric Publishing textbook of forensic psychiatry, Arlington, VA, American Psychiatric Publishing, Inc., 2004).
1.15 Dr. Billie Bloom requires students in his introductory psychology class to participate in a university-sponsored research project as a requirement for the course. This is:
A. unethical under any circumstances.
B. ethical as long as the resarch exposes students to "minimum risk."
C. ethical as long as students are given a choice of completing an alternative assignment
D. ethical as long as students are made aware of this requirement before they enroll in his class.
1.15 This issue is addressed in Standard 8.04(b) of the APA's Ethics Code.
c. CORRECT Standard 8.04(b) states that, "when research participation is a course requirement or an opportunity for extra credit, the prospective participant is given the choice of equitable alternative activities."
1.16 Smith, Glass, and Miller’s (1980) use of meta-analysis involved:
A. counting the number of psychotherapy outcome studies that found a statistically significant difference between treatment and no-treatment groups.
B. statistically comparing the number of psychotherapy outcomes studies that did and did not find significant treatment effects.
C. determining the average magnitude of the outcome of psychotherapy across a large number of outcome studies.
D. using initial symptom severity and type and duration of treatment to predict average treatment outcome.
1.16 Smith et al. combined the results of 475 studies on the effectiveness of psychotherapy (Smith, M. L., Glass, G. V., & Miller, R. L., The benefits of psychotherapy, Baltimore, Johns Hopkins University Press, 1980).
a. Incorrect This response describes the "box score" method, not meta-analysis.
b. Incorrect This response describes using an inferential statistical test to compare outcome data for two groups.
c. CORRECT When using meta-analysis, the outcomes of each study are converted to a common metric – i.e., an effect size – and an average effect size is calculated.
d. Incorrect This response describes multiple regression.
1.17 The primary goal of self-instructional training (SIT) for children exhibiting hyperactivity and excessive impulsivity is to:
A. eliminate obsessive rumination
B. re-align intention and action
C. clarify response contingencies
D. insert thought between stimulus and response.
1.17 SIT involves training the individual to guide his/her actions with internally-originated verbal instructions. Additional information about SIT is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
b. Incorrect This answer is close but not as good as response d.
c. Incorrect Although self-instruction includes self-reinforcement, this is not the primary goal of SIT.
d. CORRECT Hyperactive and impulsive children often respond to events automatically. The goal of SIT is to reduce automatic behaviors by inserting thoughts between an event and the response to that event.
1.18 John Watson produced a phobia in Albert B. by using which of the following procedures:
A. physically confining the child so that he could not move
B. requiring the child to make difficult stimulus discriminations
C. pairing an aversive US with a neutral CS
D. providing punishment noncontingent on behavior
1.18 John Watson applied Pavlov's classical conditioning model to human behavior. In his most famous study, Watson taught Albert B., an 11-month-old child, to fear a white rat.
a. Incorrect Albert B.'s phobia was established through classical conditioning and, thus, did not involve confining him.
b. Incorrect Pavlov showed that this procedure produced "experimental neurosis"; it is not the procedure used by Watson.
c. CORRECT Albert B.'s phobia was created by pairing a US (loud noise) with a CS (white rat) so that the CS alone eventually elicited a startle response.
d. Incorrect Watson's research with Albert did not involve the application of punishment. The use of punishment to decrease a response is an operant conditioning technique.
1.19 Longitudinal research by the National Institute of Child Health and Human Development (NICHD) has found a positive relationship between the number of hours a young child spends in daycare and the rates of:
A. Oppositional Defiant Disorder, Conduct Disorder, and other clinical disorders
B. disobedience and other behavioral problems
C. language and academic skill deficits.
D. language and academic skill deficits and behavioral problems.
1.19 The NICHD research has found that participation in high-quality early child care is actually associated with enhanced pre-academic (cognitive) skills and language performance at age 4-1/2. However, it is also associated with some negative consequences.
a. Incorrect The NICHD research found that children who attend daycare are not at higher risk for serious (clinical) behavioral problems.
b. CORRECT Children who attend daycare tend to exhibit a higher degree of externalizing behaviors and conflicts with adults even when quality, type, and stability of the daycare is controlled. However, these behaviors are within the normal range.
c. Incorrect As noted above, participation in daycare is associated with better pre-academic and language skills.
1.20 Which of the following is an example of higher-order conditioning?
A. A CS is paired with an US until a CR is established; subsequently, the CR occurs in the presence of stimuli similar to the US.
B. A CS is paired with an US until a CR is established; subsequently, the CS elicits a variety of responses including the CR.
C. A CS is paired with an US until a CR is established; subsequently, the CS is paired with a second US until a second CR is established.
D. A CS is paired with an US until a CR is established; subsequently, a second CS is paired with the first CS until it also elicits a CR.
1.20 Higher-order conditioning involves using a CS as an US in order to establish a CR for a second CS.
a. Incorrect This describes stimulus generalization.
b. Incorrect This could be interpreted as response generalization, although the description is too vague to know exactly what is being described.
c. Incorrect This simply describes classical conditioning in which the CS is paired with two different US's.
d. CORRECT This describes the procedure known as higher-order conditioning.
1.21 For an extended family systems (Bowenian) therapist, when a family exhibits a high degree of fusion but one member is more differentiated than the others, the likely approach would be to:
A. work with the least differentiated family members.
B. work with the most differentiated family member.
C. work with all members of the extended family as a group.
D. work with all family members in individual therapy until they reach a similar level of differentiation.
1.21 According to Murray Bowen, a high degree of fusion (emotional "stuck togetherness") is the source of family dysfunction. The goal of Bowen's form of family therapy, therefore, is to help family members become less fused, or more differentiated (individuated). In contrast to many other family therapists, Bowen's form of therapy typically does not involve seeing all of the family members.
a. Incorrect Followers of Bowen would likely work first with the most differentiated family member.
b. CORRECT Bowen often worked with the most differentiated family member on the assumption that, when that member changed in a positive way, his/her change would motivate other family members to move toward greater differentiation.
c. Incorrect In contrast to many other family therapists, Bowen typically worked with the two most significant adult family members, usually the parents, or the parent who was the most differentiated, even when the "identified patient" was a child.
d. Incorrect This is not a technique used by Bowen.
1.22 You have just compared a research study but have not yet published it results. A colleague of yours who is familiar with you study requests the data you have collected. Which of the following best describes the requirements of the APA’s Ethics Code with regard to this situation?
A. You are required to comply with the colleague's request only if her purpose in requesting the data is to re-analyze it.
B. You are required to comply with the colleague's request only if she agrees to protect the confidentiality of the study's participants.
C. You are not required to comply with the colleague’s request since the results of the study have not yet been published.
D. You are not required to comply with the colleague's request unless she has a "legitimate concern" about the accuracy the data.
1.22 This issue is addressed in Standard 8.14 of the APA's Ethics Code.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Standard 8.14 states the following: "After research results are published, psychologists do not withhold the data on which their conclusions are based from other competent professionals who seek to verify the substantive claims through reanalysis and who intend to use such data only for that purpose, provided that the confidentiality of the participants can be protected and unless legal rights concerning proprietary data preclude their release." Since you have not yet published your study, you are not obligated to comply with the colleague's request.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
1.23 A family therapist would use the technique known as “prescribing the symptom” in order to:
A. undermine the family’s resistance to change.
B. reduce tension between family members.
C. change the meaning of a situation by changing the way it is perceived.
D. educate family members about the benefits of change.
1.23 Prescribing the symptom is a paradoxical technique that involves instructing family members to engage in the problematic behavior, often in an exaggerated form. For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the paradoxical tehniques described in the section on family therapies in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials so that you can answer questions like this one.
a. CORRECT The purpose of prescribing the symptom is to undermine the family's resistance to changing a behavior by requesting that family members engage in the behavior. Ideally, this will cause them to rebel and engage, instead, in a more desirable behavior.
b. Incorrect This is not an accurate description of the purpose of prescribing the symptom.
c. Incorrect This is a better description of the technique known as relabeling.
d. Incorrect This is not an accurate description of the purpose of prescribing the symptom.
1.24 Use of the technique known as meta-analysis entails calculating an “effect size,” which can be best described as:
A. a statistically significant difference between experimental and control groups.
B. A standardized mean difference between experimental and control groups
C. A zero-order correlation
D. A partial regression coefficient
1.24 The term meta-analysis is used to describe a quantitative integration of research studies involving the calculation and aggregation of "effect size" estimates.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT There are several ways to calculate an effect size, but a commonly used method involves subtracting the control group mean from the experimental group mean and dividing the result by either the control group standard deviation or the pooled within-group standard deviation. The result is a standard score that indicates the difference between the experimental and control groups in terms of standard deviation units.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
1.25 Individuals who receive a diagnosis of which of the following Personality Disorders are most likely to no longer meet all of the diagnostic criteria for the disorder when they reach middle age?
A. Schizotypal Personality Disorder
B. Antisocial Personality Disorder
C. Paranoid Personality Disorder
D. Avoidant Personality Disorder
1.25 Although Antisocial Personality Disorder (APD) is considered to be chronic, symptoms often "become less evident or remit as the individual grows older, particularly by the fourth decade of life" (DSM-IV-TR, p. 704).
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The reduction in symptoms in APD by middle age most often involves a decrease in criminal behaviors while other characteristic symptoms – especially problems related to interpersonal relationships – persist to some degree. See, e.g., J. Paris, Personality disorders over time: Implications for therapy, American Journal of Psychotherapy, 58(4), 420-429, 2004.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
1.26 Dr. Bernard is designing a longitudinal study on drug use in high schools. Since the study is longitudinal, it will be necessary to maintain records containing participants’ identities. A colleague of Dr. Bernard’s reminds him of a similar situation in which the investigator was subpoenaed to appear to court to testify against a participant who had been involved in illegal activities. The investigator refused to testify in order to maintain the participant’s confidentiality and was imprisoned. What should Dr. Bernard do in order to avoid a similar dilemma:
A. if subpoenaed by the court, testify, since legal requirements override ethical considerations.
B. if subpoenaed by the court, testify only after obtaining the consent of the participant.
C. warn participants prior to participation in the student about the possibility of a breach of confidentiality and obtain informed consents.
D. design the study so that the names of participants are maintained in a separate file by a third party.
1.26 Standard 8.02(a) of APA's Ethics Code states that psychologists "... psychologists inform participants about ... reasonably foreseeable factors that may be expected to influence their willingness to participate such as potential risks, discomfort, or adverse effects ... limits of confidentiality."
a. Incorrect To some degree, this answer correctly describes a psychologist's legal obligations in this situation. After being subpoenaed by the court, a psychologist usually asserts privilege. If privilege is not recognized, the psychologist usually must testify in order to avoid being held in contempt of court. However, this is not the best answer in that it does not deal with how the psychologist can "avoid this dilemma." If the psychologist testifies, he has fulfilled his legal obligation without having dealt with his ethical obligation regarding confidentiality.
b. Incorrect Legally, a psychologist who has been subpoenaed by the court must testify (if the court does not recognize privilege) whether or not he has the consent of his client. Thus, this course of action would not resolve the dilemma between the psychologist's legal and ethical obligations.
c. CORRECT This is most in accord with the above-cited Standard, and it represents a balance between the psychologist's legal and ethical obligations. If he informs participants of the limits of confidentiality, they will give their consent to participate with full awareness of the possibility that the psychologist or his files might be subpoenaed.
d. Incorrect This course of action does not reduce the possibility that either the records or the psychologist will be subpoenaed.
1.27 According to the APA’s Guidelines for Psychological Services to Ethnic, Linguistic, and Culturally Diverse Populations, when a client belonging to a different ethnic or cultural group comes to therapy, a therapist is best advised to:
A. treat the client like any other person unless there is reason to do otherwise
B. alter the diagnostic and treatment processes to coincide with the client's ethnic or cultural background.
C. recognize that ethnic and cultural forces can have an impact on both the therapist’s and the client’s psychological processes.
D. refer the client to another therapist from the same ethnic or cultural background whenever it is feasible to do so
1.27 The Guidelines for Psychological Services to Ethnic, Linguistic, and Culturally Diverse Populations addresses several issues related to assessment, intervention, and research with clients from different ethnic and cultural backgrounds.
a. Incorrect Although there are times when this would be the appropriate course of action (e.g., when the client exhibits a high degree of acculturation into the "mainstream" culture), it is not a recommended strategy.
b. Incorrect This may be appropriate in some situations, but not all of them.
c. CORRECT Paragraph 3a states that "Psychologists recognize ethnicity and culture as significant parameters underlying psychological processes," and this refers not only to the processes of the client but also to those of the therapist (e.g., therapists must be aware of their own prejudices and stereotypes when working with clients from different ethnic and cultural groups).
d. Incorrect This may be appropriate in some situations but is not a general requirement.
1.28 Which of the following distinguishes fetal alcohol syndrome from fetal alcohol effects?
A. the age of onset of symptoms
B. the severity of physical symptoms
C. the time during prenatal development when the fetus was exposed to alcohol
D. the degree of alcohol dependence exhibited by the infant at birth
1.28 The Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorders (FASD) are all caused by prenatal exposure to alcohol but vary in terms of the severity of symptoms.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Fetal alcohol effects (FAE) is a milder and less complete expression of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) – i.e., the symptoms (especially physical symptoms) of FAE are less severe. Note that the term fetal alcohol effects has been replaced in the medical literature by alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorder (ARND) and alcohol-related birth defects (ARBD).
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
1.29 A child with ADHD would most likely obtain the HIGHEST score on which of the following WISC-IV subtests?
C. Picture Concepts
1.29 To identify the correct response to this question, you need to know which of the four subtests listed in the answers is least affected by the core symptoms of ADHD.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Of the subtests listed in the answers, Picture Concepts is least affected by ADHD. In fact, it is one of the subtests that individuals with this disorder are likely to obtain the highest score on. Performance on the other three subtests listed in the answers (Cancellation, Arithmetic, and Coding) depends on attention, concentration, and speed, which are abilities that are adversely affected by ADHD.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
1.30 According to Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s (1993) Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model, an African-American therapy client in the conformity stage will most likely:
A. prefer a white therapist
B. be unwilling to self-disclose to a white therapist.
C. say his/her problems are directly related to racial oppression.
D. prefer a therapist who has expertise in working with African Americans.
1.30 The Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model consists of five stages: conformity, dissonance, resistance and immersion, introspection, and integrative awareness. Additional information on these stages is provided in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT During the initial conformity stage, African Americans have positive attitudes toward Whites and negative attitudes toward their own group; and, in therapy, they are likely to prefer a White therapist.
b. Incorrect This is characteristic of African American therapy clients in the dissonance, resistance and immersion, or introspection stage.
c. Incorrect This is characteristic of clients in the dissonance or resistance and immersion stage.
d. Incorrect This is true about African American clients in the introspection or integrative awareness stage.
1.31 Rutter (1979) identified several high-risk factors (“Rutter’s indicators”) for the development of psychopathology in children. These factors include:
A. physical disabilities, small family size, and paternal psychiatric disorder.
B. low IQ, large family size, and chronic physical illness.
C. parental marital discord, high socioeconomic status, and parental psychiatric disorder.
D. parental marital discord, large family size, and paternal criminality
1.31 Rutter found that the presence of a single high-risk factor did not predict increased rates of psychopathology for young children. However, the combination of two or more risk factors increased the rate dramatically.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Rutter's indicators for psychopathology are low SES, large family size, paternal criminality, parental marital discord, maternal psychiatric disorder, and being placed in foster care.
1.32 “Autocorrelation” is most likely to be a problem when using which of the following research designs?
A. Solomon four-group
B. repeated measures
C. between groups
1.32 Autocorrelation refers to the correlation between measurements of the dependent variable when the dependent variable is repeatedly administered to the same subjects.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Of the designs listed, repeated measurement occurs only in repeated measures designs.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
1.33 According to Carl Rogers, a therapist is “congruent” when the therapist:
A. is able to accurately “reflect” the client’s feelings.
B. avoids becoming “emotionally triangulated” with the client.
C. avoids making judgments about the client’s behaviors.
D. is authentic and nondefensive
1.33 Rogers proposed that, for therapy to be effective, the therapist must provide three facilitative conditions – unconditional positive regard, congruence (genuineness), and accurate empathic understanding. Additional information on these conditions is provided in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect This sounds more like accurate empathic understanding.
b. Incorrect This does not describe congruence.
c. Incorrect This describes unconditional positive regard.
d. CORRECT Congruence involves being genuine, authentic, and nondefensive.
1.34 In 2010, the American Psychological Association amended Ethics Code Standard 1.02 (Conflicts Between Ethics and Law, Regulations, or Other Governing Legal Authority) and Standard 1.03 (Conflicts Between Ethics and Organizational Demands) in response to concerns about:
A. individual privacy
B. human rights violations
C. misuse of a psychologist’s work
D. multiple relationships
1.34 Standards 1.02 and 1.03 previously stated that, when psychologists are unable to resolve a conflict between ethical responsibilities and legal requirements or organizational demands by taking "reasonable steps," they may adhere to the requirements of the law or the demands of the organization.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT In response to concerns about a psychologist's response to a law or organizational demand that requires the psychologist to engage in torture or other inhumane or degrading action, the APA revised Standards 1.02 and 1.03 so that they now include the following statement: "Under no circumstances may this standard be used to justify or defend violating human rights." This change became effective June 1, 2010.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
1.35 When males view erotic films that depict aggressive acts toward females:
A. they become more accepting of violence toward women.
B. they become more willing to support women's rights.
C. they become sexually aroused and less aggressive, even when provoked.
D. they are less likely to act aggressively than males who view non-aggressive erotic films.
1.35 The research has found that, at least under certain conditions, viewing violence tends to increase violence.
a. CORRECT A number of studies have found that exposure to aggressive erotic films increases aggression toward females as well as acceptance of violence toward women.
b. Incorrect This is the opposite of what has been found.
c. Incorrect Studies have found that exposure to an aggressive erotic film can increase aggressiveness and that this effect is enhanced when the individual is provoked following viewing of the film.
d. Incorrect Exposure to mild non-aggressive erotica has been found to reduce aggression.
1.36 To determine the degree of association between two continuous variables that have been artificially dichotomized, you would use which of the following correlation coefficients?
1.36 For the licensing exam, you want to be familiar with the uses of the four correlation coefficients listed in the answers to this question.
a. Incorrect Eta is used to determine the relationship between two continuous variables when the relationship is known to be nonlinear.
b. Incorrect The biserial correlation coefficient is used to determine the relationship between one continuous variable and one artificially dichotomized variable.
c. CORRECT The tetrachoric correlation coefficient is used to determine the relationship between two normally distributed continuous variables that have been artificially dichotomized. For example, it would be used to assess the degree of association between treatment outcome and symptom severity, when both variables were originally measured on a continuous scale but were then dichotomized so that outcome is categorized as either successful or unsuccessful and symptom severity is categorized as either mild or severe.
d. Incorrect The contingency correlation coefficient is used to determine the relationship between two nominal variables.
1.37 An African-American client feels that the primary obstacle in his life is racism and that there’s nothing he can do to change the problems he is experiencing. As defined by Sue (1978), this individual has an:
A. internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility.
B. external locus of control and internal locus of responsibility.
C. internal locus of control and external locus of responsibility.
D. external locus of control and external locus of responsibility
1.37 Even if you are unfamiliar with Sue's conceptualization of worldview, you probably could have identified the correct response by considering the information provided in the question.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT This individual has an external locus of responsibility (he can't do anything about his problems) and an external locus of control (he believes his problems are due to racism).
1.38 Matching a therapy client to his/her therapist in terms of ethnicity or culture:
A. is a more accurate predictor of treatment length than treatment outcome
B. is a more accurate predictor of treatment outcome than treatment length.
C. is a good predictor of treatment length and outcome across all ethnic/cultural groups.
D. is not a good predictor of treatment length or outcome regardless of ethnic/cultural group.
1.38 The research on ethnic matching is far from consistent. However, most studies have found that it has a greater impact on premature termination from therapy than on its outcomes.
a. CORRECT Members of some groups are more likely than others to benefit from client-therapist matching in terms of ethnicity. When there are benefits, however, they are usually (but not always) for dropout rates rather than for therapy effectiveness.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
1.39 The symptoms of numbness, weakness, tremor, and ataxia that characterize multiple sclerosis are due to:
A. lesions in the basal ganglia.
C. degeneration of ACh receptors.
D. cerebellar atrophy
1.39 Multiple sclerosis is due to a loss of myelin on nerve fibers in the brain and spinal cord.
a. Incorrect Loss of cells in the basal ganglia underlies Parkinson's disease and Huntington's chorea.
b. CORRECT As noted above, demyelination is the cause of the symptoms of multiple sclerosis.
c. Incorrect A loss of ACh receptors is the cause of myasthenia gravis.
d. Incorrect Cerebellar atrophy is associated with several disorders including ataxia.
1.40 A 47 year old politician teaching his aides the essentials of dirty tricks tells them, “Nothing is wrong unless you get caught.” One of his aides, a developmental psychologist, comments to another aide that the politician is apparently at the _______ level of moral development.
1.40 Kohlberg's levels of moral development are preconventional morality (punishment-obedience orientation and instrumental-relativist orientation), conventional morality (good boy/nice girl orientation and law and order orientation), and postconventional morality (legalistic orientation and universal ethical principles orientation).
a. CORRECT Individuals at the punishment-obedience level of preconventional morality believe an action is moral to the degree that it does not result in punishment. Although this stage is characteristic of children aged 4 to 10, it seems that this politician is also at this level.
b. Incorrect Conventional morality, which is typical of individuals aged 10-13, is characterized by moral judgments motivated by a desire to be liked (good boy/nice girl orientation) or a desire to avoid censure by authority (law and order orientation).
c. Incorrect Postconventional morality, a level which is not reached by most adults, is characterized by a concern for maintaining the social order (legalistic orientation) or meeting the criteria set by one's own conscience (universal Ethical Principles orientation).
d. Incorrect The instrumental-relativist stage, in which moral judgments are based on a desire to satisfy one's own needs, is the second stage of the preconventional level.
1.41 Inspection of an examinee’s K-corrected MMPI-2 profile reveals that she obtained a T score of 65 or above on the majority of the clinical scales. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this profile?
A. The examinee randomly selected true and false responses.
B. The examinee answered true to all items.
C. Additional evaluation for Malingering is warranted.
D. Additional evaluation for suicidal ideation is warranted.
1.41 There are several causes of unusual score profiles on the MMPI-2 including random responding and answering all items either true or false.
a. CORRECT Random responding (or alternating true and false responses) produces high scores on most of the clinical scales along with a very high score on the F-scale.
b. Incorrect In this situation, an approximately equal number of clinical scales will have low and high scores.
c. Incorrect Malingering produces a "sawtooth" pattern in the score profile (high and low scores on alternate scales).
d. Incorrect Suicidal ideation is not suggested by this pattern.
1.42 Research on attraction suggests that we are most likely to join a group when members are:
A. similar in terms of attitudes and ability
B. dissimilar in terms of attitudes and ability.
C. similar in terms of attitude but diverse in terms of ability.
D. diverse in terms of attitude but similar in terms of ability.
1.42 A consistent finding of the research is that attraction to others is most often related to similarity -- i.e., "I'll like you, if you're like me."
a. CORRECT The studies have shown that people tend to be attracted to others who are similar in terms of personality, attitudes, ability, and a number of other characteristics.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
1.43 The use of functional brain imaging techniques to study ADHD has linked its symptoms to lower-than-normal levels of metabolic activity in the:
A. prefrontal cortex and basal ganglia
B. prefrontal cortex and ARAS.
C. entorhinal cortex and SCN.
D. entorhinal cortex and thalamus.
1.43 Knowing the functions of the brain areas listed in the responses and the core symptoms of ADHD would have helped you choose the correct answer to this question even if you are unfamiliar with the brain-imaging research.
a. CORRECT The prefrontal cortex is involved in executive cognitive functions (e.g., planning, decision-making, attention), while the basal ganglia are involved in the regulation of movement. Abnormalities in both have been linked to ADHD.
1.44 During the first therapy session with a new client, you realize that he is the father of a young woman you have been seeing in therapy for three months. The daughter is 22 years old and no longer lives with her parents. The most relevant ethical issue in this situation is:
B. multiple relationship
D. informed consent.
1.44 This is a straightforward question that may have seemed "too obvious." When taking the exam, be sure not to sabotage your ability to choose the correct response to an easy item by assuming that it is a "trick question."
b. CORRECT Multiple relationships occur when a psychologist is involved in more than one role with a person (and at least one role is a professional relationship) or has a professional relationship with one person and becomes involved in a relationship with another individual who is related to that person. In most situations, multiple relationships should be avoided.
1.45 Research investigating the impact of parenting style on the academic achievement of children and adolescents suggests that the effects are:
A. modified by the offspring's temperament.
B. modified by the family’s ethnicity/culture
C. modified by level of parental education.
D. not affected by temperament, ethnicity/culture, or parental education.
1.45 A number of studies have linked authoritative parenting with the most positive outcomes for children and adolescents.
b. CORRECT This is some evidence that the benefits of authoritative parenting are modified by family ethnicity or culture. For example, L. Sternberg et al. report that the authoritative style is beneficial for the school success of white and Hispanic students but that, for Asian- and African-Americans, this style does not predict school achievement [Ethnic differences in adolescent achievement: An ecological perspective, American Psychologist, 47(6), 723-729, 1992].
1.46 In the context of training programs, utility analysis would be used to:
A. identify organizational needs with regard to training.
B. identify the effective components of a training program.
C. assess the satisfaction of participants with the training program.
D. Assess the return-on-investment of the training program
1.46 The term "utility analysis" is sometimes used interchangeably with the term "cost-benefit analysis," and its meaning varies somewhat, depending on the field or context in which it is being used.
d. CORRECT In organizations, utility analysis relies on accounting procedures to evaluate the costs and benefits of training programs, selection procedures, and other personnel interventions. With regard to training, this might involve considering the costs of developing and implementing the training program, estimates of the productivity of trained versus untrained employees, and the length of time that training is expected to affect employee productivity. See, e.g., W. F. Cascio, Using utility analysis to assess training outcomes, in I. L. Goldstein (Ed.), Training and Development in Organizations, San Francisco, Jossey-Bass, 1989.
1.47 When conducting a factor analysis, a researcher would choose an orthogonal (rather than oblique) rotation when:
A. the variables included in the analysis are correlated.
B. the variables included in the analysis are uncorrelated.
C. the effects of one or more variables have been removed from X only.
D. the effects of one or more variables have been removed from X and Y.
1.47 When conducting a factor analysis, the rotation of factors can be either orthogonal or oblique.
a. Incorrect An oblique rotation is used when the variables included in the analysis are believed to be correlated. For example, if you conduct a factor analysis on three tests that are designed to measure verbal ability and three tests that are designed to measure nonverbal ability and there’s evidence that verbal and nonverbal ability are correlated, you would perform an oblique rotation.
b. CORRECT An orthogonal rotation is used when the variables included in the analysis are believed to be uncorrelated. For example, if you conduct a factor analysis on 50 questionnaire items designed to measure a leader’s task- or person-orientation and you believe that these two orientations are independent (uncorrelated), you would perform an orthogonal rotation.
c. Incorrect This answer describes semi-partial correlation.
d. Incorrect This answer describes partial correlation.
1.48 Trainability testing is most associated with which of the following?
A. aptitude tests
B. job enrichment
C. work sample tests
D. behavioral interviews
1.48 As its name suggests, trainability testing is done to evaluate a person’s potential for learning new skills and incorporate a combination of training and evaluation.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Although work samples are probably most often used to evaluate the current ability of experienced applicants to perform the job, they can also be used as trainability tests for applicants who do not have previous experience in order to evaluate their capacity to benefit from training.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
1.49 A person is most likely to be happy in a job that involves working with tools and objects, requires physical strength, and provides regular feedback in the form of practical results if his/her highest score is on the _____ subscale of Holland’s Self-Directed Search.
1.49 Holland distinguished between six personality/job environment themes.
a. Incorrect A person who scores high on the investigative theme has scientific, mathematical, analytic, or scholarly interests or skills.
b. Incorrect Mechanical is not one of Holland's themes.
c. Incorrect A person who scores high on the conventional theme has interests or skills in keeping records, organizing data, attending to detail, or following through on others' instructions.
d. CORRECT A person who scores high on the realistic theme enjoys or does well in technical, physical, mechanical, and/or outdoor activities.
1.50 Cortisol is a steroid secreted by the:
A. adrenal cortex
B. adrenal medulla
C. pineal gland
1.50 Cortisol is one of several steroid hormones.
a. CORRECT The steroid hormones are secreted by the adrenal cortex. They are critical for many bodily functions including mediating the stress response and maintaining blood sugar levels, bodily fluids, and electrolytes.
1.51 A young man experiences his first episode of Major Depressive Disorder in his mid-20s. If he does not obtain treatment for his depression it is MOST likely that:
A. his symptoms will gradually decline over a six to twelve month period and then remain steady in intensity.
B. his symptoms will remit within three to six months and they may or may not return in the future.
C. his symptoms will remit within two to six weeks and they may or may not return in the future.
D. his symptoms will gradually worsen over time.
1.51 Without treatment, a Major Depressive episode ordinarily lasts three to six months.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT About 50% of people experiencing their first depressive episode will fully recover within six months with no further symptoms, while 40% will experience recurrent episodes.
c. Incorrect Symptoms typically do not remit this quickly without treatment.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
1.52 The offspring of women who drink during pregnancy are most likely to have structural abnormalities in various organs including the central nervous system, heart, eyes, legs, and arms, and external genitalia when the mother consumes alcohol during the _______ of her pregnancy.
A. first trimester
B. second trimester
C. third trimester
D. second or third trimester
1.52 Although the results of research on the effects of alcohol consumption by a pregnant women on her offspring are not entirely consistent, it is possible to make some generalizations.
a. CORRECT Structural (physical) abnormalities are most likely to occur when a pregnant woman consumes alcohol during the first trimester. Alcohol consumption in the second and third trimesters is associated more with behavioral and psychological deficits. See, e.g., R. J. Haterman, Fetal alcohol syndrome, in Neurodevelopmental disorders: Diagnosis and treatment, New York, Oxford University Press, 1999.
1.53 Research evaluating the use of multi-component cognitive-behavioral therapy for rheumatoid arthritis has found that it:
A. improves social functioning but has little or no effect on pain intensity or joint inflammation.
B. improves comorbid anxiety and depression but has no effect on pain intensity or joint inflammation.
C. improves psychological functioning and, in some cases, has a beneficial effect on pain intensity and joint inflammation
D. reduces pain intensity and joint inflammation but has little or no effect on overall psychological functioning.
1.53 This is a difficult question since the research on the effects of cognitive-behavior therapy (CBT) on the physical and psychological functioning of patients with rheumatoid arthritis has not produced entirely consistent results.
c. CORRECT Of the answers given, this is the best one since the qualifier "in some cases" reflects the inconsistency of the research results. While the studies have generally found that CBT has beneficial effects on feelings of self-efficacy, anxiety, and other aspects of psychological functioning, its effects on the physical symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis vary from study to study. In some studies, however, CBT did reduce pain intensity and joint impairment and inflammation. See, e.g., A. O’Leary et al., A cognitive-behavioral treatment for rheumatoid arthritis, Health Psychology, 7,527-544, 1988
1.54 A needs assessment ordinarily consists of three components. These are:
A. evaluative, formative, and summative analysis
B. job, person, and organizational analysis
C. unfreezing, changing, and refreezing
D. knowledge, skills, and abilities
1.54 A needs assessment is conducted in organizations to determine training needs.
b. CORRECT A comprehensive needs assessment includes an analysis of the job requirements, the people performing the job, and the goals of the organization. Additional information about needs assessment is provided in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
1.55 The evaluate the impact of an educational program on each student’s mastery of the information presented, which of the following would be most useful?
A. norm-referenced scores
B. criterion-referenced scores
C. standard scores
D. ipsative scores
1.55 To determine if a student has benefited from an educational program, you would most likely want to determine how much of the information presented in the program has been retained and/or to what degree participation in the program has improved the individual's performance on a task.
a. Incorrect Norm-referenced scores (e.g., standard scores, percentile ranks) tell you how well an examinee is doing compared to other examinees.
b. CORRECT Criterion-referenced scores tell you how well an examinee did in absolute terms (e.g., how many questions he/she answered correctly) and, therefore, would be most useful for the purpose described in the question.
c. Incorrect Standard scores are a type of norm referenced score.
d. Incorrect Ipsative scores indicate the relative strengths of the different characteristics measured by a test for the individual and would be less useful than criterion-referenced scores for the purpose described in the question.
1.56 Soon after birth, infants express, through facial expression:
A. discomfort, interest, and surprise
B. distress, interest, and disgust
C. joy, disgust, and fear.
D. joy, anger, and surprise.
1.56 Parents and researchers agree that infants exhibit a variety of emotions through their facial expressions.
b. CORRECT By 3 to 4 months of age, infants express at least four emotions through their facial expressions -- i.e., interest, sadness, distress, and disgust. Anger, joy, surprise, and fear do not emerge until about 6 to 8 months.
1.57 Which of the following best describes the relationship between REM sleep and dreaming?
A. All dreaming occurs during REM sleep
B. Most dreaming occurs during REM sleep and dreams during non-REM sleep are less vivid and elaborate and more realistic.
C. Most dreaming occurs during REM sleep but dreams during non-REM sleep are more vivid, elaborate, and bizarre in nature.
D. Most dreaming occurs during REM sleep and dreams during non-REM sleep occur only when the individual has been sleep-deprived.
1.57 Studies on sleep and dreaming have consistently confirmed that most dreams occur during REM (rapid eye movement) sleep.
b. CORRECT Although some dreaming occurs during non-REM (Stages 1 through 4) sleep, these dreams consist of fleeting images and are less vivid, detailed, and storylike than the dreams that occur during REM sleep.
1.58 The presence of multiple motor and vocal tics that had an onset at age 20 and a duration o 13 months is most suggestive of which DSM-IV-TR diagnosis?
A. Chronic Motor/Vocal Tics
B. Tourette''s Disorder
C. Atypical Tic Disorder
D. Tic Disorder NOS
1.58 The DSM-IV-TR distinguishes between four Tic Disorders – Tourette's Disorder, Chronic Motor or Vocal Tics, Transient Tic Disorder, and Tic Disorder NOS. Additional information about these disorders is provided in the Abnormal Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect A diagnosis of Chronic Motor or Vocal Tics requires the presence of a single or multiple motor or vocal tics that have an onset prior to age 18.
b. Incorrect A diagnosis of Tourette's Disorder requires an onset of symptoms prior to age 18.
c. Incorrect This is not a DSM-IV-TR diagnosis.
d. CORRECT The NOS diagnosis is appropriate when the individual does not meet the criteria for another Tic Disorder (e.g., because of the age of onset).
1.59 According to the path-goal theory of leadership, a primary task of a leader is to help subordinates find the best path for attaining goals. In terms of leadership style, this theory proposes that:
A. the best style (directive, supportive, participative, or achievement-oriented) depends on certain characteristics of the task and the subordinates.
B. the best style (directive, supportive, participative, or achievement-oriented) depends on the leader's experience, personality, and so on.
C. the best style is a participative one that allows employees to help set their own goals.
D. the best style is an achievement-oriented one that focuses on enhancing the skills and knowledge of subordinates so that they are better able to achieve their goals.
1.59 Path-goal theory is classified as a contingency theory because it proposes that the best style depends on the nature of the situation.
a. CORRECT According to path-goal theory, the best leadership style depends on certain characteristics of the task (e.g., level of ambiguity, structure) and of the workers (e.g., traits, abilities).
1.60 A psychologist determines that, for a 6 year child, Behavior A is more probable than Behavior B. The psychologist tells the parents to make the child’s opportunity to engage in Behavior A contingent on Behavior B. The psychologist is using which of the following techniques?
A. response cost
D. Premack principle
1.60 In this situation, the opportunity to engage in the more frequent behavior is being made contingent on performance of the less frequent behavior in order to increase the less frequent behavior.
d. CORRECT The Premack Principle is a type of positive reinforcement in which the reinforcer is a frequently occurring behavior. If you allow yourself to talk on the phone to friends (or watch TV) only after studying for at least one hour, you are using the Premack Principle.
1.61 A paraphilia is characterized by:
A. inhibitions in sexual desire
B. sexual urges involving non-living objects.
C. non-normative sexual arousal or activity
D. sexual guilt or shame.
1.61 According to DSM-IV-TR, the paraphilias are characterized by arousal in response to sexual objects or situations that are not part of normative arousal-activity patterns.
a. Incorrect A significant inhibition is sexual desire would be classified as a sexual dysfunction.
b. Incorrect This describes fetishism, which is a type of paraphilia.
c. CORRECT This response fits the above-cited definition. The paraphilias include fetishism, frotteurism, pedophilia, sexual masochism, sexual sadism, transvestic fetishism, voyeurism, and paraphilia not otherwise specified.
d. Incorrect Some people suffering from a paraphilia experience guilt or shame about their urges. For others, however, the paraphilia is ego-syntonic.
1.62 Dr. Able, a psychologist, has been seeing a client for five months and feels that the client may not be benefitting from treatment. When she mentions this to him, the client says that he is quite satisfied with the progress of therapy. Based on this information, Dr. Able’s best course of action would be to:
A. continue seeing the client in therapy since the client is satisfied.
B. tell the client that she is ethically required to refer him to another therapist.
C. obtain supervision to ensure that her treatment is effective.
D. consult with another psychologist to discuss the situation
1.62 When psychologists believe that a client is not benefitting from treatment, special consideration must be given to the situation.
d. CORRECT Although referral (response b) might be acceptable, it is not necessary as a first course of action in this case given the circumstances. Instead, consultation would be a better action since it would help the therapist determine if his evaluation of the situation is correct.
1.63 Research conducted in the 1930s found that ablation of the anterior temporal lobes in male rhesus monkeys produced a variety of symptoms including hypersexuality, placidity, oral tendencies, and psychic blindness. This condition is known as:
A. Kluver-Bucy syndrome
B. Gerstmann's syndrome.
C. Gerschwind syndrome.
D. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.
1.63 The research described in this question was conducted by Kluver and Bucy.
a. CORRECT This constellation of symptoms caused by lesions in the anterior temporal lobes is referred to as Kluver-Bucy syndrome.
1.64 As defined by Beck, “schemas” are:
A. cognitive structures
B. logical errors.
C. innate predispositions.
D. automatic interpretations.
1.64 For Beck and others, schemas are cognitive structures that represent knowledge about events, objects, or other phenomena. Schemas structure the way we think about the stimuli we encounter.
a. CORRECT Beck believes that cognitive schemas are the product of biological and environmental phenomena and develop early in life.
b. Incorrect Logical errors are important to Beck's theory but are not synonymous with cognitive schemas.
c. Incorrect Cognitive schemas are predispositions and do have a biological component, but this is not the best response.
d. Incorrect This sounds more like automatic thoughts, which are also part of Beck's theory but are not synonymous with cognitive schemas.
1.65 The standard error of measurement for a test that has a standard deviation of 15, a reliability coefficient of .96, and a validity coefficient of .60 is:
1.65 To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know the formula for the standard error of measurement.
b. CORRECT The standard error of measurement equals the standard deviation times the square root of 1 minus the reliability coefficient. For the test described in this question, the standard error of measurement equals 15 times the square root of 1 minus .96: 1 minus .96 is .04, and the square root of .04 is .2, so the standard error is 15 times .2 which equals 3. Additional information about the calculation and use of the standard error of measurement is provided in the Test Construction chapter of the written study materials.
1.66 National surveys in the United States have consistently found that adolescents are most likely to say they have used which of the following drugs?
1.66 Several surveys have investigated trends in drug use among high school students.
b. CORRECT For example, data from the National Survey on Drug Use and Health indicated that, in 2007, 15.9% of youth ages 12 to 17 reported drinking alcohol in the past month, 6.7% said they had used marijuana, and 9.8%% said they had smoked cigarettes.
1.67 Sherif’s (1965) social judgment theory implies that, before trying to persuade someone to your point of view, you should consider his/her:
A. categories of judgment
B. locus of control.
C. category-based expectancies.
D. level of self-monitoring.
1.67 Sherif's social judgment theory predicts that people have "categories of judgment" by which they evaluate persuasive messages.
a. CORRECT Sherif's theory distinguishes between three categories of judgment -- latitude of acceptance, latitude of non-commitment, and latitude of rejection. A person is most likely to be persuaded when a message is within his/her latitude of acceptance.
1.68 Elaine considers her friend, Tom, to be quiet and reserved. She says that when she is alone with Tom or when they are in a small group, Tom listens more than he talks and is never one to “make a scene.” One day, however, Elaine observes Tom in a large crowd that is waiting for the arrival of a “special celebrity guest” at the opening of a new shopping mall. The guest is nearly 30 minutes late, and the crowd is beginning to show signs of impatience. Elaine is surprised when she sees Tom initiate loud “booing” and other derogatory comments while waving his clenched fist in the air in anger. Which of the following best explains Tom’s unusual behavior?
B. social facilitation
D. paradoxical intention
1.68 A number of studies have shown that anonymity increases the likelihood that an individual will engage in antisocial or other uncharacteristic behaviors.
a. CORRECT The increased tendency to act in uncharacteristic ways when anonymity is likely is referred to as "deindividuation" (Zimbardo, 1970). Deindividuation is believed to be the result of a decreased sense of responsibility, reduced self-consciousness, a lowered fear of evaluation, and/or a loss of other inhibitory mechanisms.
b. Incorrect Social facilitation refers to the tendency toward improved task performance in the presence of others.
c. Incorrect Catharsis is the therapeutic release of tension, anxiety, etc.
d. Incorrect Paradoxical intention is a behavioral technique and is not related to this situation.
1.69 When an assumption for a one-way ANOVA is violated, the best course of action would be to use which of the following to analyze the data?
1.69 The one-way analysis of variance is used to compare three or more independent groups. (Although the one-way ANOVA can be used to compare two groups, the t-test is ordinarily used in this case.)
a. Incorrect The Mann-Whitney U test is used to compare two independent groups.
b. Incorrect The Wilcoxon matched-pairs test is used to compare two related groups.
c. CORRECT The Kruskal-Wallis is the nonparametric alternative to the one-way ANOVA. It can be used to compare two or more independent groups and is useful when one or more of the assumptions for the one-way ANOVA have been violated.
d. Incorrect The Scheffe is a post-hoc test that is used to compare means. It requires that the same assumptions be met as for the ANOVA.
1.70 Epidemiological studies on rates of various mental disorders in urban and rural areas in the United States have found that:
A. for most mental disorders, the rates are significantly higher in urban areas.
B. for most mental disorders, the rates are significantly higher in rural areas.
C. some disorders are more common in rural or in urban areas, but the differences in rates are usually not statistically significant
D. some disorders are more common in rural or in urban areas, and the differences in rates are usually statistically significant.
1.70 This is a difficult question to answer since the reported rates of various mental disorders in rural and urban areas vary somewhat from study to study.
c. CORRECT Overall, the best conclusion that can be drawn is that there are few consistent (or statistically significant) differences in the rates of mental disorders in urban and rural areas. For example, a recent Healthcare for Communities (HCC) survey of 9,585 individuals living in rural and urban areas found no significant differences in the prevalence of the major types of mental illness (L. Tang et al., Report on the Survey Method for the Household Survey of Healthcare for Communities, 1997-1998, Los Angeles, Health Sciences Research Center, UCLA, 2001). This lack of significant differences between rates in rural and urban areas is consistent with the findings of the Epidemiologic Catchment Area Study and the National Comorbidity Survey.
1.71 B. F. Skinner attributed the “superstitious” behaviors of his experimental animals to which of the following?
A. higher-order conditioning
B. successive approximation
C. accidental reinforcement
1.71 For the exam, you want to be familiar with the terms listed in the answers to this question. Additional information about them is provided in the Learning Theory and Cognitive-Behavioral Interventions chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect As described by Pavlov, higher-order conditioning occurs when a conditioned stimulus is treated as an unconditioned stimulus and paired with a new neutral stimulus so that the new neutral stimulus produces a conditioned response.
b. Incorrect The method of successive approximations is another name for shaping and involves reinforcing behaviors that come closer and closer to the desired behavior.
c. CORRECT Skinner found that the odd behaviors exhibited by pigeons in his study were the result of accidental pairing of reinforcers with those behaviors. For example, if a pigeon was accidentally reinforced with food while it was pecking at the floor, it would continue pecking at the floor even though it had never been deliberately reinforced for doing so. Skinner concluded that the superstitious behaviors of humans can also be attributed to accidental reinforcement.
d. Incorrect Overcorrection is used to decrease or eliminate undesirable behaviors while providing opportunities to practice more desirable alternative behaviors.
1.72 Wolfgang Kohler’s research on animal learning and animal cognition led to his conclusion that learning is:
C. the result of trial-and-error.
D. the result of reinforcement and punishment.
1.72 Kohler is a co-founder of Gestalt psychology, which focuses on perception. He is probably best known for his research on animals, especially Sultan the chimpanzee.
b. CORRECT Kohler’s research revealed that like humans, animals seem to experience an "aha" experience ("insight") while solving problems.
1.73 Following a head injury, Jake J., age 24, exhibits a period of post-traumatic amnesia that persists for nearly one hour. Two days later, Jake is still experiencing a number of symptoms including headache, fatigue, irritability, visual disturbances, and impaired attention. Jake does not have a history of a prior head injury or psychiatric problems. In terms of prognosis, Jake can expect:
A. recovery of all neuropsychological functions and resolution of most or all symptoms within two to four weeks.
B. recovery of most or all neuropsychological functions and resolution of most or all symptoms within three to six months
C. significant impairment of some neuropsychological functions and the presence of other symptoms for at least nine to 12 months.
D. significant impairment of most neuropsychological functions and the presence of other symptoms for an indefinite period of time.
1.73 Post-traumatic amnesia (PTA) refers to the anterograde amnesia that occurs following a traumatic brain injury. The duration of PTA is considered to be a good predictor of outcomes following a brain injury, although the outcomes actually vary considerably from individual to individual.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Several categorization systems are available for defining severity of a traumatic brain injury based on the duration of the PTA. However, a frequently used system identifies a duration of less than one hour as a mild brain injury. In terms of recovery, most individuals experiencing a mild brain injury recover cognitive and behavioral functions and experience a resolution of other symptoms within 3 to 6 months, although a minority of individuals continues to experience some symptoms for an extended period of time. Factors associated with an increased risk for long-term impairment include female gender, previous head trauma, and history of a neurological or psychiatric problem. See, e.g., J. Ponsford et al., Factors influencing outcome following mild traumatic brain injury in adults, Journal of the International Neuropsychological Society, 6(5), 568-579, 2000.
c. Incorrect People who experience a mild head injury usually return to premorbid (or near premorbid) levels of functioning within several months. However, those who experience a moderate or severe injury are likely to experience long-term symptoms and impairments in multiple areas of functioning. Note that the research on outcomes following traumatic brain injury has produced inconsistent results and, consequently, there is only limited agreement among the experts regarding the outcomes associated with all severity levels of brain injury.
d. Incorrect See explanation for responses b and c.
1.74 To evaluate the concurrent validity of a new selection test for salespeople, you would:
A. conduct a factor analysis to confirm that the test measures the attributes it was designed to measure.
B. have sales managers ("subject matter experts") rate test items for relevance to success as a salesperson.
C. administer the test to a sample of current salespeople and correlate their scores on the test with their recently assigned performance ratings
D. administer the test to salespeople before and after they participate a sales training program and correlate the two sets of scores.
1.74 Concurrent and predictive validity are types of criterion-related validity.
a. Incorrect This technique would be used to evaluate the test’s construct validity.
b. Incorrect This would help establish the test’s content validity.
c. CORRECT To evaluate a test’s criterion-related validity, scores on the predictor (in this case, the selection test) are correlated with scores on a criterion (measure of job performance). When scores on both measures are obtained at about the same time, they provide information on the test’sconcurrent validity.
d. Incorrect This procedure would not provide information on the test’s concurrent validity.
1.75 Konrad Lorenz’s (1957) research on “imprinting” in ducklings and goslings had the greatest impact on the study of ______ in human infants.
A. fear and aggression
B. gender differences
1.75 "Imprinting" refers to the social bonding that occurs during a critical period following birth in some non-human species.
d. CORRECT The ethologist Lorenz found that certain birds become attached (bonded) to the first moving object they encounter during the first few days following birth. This finding led to a search for a similar "critical period" for attachment in humans.
1.76 Which of the following is best conceptualized as a type of aversive counterconditioning?
A. implosive therapy
C. response cost
D. covert sensitization
1.76 Aversive counterconditioning is used to eliminate an undesirable behavior that produces a pleasant or positive response (e.g., sexual arousal) by pairing stimuli associated with that behavior with stimuli that produce an unpleasant response. By doing so, the pleasant response is replaced by the unpleasant response and the behavior is reduced or eliminated.
a. Incorrect Implosive therapy is used to eliminate anxiety and involves exposing the individual to the anxiety-arousing stimulus in imagination for an extended period of time.
b. Incorrect Overcorrection is usually classified as a type of punishment and involves having the individual engage in certain behaviors as a penalty for having performed the target behavior – e.g., "fixing" the consequences of the target behavior and/or engaging in alternative desirable behaviors.
c. Incorrect Response cost is a type of negative punishment that involves removing a stimulus (e.g., a privilege) following a behavior whenever it occurs in order to reduce the frequency of that behavior.
d. CORRECT When using covert sensitization to eliminate an undesirable behavior, the individual imagines an unpleasant (aversive) consequence while imagining that he/she is engaging in the behavior.
1.77 PKU (phenylketonuria) is an inherited disorder that can cause Mental Retardation:
A. only in individuals who are homozygous for the condition
B. only in individuals who are heterozygous for the condition.
C. in individuals who are either homozygous or heterozygous for the condition.
D. in an individual who has at least one parent who is homozygous for the condition.
1.77 PKU is an autosomal recessive condition, which means that an individual must have two recessive genes (i.e., be homozygous) to have the disorder.
a. CORRECT PKU is carried on a recessive gene. Consequently, to have the disorder, an individual must have inherited one recessive gene from each parent.
1.78 Adults aged 65 or older usually report the largest number of memories for events that occurred in the 10 year period prior to being evaluated. For these individuals, the next largest number of memories is for events that occurred when they were between the ages of:
A. 15 and 25.
B. 25 and 35
C. 35 and 45
D. 45 and 55
1.78 The research has shown that older adults typically recall recent and remote events better than intermediate events.
a. CORRECT The term “reminiscence bump” is used to refer to the greater memory for events that occurred during adolescence and early adulthood.
1.79 With regard to information revealed by a client in the context of the client-therapist relationship, who is the “holder of the privilege”?
A. the client
B. the therapist
C. the court
D. both the client and the therapist
1.79 The psychotherapist-patient privilege refers to the legal right of the client to have his/her psychotherapy records and disclosure withheld in a legal proceeding. This privilege is state law in all 50 states, though the laws related to privilege (e.g., exceptions to privilege) vary somewhat from state to state.
a. CORRECT In all states, the client is ordinarily the holder of the privilege, which means that it is up to the client to decide whether to exercise or waive the privilege.
1.80 Dr. X has been asked to administer a psychological test to an individual who requires special accommodations because of a physical disability. The test was not developed or normed for individuals with this disability. The APA’s Guidelines for Test User Qualifications recommend that, in this situation, psychologists:
A. refuse to administer the test.
B. refuse to administer the test unless there are no alternative methods of assessment.
C. exercise "special care" when administering and scoring the test and interpreting its results.
D. obtain legal advice on relevant legal requirements regarding the administration and use of the test
1.80 The APA’s position on this issue is summarized by S. M. Turner, S. T. DeMers, H. R. Fox, and G. M. Reed in APA’s Guidelines for Test User Qualifications: An executive summary (American Psychologist, 56, 1099-1113, 2001).
d. CORRECT In their summary, Turner et al. note that there may be legal requirements that apply to the administration and use of tests when an individual requires special accommodations. To ensure that these requirements are met, psychologists should consider them and, when appropriate, "obtain legal advice on legal and regulatory requirements regarding appropriate administration of tests and use of test data when assessing individuals with disabilities" (p. 1103). Note that Standard 10.2 of theStandards for Educational and Psychological Testing also addresses this issue and requires test users who do not have adequate knowledge or experience in modifying tests for individuals with disabilities to seek guidance from a consultant or supervisor who has expertise.
1.81 Of the “Big Five” personality traits, __________ is most predictive of job performance across different types of jobs and job settings.
A. openness to experience
1.81 Empirical research has identified five basic personality traits (the “Big Five”): neuroticism, extraversion, openness to experience, agreeableness, and conscientiousness.
b. CORRECT Conscientiousness refers to the individual’s level of responsibility, dependability, persistence, self-control, and achievement motivation. Perhaps not surprisingly, of the Big Five traits, conscientiousness has been found to the best predictor of job performance across different jobs, job settings, and criterion measures.
1.82 Cognitive dissonance theory and _______ share in common the assumption that an uncomfortable experience or sensation is the primary cause of attitude change.
A. the sleeper effect
B. attitude inoculation
C. balance theory
D. the elaboration likelihood model
1.82 According to Festinger’s (1964) cognitive dissonance theory, unpleasant psychological tension occurs when a person has inconsistent (dissonant) cognitions, which motivates the person to change one of those cognitions.
a. Incorrect In the context of social psychology, the sleeper effect refers to the tendency to remember a message but, over time, to forget the source of the message. One outcome of the sleeper effect is that people may eventually adopt an attitude or belief that was originally communicated to them by an low-credible source because they have forgotten the source.
b. Incorrect McGuire (1969) found attitude inoculation (McGuire, 1969) to be a useful method for helping people resist persuasive messages. It involves providing the individual with arguments against his/her initial position along with counterarguments prior to hearing the persuasive message.
c. CORRECT Like cognitive dissonance theory, balance theory (Heider, 1958) is based on the principle of cognitive consistency, which proposes that having inconsistent attitudes produces a state of discomfort that leads to attitude change.
d. Incorrect The elaboration likelihood model is a model of attitude change and proposes that there are two routes of persuasion – the central and peripheral routes – which differ in terms of the degree to which a persuasive message is elaborated (processed) by the recipient.
1.83 According to classical test theory, X= T + E, where E refers to:
A. random error
C. predictive error
D. estimated consistency
1.83 According to classical test theory, an examinees obtained test score (X) is composed of two components -- T and E.
a. CORRECT "T" refers to true score variability, while "E" refers to random (measurement) error.
1.84 In terms of incremental validity, which of the following situations most supports the use of a new predictor?
A. moderate base rate with many applicants and few job openings
B. low base rate with many applicants and few job openings
C. moderate base rate with few applicants and many job openings
D. low base rate with few applicants and many job openings
1.84 The degree to which a new selection technique will increase decision-making accuracy depends on several factors including the base rate (proportion of correct decisions without the new technique) and the selection ratio (ratio of applicants to job openings).
a. CORRECT A moderate base rate suggests that there's room for improvement and, therefore, that a new predictor is likely to increase decision-making accuracy. Also, the situation is optimal when there are many applicants to choose from (a low selection ratio).
b. Incorrect A low base rate suggests that something else besides selection is the problem – e.g., the company's standards of success are too high or employees need training in order to do the job satisfactorily.
1.85 When working with a “split-brain” patient, you would notice that he or she has the most difficulty with regard to which of the following?
A. reflexive functions
B. executive functions
C. memory functions
D. sensory functions
1.85 "Split-brain" patients have had their corpus callosum severed, usually as a treatment for severe epilepsy.
d. CORRECT A primary function of the corpus callosum is to transfer sensory (and some motor) information from one hemisphere to the other. When the corpus callosum is severed, messages from the right brain cannot be transferred to the left brain and vice versa, and this deficit is most apparent in tasks involving sensory input.
1.86 Which of the following would be most useful for combining the results of several research studies that each evaluated the effectiveness of the same treatment for a particular disorder?
B. kappa coefficient
C. coefficient alpha
D. effect size
1.86 To combine data from different studies (which may have different sample sizes, different outcome measures, etc.), the data must be converted to a common metric.
a. Incorrect Although the p-value indicates the level of significance (probability that the null hypothesis is false), it is not as useful as an effect size for combining the results of different studies.
b. Incorrect The kappa coefficient is used to evaluate inter-rater reliability.
c. Incorrect Coefficient alpha is used to assess internal consistency reliability.
d. CORRECT An effect size is the index that is calculated when conducting a meta-analysis. It converts data from different studies to a common metric so that the results of the studies can be combined and compared.
1.87 A distinguishing feature between Alzheimer’s Disease and Vascular Dementia is that, in the latter:
A. the onset of symptoms must be prior to age 65.
B. the course is erratic rather than progressive
C. short- and long-term memory are both significantly impaired.
D. the onset of symptoms is insidious rather than abrupt.
1.87 Vascular Dementia is a form of Dementia that is caused by cerebrovascular disease and that is characterized by a "stepwise" deterioration in functioning.
a. Incorrect Although onset is often earlier in Vascular Dementia, onset prior to age 65 is not a clear distinguishing feature between the two disorders.
b. CORRECT This is the primary distinguishing feature between the two disorders.
c. Incorrect Memory impairment is associated with both disorders.
d. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true.
1.88 Which of the following is useful for understanding why a college undergraduate frequently avoids studying for an important exam by partying the night before the exam?
A. theory of planned behavior
D. Barnum effect
1.88 For the exam, you want to be familiar with the basic assumptions and predictions of the four theories listed in the answers to this question.
a. Incorrect The theory of planned behavior predicts that a person's attitudes are accurate predictors of his/her behavior when the attitude measure addresses all three components of the person's behavioral intention – i.e., attitude toward engaging in the behavior, what the person thinks others believe he/she should do, and the person's perceived behavioral control.
b. Incorrect Deindividuation refers to a person's sense of anonymity and loss of a sense of self-responsibility that occur when the person is part of a group. Deindividuation has been used to explain why people are more likely to act in antisocial ways when acting as a member of a group than when acting alone.
c. CORRECT Self-handicapping occurs when a person creates obstacles to his/her performance so that he/she can attribute any failures to the obstacles rather than to a lack of ability or effort.
d. Incorrect The Barnum effect is the tendency to accept vague, general descriptions of oneself (e.g., a horoscope) as being accurate.
1.89 A cigarette smoker says that she has decided to quit smoking in the next three to four weeks and has started developing a plan for doing so. According to the transtheoretical (stages-of-change) model, this person is in which of the following stages?
1.89 The transtheoretical model predicts that an intervention is most effective when it matches the individual's stage of change.
a. CORRECT From the perspective of the transtheoretical model, a person is in the preparation stage when he/she has a clear intent to take action in the immediate future (usually defined as within the next month).
b. Incorrect A person in the contemplation stage is planning to take steps to change in the more distant future (usually defined as within the next six months).
c. Incorrect A person in the precontemplation stage has no intention of changing in the forseeable future.
d. Incorrect People in the action phase have already started making changes in their lives.
1.90 A therapy client who has angry, hostile feelings for his soon-to-be ex-wife begins to verbally attack his supportive therapist for no reason. The client’s behavior illustrates which of the following defense mechanisms?
A. reaction formation
1.90 For the exam, you want to be familiar with the defense mechanisms listed in the answers to this question.
a. Incorrect Reaction formation involves changing an unacceptable feeling or impulse into its opposite.
b. Incorrect Projection involves attributing one’s own unacceptable feeling to another person.
c. Incorrect Sublimation is the transformation of an unacceptable impulse into a socially acceptable behavior.
d. CORRECT Displacement involves redirecting undesirable sexual or aggressive feelings toward one person onto a safe or vulnerable substitute.
1.91 In a research study, a child sits in front of a three-dimensional model of a mountain scene while another person sits on the opposite side of the mountain scene. The child is then asked to first choose a photograph that depicts the scene that he or she has observed and then to choose the picture that depicts what the other person observed. Being familiar with the research on Piaget’s stages of cognitive development, you predict that children 3 to 5 years of age will most likely:
A. pick the correct picture for their own point of view and pick the same (incorrect) picture for the point of view of the other person
B. pick the correct picture for their own point of view and pick a different (but incorrect) picture for the point of view of the other person.
C. pick the correct pictures for their own point of view and the point of view of the other person.
D. pick incorrect pictures for their own point of view and the point of view of the other person.
1.91 This question describes a study that is very similar to the one conducted by Piaget, which confirmed that preoperational children are egocentric – i.e., they have trouble understanding another person’s point of view.
a. CORRECT This response is consistent with the results of research conducted by Piaget and others, which found that preoperational children were usually unable to recognize that another person’s view of the mountain differed from their own. (Note, however, that some recent research suggests that young children’s perspective-taking may be affected by the type of task or other variables.)
1.92 According to the DSM-IV-TR, ______ occurs more often in women who have ben exposed to a sexual trauma and have negative attitudes toward sex.
A. Female Hypoactive Sexual Desire
B. Female Orgasmic Disorder
1.92 All of the disorders listed in the answers to this question are Sexual Dysfunctions identified in the DSM.
c. CORRECT The DSM identifies exposure to sexual trauma and negative attitudes toward sex in its description of associated features for Vaginismus.
1.93 Which of the following aspects of memory is likely to show the greatest age-related decline?
A. sensory memory
B. Memory span
C. recent long-term memory
D. remote long-term memory
1.93 Research has confirmed a predictable pattern in age-related declines in memory and other cognitive abilities, and the major changes are described in the Lifespan Development chapter.
c. CORRECT Recent long-term (secondary) memory is most affected by increasing age, followed by working memory. The other aspects of memory listed in the answers are relatively unaffected by increasing age.
1.94 The research on prenatal exposure to alcohol has found that it is most likely to produce severe physical defects when exposure occurs during the:
A. first trimester
B. second trimester
C. first half of the third trimester
D. second half of the third trimester
1.94 Although prenatal exposure to alcohol during the first trimester has been linked to the most severe physical defects, other aspects of development may be more vulnerable later in the pregnancy – e.g., attention and other cognitive functions may be more severely impaired when exposure occurs during the third trimester.
a. CORRECT The studies suggest that exposure to alcohol during the second half of the first trimester is associated with the most severe physical defects (e.g., low birth weight, smaller-than-normal head circumference, altered shape of eyes and lips). See, e.g., H.S. Feldman et al., Prenatal alcohol exposure patterns and alcohol-related birth defects and growth deficiencies: A prospective study, Alcoholism: Clinical and Experimental Research, 36(4), 670-676, 2012.
1.95 According to Albert Bandura, modeling (observational learning):
A. teaches new behaviors
B. disinhibits and facilitates behaviors already in one's repertoire.
C. provides cues as to the appropriateness of a particular behavior
D. all of the above
1.95 Bandura's research found that modeling is useful for the acquisition of new behaviors and for increasing or decreasing behaviors already in an individual's repertoire.
d. CORRECT According to Bandura, modeling serves a number of functions including the ones listed in responses a, b, and c. (And, if you think about it, this makes sense: We learn a lot from observing others.)
1.96 Providing education and job training to adolescents and young adults who have recently been released from a drug treatment program is an example of:
A. primary prevention
B. secondary prevention
C. tertiary prevention
D. social intervention
1.96 In this situation, adolescents and young adults are being provided with services that are intended to reduce the likelihood of future drug abuse (relapse).
a. Incorrect Primary preventions emphasize counteracting harmful circumstances before they have an opportunity to produce mental or physical illness.
b. Incorrect Secondary preventions emphasize the early diagnosis and treatment of disorders.
c. CORRECT Rehabilitation is the goal of tertiary preventions.
d. Incorrect This is a "made up” term.
1.97 In addition to identifying “bounded rationality” as an impediment to rational decision-making, Herbert Simon is known for his work on:
A. artificial intelligence
B. job burnout
D. organizational culture
1.97 Although Herbert Simon is probably best known for his work on individual decision-making, he was also a pioneer in the field of artificial intelligence.
a. CORRECT Simon believed there are two main goals in using and studying computers: (1) to augment human intelligence and (2) to help understand how humans think.
1.98 In 1989, Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy revised the 1978 learned helplessness theory of depression. In their revision, ________ is conceptualized as a proximal and sufficient cause of depressive symptoms.
A. non-contingent reinforcement
B. a depressogenic cognitive style
C. an external locus of control
D. a sense of hopelessness
1.98 L. Y. Abramson, G. I. Metalsky, and L. B. Alloy's revised learned helplessness model proposes that a sense of hopelessness is a proximal and sufficient cause of depression [Hopelessness depression: A theory-based subtype of depression, Psychological Review, 1989, 96(2), 358-372].
a. Incorrect Non-contingent reinforcement is not identified as a cause of depression in Abramson et al.'s theory.
b. Incorrect These investigators do not identify a depressogenic cognitive style as a cause of depression.
c. Incorrect An external locus of control is not identified as a cause of depression by these investigators.
d. CORRECT Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy identify a sense of hopelessness as a proximal cause because, in the chain of events leading to depression, it is at the end of the chain; and as a sufficient cause because the presence of hopelessness is sufficient to cause depressive symptoms.
1.99 The characteristic symptoms of Nicotine Withdrawal include all of the following except:
A. dysphoric/depressed mood
C. decreased heart rate
D. increased appetite/weight gain
1.99 The rapid onset of withdrawal symptoms is considered to be a primary reason why individuals with Nicotine Dependence find it so difficult to stop smoking.
a. Incorrect Dysphoric/depressed mood is one of the symptoms of Nicotine Withdrawal, and recent studies suggest that a desire to avoid negative affect may be the most common reason for relapse following an attempt to stop smoking.
b. CORRECT Nicotine Withdrawal is characterized by insomnia (not hypersomnia).
c. Incorrect Decreased heart rate is a characteristic symptom of Nicotine Withdrawal.
d. Incorrect Increased appetite with weight gain is a common symptom of Nicotine Withdrawal, with an average weight gain of 2-3 kg (4.4 to 6.6 lb) during the first year after stopping smoking.
1.100 Lesions in the right (nondominant) hemisphere of the cerebral cortex are most likely to have which of the following effects?
A. increase catastrophic reactions to benign events
B. produce indifference or excessive cheerfulness
C. produce excessive fear and anger
D. decrease talkativeness
1.100Although the studies suggest that simple left-right distinctions about the brain are not entirely accurate, some generalizations can be made. With regard to emotions, the left hemisphere mediates positive emotions, while the right hemisphere mediates negative emotions.
a. Incorrect This is associated with damage to the left hemisphere.
b. CORRECT The right hemisphere governs negative emotions, and lesions to this side of the brain produce an opposite effect – i.e., indifference, emotional lability, and atypical humor (e.g., either not responding to jokes or cartoons or laughing even when they are not understood).
c. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true.
d. Incorrect This is also the opposite of what is true. Lesions in the right hemisphere often increase talkativeness.
1.101 Congentical cytomegalovirus (CMV) is the second most common cause of mental retardation after Down Syndrome. In additional to cognitive impairments, it is most likely to cause which of the following?
A. facial deformities
B. heart and lung abnormalities
C. genital, urinary, and intestinal abnormalities
D. hearing and visual impairments
1.101 CMV is a type of herpes virus. Although infection with CMV during adulthood usually produces no or mild symptoms, infection during prenatal development or birth can be life-threatening.
d. CORRECT Approximately 10% of infants infected with CMV show symptoms at birth, and about 10 to 15% of infants who are asymptomatic at birth develop symptoms during the first few years of life. Common symptoms include some degree of mental retardation and hearing and visual impairments.
1.102 Dr. Stan Sanchez is not getting along with his neighbor and finds that he has little patience and tends to get angry with therapy clients who resemble the man. To be consistent with the requirements of the APA’s Ethics Code, Dr. Sanchez should:
A. refer clients who resemble his neighbor to another therapist.
B. inform clients who resemble his neighbor about his current situation and discuss their options with them.
C. consult with another professional to determine the best course of action
D. monitor his behavior for signs of impaired objectivity and peformance.
1.102 This situation is addressed in Standard 2.06 of the Ethics Code.
a. Incorrect Referral may be appropriate but, before doing so, Dr. Martin would want to discuss this situation with a colleague to determine if that is the best course of action.
b. Incorrect Informing the client about his personal problem would not be an appropriate course of action.
c. CORRECT Standard 2.06 states that, when psychologists become aware that "personal problems may interfere with their performing work-related duties adequately, they take appropriate measures, such as obtaining professional consultation or assistance."
d. Incorrect Monitoring his activity would not be sufficient since Dr. Martin is already aware that his problem with his neighbor is having an adverse impact on his effectiveness with some of his clients
1.103 Raven Colored Progressive Matrices would be useful for:
A. assessing the intelligence of a 9 year old non-English speaking child.
B. assessing the intelligence of an 18-year-old who has a learning disability
C. assessing the memory of a 74-year-old with early signs of dementia.
D. assessing the intelligence of a 45-year-old who has Broca's aphasia.
1.103 Raven Colored Progressive Matrices (RCPM) is a 36-item test of intelligence that uses figural test stimuli presented in a 6-option multiple-choice format.
a. CORRECT Because it is a nonverbal test, the RCPM is considered appropriate for non-English speaking individuals as well as individuals with speech deficits. The test is designed for children ages 5 through 11 years.
1.104 The kappa statistic is used as measure of reliability when data are:
A. nominal or ordinal (discontinuous)
B. interval or ratio (continuous).
1.104 The kappa statistic is used to evaluate inter-rater reliability.
a. CORRECT The kappa statistic is used to measure the consistency of ratings assigned by two raters when data are nominal or ordinal. (Note that some authors use the term "discontinuous" to refer to nominal and other discrete data – i.e., data that represents noncontinuous categories.)
d. Incorrect See explanation above. (Note that the term "metric" is sometimes used to refer to interval and ratio data.)
1.105 Which of the following groups has the highest rate of admission as inpatients to state and county psychiatric hospitals?
A. married men
B. never married men
C. married women
D. never married women
1.105 The statistics on psychiatric hospital admission rates vary from study to study. However, most studies report that the highest rates are for never married men.
a. Incorrect The admission rate for married men is lower than the rate for never married men.
b. CORRECT The data indicate that never married men have the highest rate of admission.
c. Incorrect In state and county hospitals, never married women have higher admission rates than married women, while the reverse is true for private hospitals. However, in either case, the rate for women is lower than the rate for men.
d. Incorrect See explanations above.
1.106 According to Erikson, successful resolution of the final stage of psychosocial development involve which of the following:
1.106 The final stage in Erikson's stages of psychosocial development involves a conflict between integrity versus despair.
a. Incorrect The development of a coherent identity is the goal of adolescence.
b. Incorrect Developing intimate relationships is a goal during young adulthood.
c. CORRECT Successful resolution of the psychosocial conflict of late adulthood (ages 65 and over) involves developing a broader philosophical and moral perspective ("wisdom") that younger adults often lack.
d. Incorrect "Hope" is not associated with this stage.
1.107 A structural family therapist would use a family map to:
A. facilitate interactions between family members during a therapy session.
B. help family members recognize differences in their perceptions.
C. identify family values, life themes, and significant life events.
D. clarify the nature of the boundaries between family subsystems.
1.107 Knowing that boundaries are a key focus of Minuchin’s structural family therapy would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect This describes the goal of enactment.
b. Incorrect This is a goal of circular questions, which are used by Milan systematic family therapists.
c. Incorrect Identifying and using family values, life themes, and significant life events in conversations during therapy is referred to as tracking.
d. CORRECT A family map is used to help make a structural diagnosis of a family by clarifying its boundaries, coalitions, alignments, etc.
1.108 Which of the following is a contingency model of leadership that distinguishes between five levels of participative leadership?
A. Fiedler’s contingency theory
B. House’s path-goal theory
C. Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership model
D. Vroom, Yetton, and Jago’s normative model
1.108 For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the leadership models listed in the answers to this question. These models are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
d. CORRECT The clue to identifying the correct answer to this question is the number “five” because only one of the models listed (the Vroom-Yetton-Jago model) distinguishes between five leadership styles.
1.109 When using cluster sampling, you:
A. make sure that the proportion of participants sampled from each identified group matches the proportion of individuals in the population.
B. systematically sample every "kth" element in each target group until the desired sample size is obtained.
C. first divide the population into relevant segments and then randomly sample from each segment.
D. identify and then randomly select naturally occurring groups of participants from the population
1.109 As its name implies, cluster sampling involves sampling "clusters."
a. Incorrect This describes proportionate sampling.
b. Incorrect This sounds like systematic sampling.
c. Incorrect This describes stratified random sampling.
d. CORRECT When using cluster sampling, an investigator identifies naturally occurring clusters (groups) and then randomly selects clusters rather than individuals. All individuals in each cluster or a sample of individuals from each cluster are then included in the study.
1.110 Childhood-onset Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder:
A. is about equally common in boys and girls.
B. is four times more common in girls than boys
C. is two times more common in girls than boys.
D. is more common in boys than girls.
1.110 For the exam, you want to be familiar with the prevalence rates and gender ratios for several disorders including OCD. The rates and ratios you're most likely to encounter on exam questions are included in the Abnormal Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
d. CORRECT While OCD is about equally common in adult males and females, because of its earlier onset in males, it is more common in male children than in female children.
1.111 Data published by Hans Eysenck in 1952:
A. confirmed the effectiveness of behavioral treatments for a variety of psychological disorders.
B. confirmed the "Dodo bird" hypothesis, which predicts that various types of therapy are equally effective for a variety of psychological disorders.
C. challenged the notion of "spontaneous remission."
D. challenged the effectiveness of conventional psychotherapeutic interventions.
1.111 Eysenck's 1952 publication sparked research on psychotherapy outcomes.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect This sounds more like the Smith, Glass, and Miller (1980) meta-analysis, which found relatively few differences between various therapeutic approaches.
c. Incorrect This is just the opposite of what Eysenck concluded.
d. CORRECT Eysenck reported that 66% of patients in eclectic therapy and 44% in psychoanalytic psychotherapy improved versus 72% of those with similar problems who did not receive therapy.
1.112 When a predictor’s reliability coefficient is .75, its criterion-related validity coefficient can be:
A. no less than .75.
B. no greater than .75
C. no less than the square root of .75.
D. no greater than the square root of .75
1.112 Knowing the formula for the relationship between reliability and validity would have allowed you to identify the correct answer to this question.
d. CORRECT As indicated by the formula in the Test Construction chapter of the written study materials, a test's criterion-related validity coefficient cannot exceed the square root of its reliability coefficient.
1.113 Recent research suggests that higher rates of Schizophrenia among African-Americans is most likely attributable to:
B. family dynamics
C. socioeconomic factors
D. misdiagnosis of hallucinations and delusions
1.113 Studies in both the United States and England have found that members of certain minority groups (especially groups devalued by the dominant culture) are more likely to receive a diagnosis of Schizophrenia.
d. CORRECT Research suggests that the discrepancy in rates of Schizophrenia is due to misdiagnosis rather than to actual differences in the prevalence of the disorder. A contributing factor to misdiagnosis may be that African-Americans have a higher incidence of hallucinations and delusions that are actually due to other disorders such as mania, depression, and alcohol abuse.
1.114 According to ______, successful intelligence is composed of three components--- analytical, creative, and practical.
A. Sternberg’s triarchic model
B. Gardner's multiple intelligences model
C. the Cattell-Horn-Carroll theory
D. Carroll's three-stratum theory
1.114 For the exam, you want to be familiar with the four theories of intelligence listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT Sternberg's triarchic theory describes successful intelligence as consisting of the three components listed in this question.
1.115 A 32 year old man doesn’t like talking to his neighbors or co-workers, says he’s not interested in marriage, doesn’t reciprocate smiling or nodding in conversations, and, in school, was an underachiever and was frequently teased by peers. These symptoms are most suggestive of:
A. Generalized Anxiety Disorder.
B. Schizoid Personality Disorder
C. Avoidant Personality Disorder.
D. Relational Problems NOS.
1.115 This individual exhibits a lack of desire for interpersonal relationships, which is characteristic of only one of the disorders listed.
a. Incorrect There is nothing in the question to suggest the man is experiencing anxiety.
b. CORRECT The man's lack of interest in social relationships is a key characteristic of Schizoid Personality Disorder. In addition, peer problems are a common associated feature.
c. Incorrect The question doesn't say anything about a fear of criticism or rejection, which is characteristic of Avoidant Personality Disorder.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
1.116 Soon after starting to take an antidepressant, a young women develops several undesirable side effects including dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation, and blurred vision. Which of the following would be most useful for alleviating these symptoms?
C. dopamine agonist
D. cholinergic agonist
1.116 The woman’s symptoms are anticholinergic side effects that are caused by the antidepressant drug’s interference with acetylcholine activity.
d. CORRECT Cholinergic agonists (e.g., bethanechol) increase acetylcholine activity by enhancing the activity of endogenous acetylcholine or by binding to and activating acetylcholine receptors. A cholinergic agonist would help alleviate the woman’s anticholinergic side effects.
1.117 The ______ I sused to quantify a patient’s level of consciousness following a traumatic brain injury and entails assigning score for three functions- eye response, verbal response, and motor response.
A. Mini Mental State Exam
B. AVPU Scale
C. Rancho Scale of Cognitive Functioning
D. Glasgow Coma Scale
1.117 Several techniques are used to evaluate level of consciousness.
a. Incorrect The Mini Mental State Exam is a screening test that is used to evaluate cognitive functioning.
b. Incorrect The AVPU scale is used to assess consciousness but involves indicating a patient’s status in terms of four levels: alert, responds to vocal stimuli, responds to painful stimuli, or unresponsive.
c. Incorrect The current version of the Rancho Scale entails evaluating the patient in terms of ten levels ranging from "no response" to "purposeful/appropriate response."
d. CORRECT Use of the Glasgow Coma Scale requires rating the patient in terms of best eye response, best verbal response, and best motor response. From these ratings, the patient receives a total score ranging from 3 (worst possible score) to 15 (best possible score).
1.118 Which of the following is generally considered the best defense for a psychologist in cases of litigation?
B. adequate records
C. informed consent
D. liability insurance
1.118 A review of the literature on risk management reveals consensus among the experts that good record-keeping is a key defense in cases of malpractice.
b. CORRECT S. Knapp, for instance, notes that "An axiom of risk management is that if it is not documented, it did not occur" (Professional liability and risk management in an era of managed care, in D. T. Marsh and R. O. Magee [Eds.], Ethical and legal issues in professional practice with families, New York, John Wiley and Sons, 1997).
1.119 A researcher conducting a study to investigate the phenomenon known as “stimulus generalization” would most likely do which of the following after establishing a conditioned response in her participants?
A. Present new stimuli that are similar in varying degrees to the CS.
B. Repeatedly present the CS after a neutral stimulus.
C. Repeatedly present the CS without the US.
D. Pair presentation of the CS with a second US.
1.119 Stimulus generalization occurs when stimuli similar to the CS elicit a response that is similar to the CR.
a. CORRECT This procedure would be used to determine the extent of stimulus generalization following classical conditioning.
b. Incorrect This answer describes higher-order conditioning.
c. Incorrect This answer describes extinction.
d. Incorrect The procedure described in this answer would not be useful for investigating stimulus generalization.
1.120 A psychologist is hired by a court to evaluate a defendant during the course of a criminal proceeding. The psychologist can subsequently include information about the results of the evaluation in a book she is writing on “the criminal mind”:
A. as long as the defendant was warned of the limits of confidentiality at the time of the evaluation.
B. as long as the information included in the book is part of the public record.
C. as long as the psychologist determines that the value of the information warrants its inclusion in the book.
D. only if the psychologist has received the permission of the defendant or the defendant’s legal representative to do so.
1.120 This situation is addressed in Paragraph E.3 of the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychologists (APA, 1991).
d. CORRECT Even if the information is in the public record, the psychologist who conducted the evaluation for the court should obtain the defendant's permission to use evaluation data for another purpose.
1.121 Regarding the care and use of animals in research, the APA’s Ethics Code addresses all the following EXCEPT:
A. individuals under the supervision of psychologists.
B. the termination of an animal subject's life.
C. security measures used to protect the laboratory
D. compliance with state and federal laws
1.121 Standard 8.09 focuses on the "humane care and use of animals in research."
a. Incorrect Supervision is addressed in 8.09(b): "Psychologists trained in research methods and experienced in the care of laboratory animals supervise all procedures involving animals and are responsible for ensuring appropriate consideration of their comfort, health, and humane treatment."
b. Incorrect Termination of animals is addressed in 8.09(g): "When it is appropriate that the animal’s life be terminated, it is done rapidly, with an effort to minimize pain, and in accordance with accepted procedures."
c. CORRECT The security of the laboratory is not explicitly discussed in the ethical standards.
d. Incorrect Standard 8.09(a) requires psychologists who use animals in research to comply with federal, state, and local laws and regulations.
1.122 Research on bilingualism suggests that it:
A. has detrimental effects on several aspects of children's cognitive performance, especially during the elementary school years.
B. has beneficial effects on children’s cognitive flexibility and metalinguistic awareness in the elementary school years but that these effects probably do not persist
C. has beneficial effects on cognitive flexibility and metalinguistic awareness that persist throughout childhood, adolescence, and adulthood.
D. has no demonstrable effect on cognitive development in childhood or adolescence.
1.122 This is a difficult question since the research findings on this issue have produced somewhat inconsistent results.
a. Incorrect While there may be some temporary delays in language acquisition, overall, bilingualism seems to have more positive consequences for cognitive development than negative ones.
b. CORRECT Bilingualism has been found to have benefits in terms of divergent thinking (including cognitive flexibility) and metalinguistic awareness. However, there is some evidence that these benefits are only temporary and that, in adolescence and adulthood, bilinguals are indistinguishable from monolinguals.
1.123 A middle-aged woman is admitted to the emergency room of a hospital, complaining of chest pain, tachycardia, and shortness of breath. During the examination and interview, she is very restless and often gets up to pace back and forth. She says she has had similar “attacks” in the past, but that this one is the worst. Assuming that there is no medical cause of the woman’s symptoms, the most likely diagnosis is which of the following?
A. Somatization Disorder
B. Pain Disorder
C. Panic Disorder without Agoraphobia
D. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
1.123 The woman's symptoms are characteristic of a panic attack.
a. Incorrect Somatization Disorder involves recurrent and multiple somatic complaints.
b. Incorrect Pain Disorder is characterized by pain as the predominant focus of clinical presentation, with psychological factors judged to have an important role in the pain.
c. CORRECT The woman's symptoms are most characteristic of Panic Disorder without Agoraphobia.
d. Incorrect Although this woman is anxious and restless, her symptoms do not meet the criteria for Generalized Anxiety Disorder.
1.124 You receive a letter from the Ethics Committee asking for information about a former client who has filed a complaint against her current therapist. You stopped seeing the client over seven years ago. You should:
A. cooperate with the Committee's request by sending it a copy of the client's file.
B. cooperate with the Committee's request by sending it the information you believe is relevant to the case.
C. cooperate with the Committee’s request by sending it the information you believe is relevant to the case after confirming the client has signed a release
D. inform the Committee that the information you have about the client is seven years old and that you're ethically obligated not to forward it to them.
1.124 Psychologists must cooperate fully with requests from the Ethics Committee.
c. CORRECT This issue is addressed in Standard 1.06 of the Ethics Code, which notes that, when responding to a request for information from the Ethics Committee, psychologists must "address any confidentiality issues." Therefore, this answer is most consistent with the requirements of the Ethics Code.
1.125 A transformational leader defines a goal to employees in a way that imbues the goal with meaning and purpose. This is referred to as:
B. escalating commitment
1.125 Transformational leaders differ from transactional leaders in several ways. One way is that they motivate employees by giving goals added meaning by placing them in a larger context (e.g., the "good of society").
a. Incorrect The term priming is used in several contexts. For example, in the field of learning and memory, it refers to unconscious cues that activate related associations (e.g., seeing the word "test" reminds you of the licensing exam even if you are not aware that you saw the word "test").
b. Incorrect Escalating commitment refers to the tendency to continue with a previously chosen course of action even when it is not working.
c. CORRECT Giving goals added meaning is referred to as framing. It is one of the characteristics of transformational leaders.
d. Incorrect Positioning is a paradoxical technique used in family therapy. It involves helping the family see a symptom from a new perspective by exaggerating its severity.
1.126 A supervisor is asking to appraise the performance of the eight employees she supervises. When rating the first employee, the supervisor rates him as average on all dimensions of job performance. She subsequently rates the seven other employees within the average range of the rating scale on all dimensions of job performance. This supervisor appears to be demonstrating which of the following?
A. halo effect
B. Hawthorne effect
C. Social desirability bias
D. Central tendency bias
1.126 This supervisor's ratings seem to be tainted by a rater bias, which is a risk whenever a subjective rating scale is used. Common rater biases are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect The halo effect occurs when a rater"s rating of an employee on one dimension of job performance affects his/her ratings of the employee on unrelated dimensions.
b. Incorrect The Hawthorne effect is not a rater bias but, instead, refers to the tendency for research participants to behave differently just because they are participating in a research project.
c. Incorrect Social desirability is the tendency for research participants or test takers to act or respond in a manner that they believe to be most socially acceptable.
d. CORRECT The central tendency bias occurs when a rater uses the middle (average) range of a rating scale regardless of the actual performance of the ratees. Of course, in this situation, all of the supervisor"s employees may have been working at an average level but, of the alternatives given, central tendency bias is the best choice.
1.127 According to DSM-IV-TR, Sleep Terror Disorder usually begins:
A. between the ages of 3 and 7 and has a chronic course.
B. between the ages of 4 and 12 and remits spontaneously during adolescence
C. between the ages of 8 and 12 and remits spontaneously in early adulthood.
D. in early adolescence and has a chronic course with a waxing and waning of symptom severity.
1.127 Sleep Terror Disorder is characterized by abrupt awakening from sleep, often beginning with a "panicky scream or cry" (DSM-IV-TR, 2000, p. 634).
b. CORRECT In some cases, Sleep Terror Disorder does begin in adulthood. However, according to the DSM, the onset is most commonly in childhood, and the disorder typically resolves spontaneously in adolescence.
1.128 Helms’s (1995) White Racial Identity Development Model distinguishes between six statuses, with each status being associated with a different information processing strategy. For example, the “flexibility and complexity” strategy is characteristic of the ______ status.
B. integrative awareness
1.128 Helms's six identity statuses are: contact, disintegration, reintegration, pseudo-independence, immersion/emersion, and autonomy.
d. CORRECT Not surprisingly, information processing flexibility and complexity are characteristic of the final status in Helms's model. The attributes of the autonomy status include awareness of one's own "whiteness" and role in perpetuating racism and a commitment to abandoning a sense of White entitlement.
1.129 Diabetes mellitus has been identified as a risk factor for Vascular Dementia. With regard to Alzheimer’s Dementia, diabetes:
A. is not associated with an increased risk.
B. is associated with an increased risk only for those who do not receive insulin treatment.
C. is associated with an increased risk even among those who did receive insulin treatment
D. is associated with an increased risk only for the early onset type of Alzheimer's Dementia.
1.129 Diabetes has been recognized as a high risk factor for Vascular Dementia for some time but has also been recently linked to Alzheimer's Dementia.
a. Incorrect See explanation below.
b. Incorrect See explanation below.
c. CORRECT The risk for Alzheimer's Dementia is double for those with diabetes and four times greater for those with diabetes who receive insulin treatment. See, e.g., A. Ott et al., Diabetes mellitus: The risk for dementia, Neurology, 53, 1937-1942, 1999.
d. Incorrect In Ott et al.'s study, 14% of patients with diabetes eventually developed Vascular Dementia, while 70% developed Alzheimer's Dementia.
1.130 Although it is necessary to avoid stereotypes when providing services to members of ethnic and racial minority groups, some generalizations are often made. For example, when working with Hispanic and Hispanic American clients, it is important to keep in mind all of the following except:
A. different levels of acculturation among Hispanics can influence their perceptions of and responses to therapy.
B. Family therapy is often contraindicated because of the hierarchical nature of the Hispanic family
C. behavioral and other active, problem-oriented therapies are usually more acceptable than insight-oriented therapies
D. sex-roles tend to be demarcated clearly and are fairly rigid.
1.130 Some generalizations about the treatment of Hispanic and Hispanic American clients have been made in the literature, and you should be familiar with them for the licensing exam.
a. Incorrect This is true. There are different levels of acculturation not only between families but also within families (i.e., younger members of the family tend to be more acculturated to the white middle-class way of life).
b. CORRECT Although Hispanic families do tend to be hierarchical, this does not preclude them from family therapy. In fact, family therapy is often the treatment-of-choice because of the close relationships between family members.
c. Incorrect This is true not only for Hispanics but also members of other minority groups.
d. Incorrect This is also generally true.
1.131 When using _____ as a memory aid, a phrase or rhyme is constructed from the first letter of each word in the list of words that is to be recalled.
A. the chunking strategy
B. the keyword method
C. an acronym
D. an acrostic
1.131 For the exam, you want to be familiar with the four memory devices listed in the answers to this question.
a. Incorrect Chunking involves grouping related items of information. To remember a string of 21 numbers, for instance, you might chunk the numbers into groups of three, resulting in seven distinct units of information. Chunking is useful for maintaining information in working memory.
b. Incorrect The keyword method is an imagery mnemonic that is useful for paired associate tasks in which two words must be linked. It involves creating an image for each word and visually joining the two images. As an example, to remember that the French word for church is eglise, you could form an image of a church with a giant egg outside the church doors.
c. Incorrect An acronym is a word that is formed using the first letter of each item in a list. For example, the acronym HOMES is used to remember the Great Lakes (Huron, Ontario, Michigan, Erie, and Superior).
d. CORRECT An acrostic is made up of words beginning with the first letter of each word or phrase that is to be remembered. For example, the acrostic "my very educated mother just sent us nachos" is used to memorize the names of the eight planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune).
1.132 A young man who has received a diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder is most likely to have exhibited which of the following during childhood?
C. cruelty to animals
D. social isolation
1.132 Antisocial Personality Disorder is characterized by superficial charm, lying, lack of regard for others, an absence of shame or remorse, an inability to form close personal relationships, and an inability to learn from experience
a. Incorrect Stuttering has not been identified as a predictor of antisocial behavior.
b. Incorrect Hyperactivity and impulsivity are not characteristic precursors of Antisocial Personality Disorder.
c. CORRECT Cruelty to animals is one symptom of Conduct Disorder, which is a precursor to Antisocial Personality Disorder.
d. Incorrect Social isolation has not been linked to a high risk for Antisocial Personality Disorder.
1.133 Which of the following best describes a psychologist’s legal obligations when providing mental health services over the internet?
A. A psychologist may not provide mental health services over the Internet except in emergency (crisis) situations.
B. A psychologist may not provide mental health services over the Internet unless he/she has been certified as an Internet provider.
C. A psychologist may provide mental health services over the Internet but must inform clients about potential risks and benefits of those services and the availability of alternative services
D. A psychologist may provide mental health services over the Internet but must provide the client with a standard disclaimer before doing so.
1.133 Requirements for providing online therapy are still in the process of being developed and agreed upon. However, APA and CPA have both offered some guidelines.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT This answer is most consistent with the provisions of the American Psychological Association’s Ethics Code [see, e.g., Standard 10.01(b)] and the Canadian Psychological Association’s Ethical Guidelines for Psychologists Providing Psychological Services via Electronic Media. While online therapy is considered acceptable, special precautions must be taken – e.g., clients must be warned of the potential limits on confidentiality and of the availability of alternative services. In addition, some experts recommend that it begin with an in-person intake and assessment interview and that the client be given the names of mental health professionals in the client’s locality that he/she can contact in a crisis situation [M. M. Maheu, Exposing the risk, yet moving forward: A behavioral e-health model, Journal of Computer-Mediated Communication, 6(4), 2001, available at http://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1111/j.1083-6101.2001.tb00130.x/full].
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
1.134 Which of the following is listed in the DSM-IV-TR as a diagnostic (versus associated) feature of Antisocial Personality Disorder?
A. inflated sense of self
B. lack of remorse
C. lack of empathy
D. superficial charm
1.134 A diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder (APD) requires a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others.
a. Incorrect Inflated sense of self is listed as an associated feature in the DSM-IV-TR, not a diagnostic feature.
b. CORRECT For this diagnosis, the DSM requires the presence of at least three of seven characteristic behaviors. One of the seven is a lack of remorse.
c. Incorrect Lack of empathy is another associated feature of APD.
d. Incorrect Superficial charm is also mentioned as a common associated feature.
1.135 Research investigating the effects of job satisfaction has generally found that:
A. it is correlated with physical and psychological health and longevity
B. it is correlated with physical health and longevity but not with mental health.
C. it is correlated with psychological health but not with physical health or longevity
D. it is not correlated with physical or mental health or longevity.
1.135 Studies assessing the consequences of job satisfaction have found that it not only affects certain on-the-job factors but also factors outside the job environment.
a. CORRECT Job satisfaction has been found to correlate with longevity, while dissatisfaction has been associated with both psychological and physical disorders (e.g., ulcers, high blood pressure, alcoholism).
b. Incorrect Job satisfaction has been found to be related to all three factors.
c. Incorrect Job satisfaction has been found to be related to all three factors.
d. Incorrect Job satisfaction has been found to be related to all three factors.
1.136 Researchers interested in cognitive processes distinguish between schemas and scripts. From this perspective, a script is:
A. an integrated cluster of knowledge about a concept.
B. a cluster of knowledge about sequences of events and actions in a particular situation
C. a socially defined pattern of behaviors related to one's status or function.
D. a set of implicit goals, desires, and needs that guides one's behavior.
1.136 Even if you're unfamiliar with schemata and scripts, you may have been able to select the correct response by considering what the term "script" generally means.
a. Incorrect This defines a schema.
b. CORRECT A script tells you what to do in specific situations.
c. Incorrect This is not entirely incorrect but is a better definition of "role" than of "script."
d. Incorrect This is not how script is defined in the context of cognitive processes.
1.137 You are hired by a university to teach a graduate seminar in the psychology department. In terms of the Ethics Code, you are explicitly required to do which of the following?
A. ensure that the course content reflects the most recent research in the area
B. ensure that accurate information about the seminar is available to all interested parties
C. ensure that the seminar content is consistent with the interests and needs of the students
D. ensure that the grading and evaluation of students is fair
1.137 The issue addressed by this question is covered in Ethical Standard 7.02 of the Ethics Code.
a. Incorrect This is generally a good idea but it is not explicitly required by the Code. Also, there would be times when it would not apply – e.g., when the seminar is covering the history of clinical psychology.
b. CORRECT Of the responses given, only this one represents the explicit requirements of the Ethics Code.
c. Incorrect Although student interests and needs are a consideration when defining course content, they are certainly not the only consideration. Also, this is not explicitly required by the Code.
d. Incorrect Again, this is a good idea, but it is not specifically stated in the Ethics Code.
1.138 “Criterion contamination” is a concern when:
A. items on the measure of performance are dichotomously scored.
B. the performance measure will be scored by more than one rater.
C. rating categories are not mutually exclusive.
D. the measure of performance is subjectively scored
1.138 Criterion contamination occurs when a rater's knowledge of a ratee's performance on a predictor biases his/her ratings of the ratee on the criterion.
d. CORRECT Subjectively scored criterion measures are susceptible to biases, including criterion contamination. When criterion contamination occurs, the criterion may not be providing accurate information.
1.139 Brain imaging techniques have linked ADHD to smaller-than-normal globus pallidus, caudate nucleus, and:
A. temporal lobe
B. parietal lobe
C. prefrontal lobe
D. entorhinal cortex
1.139 Functional and structural brain imaging techniques have linked ADHD to abnormalities in several areas of the brain.
c. CORRECT The right frontal lobe (especially the prefrontal cortex) and the caudate nucleus and globus pallidus (structures of the basal ganglia) tend to be smaller in individuals with ADHD and to have lower-than-normal levels of metabolic activity.
1.140 A menopausal woman who is considering hormone replacement therapy (HRT) should be advised that this treatment may do all of the following except:
A. reduce the risk for osteoporosis.
B. reduce or eliminate "hot flashes.
C. increase sex drive
D. reduce mood symptoms.
1.140 HRT continues to be controversial because it is not only associated with a number of benefits but also with some negative side effects.
a. Incorrect This is one of the major advantages of HRT.
b. Incorrect HRT is effective for alleviating hot flashes.
c. CORRECT The results of research investigating the effects of HRT on libido are inconsistent, and the best conclusion that can be drawn at this time is that it does not increase sex drive.
d. Incorrect HRT does alleviate mood swings.
1.141 The notion of “collaborative empiricism” is associated with:
1.141 Collaborative empiricism refers to the collaborative relationship between client and therapist that involves working together to gather data and test the logic of the client's thoughts and beliefs.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Collaborative empiricism is a key strategy of Beck's cognitive-behavioral therapy. When using this strategy, the therapist and client work together to gather evidence and test hypotheses about the client's beliefs.
1.142 Jamal Jones, an African-American client, is aloof and unwilling to talk about his personal problems during his initial therapy sessions with Dr. Curt Cooper, a White therapist. Dr. Cooper’s best course of action would be to:
A. establish an egalitarian relationship by disclosing some personal information about himself
B. establish credibility and authority by describing his education and previous professional experience.
C. reassure Jamal that anything he reveals in therapy is confidential.
D. recognize Jamal’s behavior as resistance and help him understand that it will impede the progress of therapy.
1.142 The best course of action in this situation would depend on several factors, including Jamal’s stage of racial/ethnic identify development.
a. CORRECT Given the limited information presented in this question, this is the best answer. Sue and Sue (2003) note that African American individuals often prefer an egalitarian, personal relationship with a therapist, which the therapist can establish through self-disclosure or by discussing non-counseling issues.
b. Incorrect Establishing credibility by describing his education and experience would probably be most effective with Asian American therapy clients.
c. Incorrect Confidentiality may be an issue, but a therapist can never reassure a client that "anything" revealed in therapy is confidential (e.g., a therapist is legally and ethically required to breach confidentiality when the client is a danger to self or others).
d. Incorrect The research has shown that, for African American therapy clients, unwillingness to self-disclose is often due to factors other than resistance (e.g., healthy cultural paranoia).
1.143 A client reveals to you that he and a friend robbed a convenience store six months ago. He says he knows that what he did was wrong and will never do it again. He also says that he notices that you “make notes” while he is talking, and he asks that you not keep any written record of the robbery. You should:
A. agree to exclude information about the robbery from his file.
B. determine whether the robbery is clinically relevant before deciding whether or not to include information about it in his file.
C. inform the client that you are legally required to report the matter to the authorities before you actually do so.
D. reassure the client that anything he tells you is confidential and will not be revealed without his consent.
1.143 Psychologists are generally not required to report criminal conduct unless it is conduct explicitly addressed by the law (e.g., child abuse, danger to others).
a. Incorrect Omitting client information from the record at the client's request is not necessarily in the best interests of the client or the therapist.
b. CORRECT This is the best response of those given. A similar situation is discussed by R. Woody, who notes that client records are for the benefit of both the client and the therapist and that, if the client "communicates information that is relevant to the services provided, it should be entered into the record" (Legally safe mental health practice: Psycholegal questions and answers, Madison, CT, Psychosocial Press, 1997, p. 70).
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect It is important to keep in mind that it is impossible to guarantee that any client information will never be revealed under any circumstance.
1.144 Research using brain imaging techniques has confirmed that repeated exposure to alcohol during prenatal development is most likely to negatively impact the:
A. hypothalamus, thalamus, and parietal lobes.
B. medulla, thalamus, and temporal lobes.
C. basal ganglia, hippocampus, and frontal lobes
D. brainstem, amygdala, and frontal lobes.
1.144 Familiarity with the symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
c. CORRECT FAS is characterized by a combination of behavioral and cognitive symptoms including mental retardation, impaired attention and memory, hyperactivity, impaired motor coordination, impulsivity, and poor judgment. The areas of the brain listed in this answer mediate some of these functions and are often adversely affected by prenatal exposure to alcohol. Other areas that are commonly affected include the corpus callosum, cerebellum, and hypothalamus.
1.145 The _____ proposes that aggressive impulses “build up” inside an individual and must be released and that such release reduces the risk for future aggression.
A. displaced aggression hypothesis
B. contact hypothesis
C. catharsis hypothesis
D. deindividual model
1.145 Several theories have been developed to explain aggressive behavior.
a. Incorrect Displaced aggression refers to aggression that varies in either type or target from that actually preferred by the aggressor.
b. Incorrect The contact hypothesis was proposed by Allport as a method for reducing hostility and prejudice between members of majority and minority groups.
c. CORRECT One implication of the catharsis hypothesis is that watching someone else engage in violence (e.g., watching a violent TV show) will lead to catharsis, which will then reduce the risk of aggressive behavior in the future. The catharsis hypothesis has not been well-supported by the research.
d. Incorrect The deindividuation model predicts that people may be more willing to act aggressively when acting as a group member than when acting alone because of the anonymity that the group provides.
1.146 A friend asks you how you liked the concert you went to last Saturday night. As you try to recall the concert, you realize that you memory is being affected by other concerts you have attended in the past. In other words, your memory of last Saturday’s concert is being affected by:
A. your implicit memory of concerts.
B. a lack of encoding specificity.
C. positive memory transfer.
D. your schema for concerts.
1.146 In this situation, your memory of a particular concert is affected by your previous experiences with concerts.
d. CORRECT A schema is a group or cluster of knowledge about an object or event. Your recollection of last Saturday's concert is being affected by your "cluster of knowledge" regarding concerts.
1.147 A person-centered (Rogerian) therapist would most likely respond to a client’s transference by:
A. interpreting it
B. challenging it
C. disregarding it
D. reflecting it
1.147 Transference is not expected to develop in person-centered therapy, at least not at the intense level that it does in psychodynamic therapy.
c. CORRECT Transference in person-centered therapy is essentially accepted and disregarded rather than interpreted as it is in many other forms of therapy. This is consistent with the here-and-now approach of person-centered therapy.
1.148 The diagnosis of PTSD requires a duration of symptoms for at least ____, and the specifier “Acute” is assigned when the duration of symptoms is less than ______.
A. three weeks; one week
B. one month; two weeks
C. one month; three months
D. three months; three months
1.148 The DSM provides three specifiers for PTSD: Acute, Chronic, and Delayed Onset. See the Abnormal Psychology chapter for additional information about the diagnostic criteria for PTSD and requirements for each specifier.
c. CORRECT The diagnosis of PTSD requires a duration of characteristic symptoms for at least one month, and the specifier Acute is assigned when the symptoms have lasted for less than three months.
1.149 Scores on a predictor that will be used to estimate job performance rating range from 0 to 200. If the predictor’s cutoff score is raised from 130 to 150, this will have which of the following effects?
A. increase the number of true positives
B. increase the number of true positives and true negatives
C. decrease the number of false positives
D. decrease the number of false positives and false negatives
1.149 Drawing a scatterplot (like the one in the Test Construction materials) would have helped you recognize the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect Raising the predictor cutoff decreases the number of true and false positives.
b. Incorrect Raising the predictor cutoff decreases the number of true positives and increases the number of true negatives.
c. CORRECT All positives (true and false) are decreased and all negatives (true and false) are increased by raising the predictor cutoff.
d. Incorrect The number of false negatives increases.
1.150 One of the most common impairments following brain injury is memory loss. Although the nature of the disturbance depend on the locus and extent of the damage, most often it involves:
A. an inability to recall information stored in remote long-term memory.
B. profound deficits in memory for events that occurred in the days to weeks prior to the incident that caused the injury.
C. "spotty" deficits in memory for both recent and past events.
D. problems related to retaining new information.
1.150 Not surprisingly, brain injury typically affects memory, at least temporarily.
d. CORRECT The exact nature of the memory disturbance depends on the location and severity of the injury. However, new learning is most commonly impaired, and the severity of the injury is often measured by the length of this post-traumatic (anterograde) amnesia. Additional information on memory loss following head trauma is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
1.151 As defined in the EEOC Uniform Guidelines, “unfairness” is problem when:
A. different groups obtain consistently different scores on the predictor but similar scores on the criterion
B. different groups obtain consistently different scores on the criterion but similar scores on the predictor.
C. the predictor has significantly different validity coefficients for different groups.
D. the predictor has significantly different validity coefficients for different groups.
1.151 Unfairness is one of the possible causes of adverse impact.
a. CORRECT A test is "unfair" when it has a similar validity coefficient for members of two (or more) groups and members of the groups have similar criterion performance, but members of one group consistently score lower on the predictor than members of the other group(s). In this situation, if the same predictor cutoff is used for all individuals, there may be adverse impact for members of the low-scoring group.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect This describes differential validity.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
1.152 The original catecholamine hypothesis identified which of the following as being due to abnormalities in norepinephrine levels?
B. seizure disorders
C. social and simple phobia
D. depression and mania
1.152 The original catecholamine hypothesis was proposed by Schildkraut in 1935.
d. CORRECT According to Schildkraut, depression is due to decreased levels of norepinephrine while mania is due to increased levels. This hypothesis was subsequently expanded to include abnormalities in both norepinephrine and dopamine and other hypotheses were eventually proposed (e.g., the serotonin hypothesis, the serotonin-norepinephrine dichotomy hypothesis).
1.153 The “rebound effect” associated with benzodiazepine use refers to:
A. the persistence of symptoms despite an increase in the dose of the drug
B. the re-emergence of symptoms after long-term use of the drug.
C. an initial paradoxical increase in symptoms.
D. a temporary increase in severity of symptoms when the drug is discontinued
1.153 Discontinuation of a benzodiazepine may result in a variety of undesirable symptoms including a "rebound effect."
d. CORRECT A person taking a benzodiazepine for anxiety, for instance, may experience "rebound anxiety" when he/she stops taking the drug. Rebound anxiety occurs within hours to days after the drug is stopped and is more severe than the original symptoms.
1.154 To reduce a client’s cigarette smoking, the client is exposed to several treatment sessions in which stale cigarette smoke is blown into his face soon after he begins to smoke a cigarette and this continues until he stops smoking. Eventually, the client feels nauseous whenever he even thinks about smoking. In this situation, the stale cigarette smoke has acted as:
A. a conditioned stimulus.
B. an unconditioned stimulus
C. a negative punisher.
D. a negative reinforcer.
1.154 In this situation, two stimuli are being "paired" in order to change the response that is elicited by one of the stimuli. This procedures describes classical conditioning, would eliminates answers c and d since punishers and reinforcers are associated with operant conditioning.
a. Incorrect The cigarette is the conditioned stimulus (CS) in this situation. By being paired with stale cigarette smoke, it eventually elicits nausea.
b. CORRRECT The stale cigarette smoke naturally elicits nausea, so it is the unconditioned stimulus (US).
c. Incorrect A Skinnerian might describe the stale cigarette smoke as a positive (not negative) punishment, but a Skinnerian would not claim that a new response to smoking had been established, only that the person avoids cigarettes in order to avoid the punishment.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
1.155 In oragnizations, person-organization (P-O) fit is achieved primarily through:
A. career/vocational counseling
B. organizational development
C. training and evaluation
D. selection and socialization
1.155 The person-organization fit refers to the match between the employee’s values, needs, preferences, etc. and the culture of the organization. A good P-O fit has been linked to several benefits including enhanced satisfaction, motivation, and organizational commitment and reduced stress and turnover.
d. CORRECT Selection and socialization have been idenified as the primary opportunities for ensuring a good person-organization fit (e.g., Chatman, 1991): Selection helps identify individuals whose characteristics match the characteristics of the organization, while socialization (e.g., behavioral modeling by and feedback from the supervisor, participation in work-related social events) helps employees acquire the skills, knowledge, and attitudes that are compatible with the organization’s culture.
1.156 The rational-economic model of decision-making views decision-makers as attempting to make:
A. “satisficing” decisions
B. “bounded” decisions
C. representative decisions
D. optimal decisions
1.156 The rational-economic model assumes that decision-makers are perfect and rational.
a. Incorrect This better describes the assumption underlying the administrative model of decision-making.
b. Incorrect "Bounded rationality" is also associated with the administrative model, which does not view decision-makers as entirely perfect and rational.
c. Incorrect This is not associated with the rational-economic model.
d. CORRECT The rational-economic model assumes that decision-makers will consider all possible alternatives and choose the optimal one.
1.157 The SAT Reasoning Test is used to:
A. help skilled and semi-skilled workers choose an occupation.
B. help high school students choose a college major.
C. predict the graduate school success of college seniors.
D. predict the college success of high school seniors
1.157 Knowing that SAT refers to the Scholastic Assessment Test may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
d. CORRECT The Scholastic Assessment Test is an admissions test that is used to predict the college success of high school seniors. It consists of two parts -- the SAT Reasoning Test and the SAT Subject Tests.
1.158 Alfred Adler adopted a teleological approach, which means that he emphasized the role of ______ on current behavior.
A. early experiences
B. biological drives
C. future goals
D. cognitive schemas
1.158 Teleology is derived from the Greek word teleo, which means goals.
c. CORRECT Although Adler recognized the impact of early childhood experiences on subsequent behavior, he also believed that all behavior is purposeful and emphasized the impact of future goals. As described by Adler, the ultimate goal is a striving for superiority, which refers to attaining a sense of mastery or competence.
1.159 The best way to keep two sets of six digits in working memory is to:
A. visualize the digits in a string.
B. convert the 12 digits to “chunks”
C. connect each digit with a visual image.
D. repeat the digits first forward and then backward several times.
1.159 Working memory is another name for short-term memory. Two processes are useful for maintaining information in short-term memory: chunking and rehearsal (especially elaborative rehearsal).
b. CORRECT The number of digits exceeds the number of units that can be held in short-term memory. Therefore, it would be necessary to "chunk" the digits into a smaller number of units; e.g., four chunks of three digits each.
c. Incorrect This might be useful after the digits have been chunked to transfer information from short-term to long-term memory.
1.160 Older adults at a particularly high risk for ______, with the risk being increased by medical illness and surgery.
1.160 Advancing age is one of the factors that increases the risk for Delirium.
d. CORRECT Several factors place people at higher risk for delirium. People over 60 are usually cited as the group at highest risk in general. Moreover, the risk for this population increases as the result of a medical illness or surgery. Other high risk factors include cardiotomy, burns, and rapid withdrawal from alcohol or a sedative, hypnotic, or anxiolytic.
1.161 Freud (1984) introduced the concept of “defense” in his description of hysteria and attributed hysteria to which of the following defense mechanisms?
B. reaction formation
1.161 Freud's initial explanation for hysteria was that it represents an attempt to eliminate memories related to early psychic trauma from consciousness.
d. CORRECT Repressions is considered the most basic defense mechanism because it underlies all others. It was the initial defense mechanism identified by Freud, and he used it to explain the etiology of hysteria.
1.162 You receive a court order requesting that you provide information about a 19 year old client who is currently the defendant in a court case. You discuss the request with the client but he refuses to sign a waiver of confidentiality. You should:
A. refuse to provide the court with the requested information until you obtain a waiver from the client.
B. refuse to provide the court with the requested information until you obtain a waiver from the client's attorney or legal guardian.
C. provide the court only with information that you believe will not be harmful to the client.
D. provide the court with the requested information
1.162 The key term in this question is "court-ordered."
d. CORRECT Therapist-client privilege implies that, in most circumstances, a psychologist does not reveal confidential client information in the context of a legal proceeding without the consent of the client or his/her legal representative. There are exceptions to privilege, however, and a court order is one of these exceptions. (If the information is damaging to the client, the normal procedure is to request that it be read by the judge in camera – i.e., in the privacy of the judge's chambers.)
1.163 When Rosenhan’s (1973) “pseudopatients” were admitted to a mental hospital:
A. they were quickly recognized as being "normal" by both staff members and other patients.
B. they were not recognized as being "normal" by either staff members or other patients
C. they were recognized as being "normal" only when they stopped feigning symptoms.
D. they were more often recognized as being “normal” by other patients than by staff members
1.163 Rosenhan and seven assistants had themselves admitted to different mental health facilities by complaining of "hearing voices." Once admitted, they stopped feigning symptoms and "acted normal."
d. CORRECT Nearly one-third of the patients recognized the pseudopatients as sane. However, staff members diagnosed all but one pseudopatient as schizophrenic. For additional information on this study, see the Social Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
1.164 Social loafing is most likely to occur when a group member:
A. believes he/she has more task-related expertise than other members do.
B. did not voluntarily agree to participate in the group.
C. knows that his/her contribution to the group task will not be recognized
D. is highly motivated to achieve the group’s goals.
1.164 Social loafing is the tendency to exert less effort when working as a group member than when working alone.
a. Incorrect This has not been identified as a predictor of social loafing.
b. Incorrect This has not been linked to social loafing.
c. CORRECT Social loafing is most likely to occur when group members believe that their contribution to the group product will not or cannot be evaluated.
d. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true. Social loafing is unlikely to occur when group members are motivated to achieve the group’s goal.
1.165 Bob B. always perceived the sound of a piano as blue, the sound of a violin as green, and the sound of a trumpet as purple. This condition is referred to as:
1.165 Bob B. is perceiving sounds as colors.
a. Incorrect Achromatopsia is a congenital deficit in the perception of color.
b. Incorrect Paresthesias are abnormal neurological sensations – e.g., numbness, tingling, burning.
c. CORRECT Synesthesia refers to a sensation that occurs in one sense modality when another modality has been stimulated – e.g., perceiving auditory stimuli as color.
d. Incorrect Simultagnosia is an inability to recognize multiple elements in a visual object or scene.
1.166 As described in the DSM-IV-TR, common associated features for many of the Somatoform Disorders are:
A. disturbances in memory and concentration.
B. phobic and paranoid reactions.
C. anxiety and depression
D. pseudologia fantastica and vorbeireden.
1.166 The Somatoform Disorders include Body Dysmorphic Disorder, Conversion Disorder, Hypochondriasis, Somatization Disorder, and Pain Disorder.
a. Incorrect Disturbances in memory and concentration are associated with a number of mental disorders. However, the DSM-IV-TR does not list these as common symptoms of the Somatoform Disorders.
b. Incorrect Phobic and paranoid reactions are not associated with disorders in this category.
c. CORRECT The DSM-IV-TR lists anxiety and depression as common associated features for many of the Somatoform Disorders.
d. Incorrect Pseudologia fantastica (uncontrollable, pathological lying about one's history) and vorbeireden (giving approximate answers) are associated with the Factitious Disorders.
1.167 ___ is used to determine the minimum sample size needed for a study, given a particular level of significance, expected effect size, and other factors.
A. power analysis
C. incremental analysis
D. sensitivity analysis
1.167 Knowing that statistical power is affected by sample size would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. CORRECT A common use of power analysis is to determine the minimum sample size needed, given the desired level of power, type of statistical test, level of significance, and expected effect size.
1.168 A therapist using a multisystems approach when working with an African-American family will:
A. focus primarily on issues related to problems in the nuclear family.
B. incorporate other key individuals, agencies, and institutions into the treatment plan
C. focus primarily on interactions between family members that are contributing to the family's presenting problem(s).
D. view an individual family member's problems as the direct result of factors in the macrosystem.
1.168 N. Boyd-Franklin (Black Families in Therapy: A Multisystems Approach, New York, Guilford Press, 1989) argues that, to successfully treat African-American families, a therapist must be willing to consider and, when feasible, to intervene at multiple levels and in multiple systems.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Even if you are unfamiliar with the multisystems approach, its name implies that it involves addressing multiple systems such as the extended family, the church, schools, and social service agencies.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect While some problems may, indeed, be related to the macrosystem (society), not all problems would be considered the direct result of factors in that system.
1.169 Lawler’s (1973) model of facet satisfaction:
A. is similar to equity theory and assumes that job satisfaction is affected by comparisons of one’s own inputs and outcomes to the inputs and outcomes of others
B. is similar to need hierarchy theory and assumes that job satisfaction is related to the fulfillment of one's most prepotent needs.
C. is similar to two factor theory and views satisfaction and dissatisfaction as independent factors.
D. is similar to goal setting theory and proposes that participation in the setting of work objectives is crucial for job satisfaction.
1.169 Lawler's model of facet satisfaction is based on the premise that job satisfaction is a product of comparisons of one's job inputs, the inputs of others, and the job's characteristics to one's outcomes and the outcomes of others.
a. CORRECT Like equity theory, Lawler's model predicts that workers compare their own input/outcome ratios to the input/outcome ratios of comparable others. When the ratios are the same, the worker is satisfied; when the worker's own ratio is larger than that of comparable others, the worker may feel guilt or other discomfort; and when the worker's ratio is less than that of comparable others, he/she is dissatisfied.
1.170 A dopamine agonist would be LEAST useful for treating which of the following?
A. the cognitive impairments of Alzheimer’s disease
B. the motor symptoms of Parkinson's disease
C. the symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome
D. the symptoms of restless leg syndrome
1.170 Dopamine agonists stimulate dopamine receptors.
a. CORRECT Cholinesterase inhibitors are currently used to treat the memory and other cognitive symptoms of Alzheimer's disease. These drugs reduce the breakdown of acetylcholine in the brain. (Knowing that memory loss associated with Alzheimer's disease has been linked to ACh abnormalities would have helped you identify this as the correct answer.)
b. Incorrect Dopamine agonists are increasingly being used as the first-line defense in the treatment of Parkinson's disease as well as in conjunction with levadopa during the later stages of this disorder. Dopamine agonists help control tremor, muscle stiffness, balance problems, and other motor symptoms.
c. Incorrect Most theories of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) attribute it to dopamine blockade, and some experts recommend the use of dopamine agonists to alleviate its symptoms, especially in severe cases.
d. Incorrect Pramipexole, a dopamine agonist, has been found to be an effective treatment for restless leg syndrome for some patients.
1.171 The split-plot ANOVA is used when:
A. one of the independent variables is an extraneous variable.
B. all independent variables are quantitative
C. the researcher has used a "matched-pair" design.
D. the researcher has used a “mixed” design
1.171 The split-plot ANOVA is one of several forms of the ANOVA that you want to be familiar with for the exam.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Knowing that the split-plot ANOVA is also referred to as the mixed ANOVA would have helped you identify this as the correct answer. For additional information on the split-plot ANOVA, see the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials.
1.172 According to DSM-IV-TR, for approximately 30-40% of the individuals with Mental Retardation seen in clinical setting, no clear cause can be identified. For the remaining individuals, heredity is responsible in _____ of cases.
A. less than 1%
B. about 5%
C. about 20%
D. more than 50%
1.172 Over 500 genetic diseases have been associated with Mental Retardation.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Despite the large number of genetic conditions that have been linked with Mental Retardation, only about 5% of cases are due to hereditary factors. Included in this category are metabolic problems that are inherited through autosomal recessive mechanisms.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
1.173 A(n) ____ seizure begins in a localized area of the brain, spreads to other areas, produces a clouding or loss of consciousness, and ordinarily lasts from one to two minutes.
C. simple partial
D. complex partial
1.173 For the exam you want to be familiar with the characteristics of the major types of seizures.
a. Incorrect An absence seizure is a type of generalized seizure that involves a brief loss of consciousness (usually 10 to 20 seconds) without prominent motor symptoms.
b. Incorrect An atonic seizure is another type of generalized seizure. It involves a brief loss of consciousness accompanied by a loss of postural tone.
c. Incorrect A simple partial seizure affects only one side of the brain and does not involve a loss of consciousness.
d. CORRECT A complex partial seizure begins in one side of the brain but may spread to the other side and involves some degree of loss of consciousness.
1.174 During the first therapy session with a couple who are experiencing numerous problems in their relationship, their therapist requests that, during the next week, they identify things in their relationship that they would like to continue. Most likely, this therapist is a practitioner of:
A. solution-focused therapy
B. Milan systemic family therapy.
C. behavioral marital therapy.
D. interpersonal therapy
1.174 In the situation described in this question, the therapist has assigned the couple a task that will help them focus on the positive aspects of their relationship.
a. CORRECT In solution-focused therapy, this is an example of a “formula task.” Its purpose is to help the couple identify positive aspects of their relationship that, in turn, can lead to solutions to their marital difficulties.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
1.175 Trainability tests are:
A. paper-and-pencil tests that assess the aptitudes required for a particular job.
B. paper-and-pencil tests that assess motivation and other job-related attitudes.
C. work samples that incorporate a structured period of learning and evaluation
D. multimodal assessment techniques used to determine what training current workers require.
1.175 As their name implies, trainability tests are used to determine if individuals will benefit from training.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Trainability tests are similar to work samples except they are given to people who currently do not have sufficient skills or knowledge to perform the job. They are used to determine if a job applicant is likely to benefit from training.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
1.176 Which of the following is believed to be responsible for the phenomenon known the “cocktail party effect”?
A. divided attention
B. echoic memory
C. selective attention
D. implicit memory
1.176 The cocktail party effect occurs when, in a crowded noisy environment (e.g., a cocktail party), a person is able to listen to one speaker while tuning out other speakers and other noise.
a. Incorrect As its name suggests, divided attention refers to simultaneously paying attention to more than one stimulus at a time.
b. Incorrect Echoic memory is memory for auditory information that is maintained in sensory memory for a very brief period.
c. CORRECT Selective attention refers to the ability to focus conscious awareness on a particular stimulus in the presence of multiple stimuli.
d. Incorrect Implicit memory refers to memories that are retrieved without conscious effort or awareness.
1.177 Lesions in the dorsolateral area of the prefrontal cortex will most likely produce which of the following?
A. dysexecutive syndrome
B. disinhibition syndrome
C. apathetic syndrome
D. Gerstmann’s syndrome
1.177 For the exam, you want to be familiar with the symptoms associated with damage to the three major areas of the prefrontal cortex. These are described in the Physiological Psychology and Pharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT Dysexecutive syndrome is characterized by problems related to planning, problem-solving, abstract thinking, and insight as well as perseveration, inappropriate behaviors, and apathy. It is caused by lesions in the dorsolateral area of the prefrontal cortex of the frontal lobes
b. Incorrect Disinhibition syndrome is caused by lesions in the orbitofrontal area of the prefrontal cortex.
c. Incorrect Mesial frontal apathetic syndrome is caused by lesions in the mediofrontal area of the prefrontal cortex.
d. Incorrect Gerstmann’s syndrome is caused by damage to the left (dominant) parietal lobe.
1.178 In a study one group decision-making, it is found that the average group response is much more extreme, but in the same direction, as the average response given by group members before participating in the group. This phenomenon is referred to as:
A. the free-rider effect
C. group polarization
D. the risky shift
1.178 This question is asking about the phenomenon in which group decisions tend to be more extreme (either riskier or more conservative) than decisions made by individuals.
a. Incorrect The free-rider effect suggests that people reduce their effort on a group task when they observe that their contributions to a group are dispensable and that the group will succeed without them.
b. Incorrect Groupthink refers to a suspension of critical and objective thinking that can occur under certain circumstances in group decision-making. Although groupthink can result in more extreme decisions, this isn't necessarily so.
c. CORRECT Group (response) polarization occurs when a person makes a more extreme decision in a group than he/she would have made alone.
d. Incorrect The risky shift is like group polarization but includes only the "risky" end of the decision continuum. Therefore, answer c is a better response.
1.179 You would use which of the following to estimate what a predictor’s criterion-related validitiy coefficient would be if the predictor and/or criterion had a reliability coefficient of 1.0?
A. Spearman-Brown prophecy formula
B. correction for attenuation formula
C. coefficient of concordance
D. Kuder-Richardson Formula 20
1.179 For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the formulas listed in the answers to this question. They are described in the Test Construction chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The correction for attenuation formula is used for the purpose described in this question.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
1.80 A sudden loud noise would elicit which of the following reflexes from a one-month old infant?
1.180 A sudden loud noise produces a startle reaction.
a. Incorrect The Babkin reflex occurs in response to an object being placed against both of an infant's palms.
b. Incorrect The Darwinian (palmar) reflex occurs in response to placing an object in the infant's hand.
c. CORRECT The Moro reflex occurs in response to either a loud noise or being dropped.
d. Incorrect The Babinski reflex is produced by tickling the middle of the soles of the infant's feet.
1.181 According to McGregor (196), Theory X managers assume that:
A. employees have an inherent dislike of work and will avoid it when they can
B. employees are inherently motivated to work and are capable of self-control and self-direction.
C. the most effective management style depends on the nature of the organizational climate.
D. the most effective management style depends on the nature of the task and certain characteristics of the employees.
1.181 As described by McGregor (1960), Theory X and Theory Y managers are distinguished by their different assumptions about employee characteristics.
a. CORRECT Knowing that Theory X managers have a pessimistic view of employees would have enabled you to identify this as the correct response.
b. Incorrect This is more consistent with the assumptions of Theory Y managers who have more positive views of employees.
c. Incorrect McGregor’s theory does not identify factors that determine the most effective management style. Instead, McGregor proposed that a Theory Y style is most likely to have the greatest benefits for an organization.
d. Incorrect See explanations above.
1.182 An ongoing debate in the literature centers on a therapist’s responsibility when working with a client who is HIV-positive and is engaging in risky sexual behavior. A central issue in this debate it:
A. social responsibility
B. client abandonment
C. foreseeability of harm
D. vicarious liability
1.182 As noted in the chapter on ethics and professional issues in the written study materials, this issue is often discussed within the framework of the Tarasoff decision.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT In discussing this topic, S. Knapp and L. VandeCreek, for example, note that three issues are involved in the duty to protect: a fiduciary relationship, an identifiable victim, and the foreseeability of harm. They note that the "issue of foreseeability creates the greatest problems with the duty to protect with HIV-positive patients because the research has not identified all the risk factors involved in HIV transmission" (Application of the duty to protect to HIV-positive patients, Professional Psychology: Research and Practice, 21(3), 161-166, 1990).
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
A. can be waived by the client.
B. can be waived by the client's therapist.
C. can be waived only by the court.
D. is waived by the attorney in a legal proceeding.
1.183 Privilege refers to a client's right to confidentiality in legal proceedings. Privilege is legally defined and belongs to the client. For additional information on privilege, see the chapter on ethics and professional issues in the written study materials.
a. CORRECT The client is the holder of the privilege and can waive privilege.
b. Incorrect A therapist can "assert the privilege" but he/she cannot waive it.
c. Incorrect There are legal exceptions to privilege, but the court cannot "waive" privilege.
d. Incorrect As noted above, only the client can waive privilege.
1.184 Which of the following is most likely to be an accurate description of the relationship between two sisters, ages 14 and 16?
A. emotionally intense
B. somewhat distant but egalitarian
C. conflictual and resentful
D. competitive and aggressive
1.184 The studies have found that sibling relationships vary over the course of childhood and adolescence in a fairly predictable way. Information on this issue is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT In adolescence, siblings spend less time together, their relationship becomes less emotionally intense and more distant, and the friction between them usually declines as they begin to view one another as equals.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
1.185 Dr. Dither is hired by the court to conduct an evaluation of a family as part of a child protection matter. Based on Dr. Dither’s evaluation and other evidence, the court determines that the child can remain at home with his family who will be provided with supervision and counseling. Six months after the case is heard in court, Dr. Dither is contacted by the mother who says she would like to begin therapy with him for issues unrelated to the child protection matter. According to the APA’s Guidelines for Psychological Evaluations in Child Protection Matters, Dr. Dither should:
A. agree to see the woman in therapy since the child protection matter has been resolved.
B. agree to see the woman in therapy only if her problem is, in fact, unrelated to the child protection matter.
C. agree to see the women in therapy since his familiarity with her situation will be an advantage.
D. refer the woman to a colleague
1.185 In most situations, multiple relationships are to be avoided.
d. CORRECT According to the Guidelines, "therapeutic contact with the child or involved participants following a child custody evaluation is undertaken with caution."
1.186 Gerald Patterson and his colleagues have developed a model to explain the origins of adolescent delinquency. Their approach is most consistent with which of the following?
A. object relations theory
B. social learning theory
C. cognitive developmental theory
D. social comparison theory
1.186 According to Patterson and his colleagues, adolescent delinquency is traceable to unskilled and inefficient childrearing by the child's parents, high levels of punishment, and a tendency to react to a child's negative actions in kind.
b. CORRECT Patterson's model emphasizes the impact of modeling/imitation and reinforcement and, therefore, is consistent with a social learning approach. Additional information about Patterson's model is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter in the written study materials.
1.187 From the Freudian perspective, interpretation:
A. is appropriate only during the final "working through" phase of therapy.
B. is most useful when it evokes material at the deepest level of the unconscious.
C. helps the client uncover and gain insight into unconscious material
D. involves restating and clarifying the client's statements in clearer terms.
1.187 Interpretation is a key process in Freudian psychoanalysis and is applied to free associations, dreams, resistances, etc.
a. Incorrect Interpretations are made throughout therapy.
b. Incorrect The opposite is true. Interpretation is most successful when it addresses unconscious material that is just below the surface.
c. CORRECT This is the most accurate description of interpretation.
d. Incorrect This is a better description of clarification than interpretation.
1.188 You suspect a colleague of violating ethical guidelines. To be consistent with the provisions of the Ethics Code, you should:
A. report the colleague to the local Ethics Committee immediately.
B. report the colleague to the local Ethics Committee only if the ethical violation is a serious one
C. attempt to handle the situation informally by discussing the violation with the colleague and file a report only if he is uncooperative.
D. either handle the situation informally or file a report, depending on which course of action you believe is most appropriate
1.188 The provisions of the Ethics Code allow psychologists to use their own discretion about the best course of action in cases where another psychologist is suspected of acting unethically.
d. CORRECT Psychologists can either attempt to resolve an ethical infraction informally or file a complaint with the Ethics Committee, depending on which course of action they deem most appropriate. (Of course, it is always necessary to consider client confidentiality first before taking any action, but none of the responses given address this issue.)
1.189 Marlatt and Gordon’s (1985) relapse prevention model focuses on:
A. situation antecedent to relapse
B. the perceived consequences of relapse.
C. controlled drinking.
D. contingency management.
1.189 Marlatt and Gordon's approach to the definition and treatment of addictions is classified as a social learning approach that combines behavioral and cognitive principles.
a. CORRECT According to Marlatt and Gordon, relapse is a failure to maintain a behavior change after treatment and is best avoided by identifying and dealing with its antecedents. (The research has shown that "negative affect" is the most common antecedent of relapse.)
1.190 A pigeon is placed in a cage that has two levers. Lever #1 delivers reinforcement on a VI-30-second schedule, while Lever #2 delivers reinforcement on a VI-60-second schedule. What proportion of the pigeon’s pecks will be on Lever #1?
1.190 When using a concurrent VI schedule, each lever or key delivers reinforcement on a different variable interval schedule. In this situation, the animal matches the relative frequency of its pecks on each key to the relative frequency of reinforcement obtained with that key.
b. CORRECT In the situation described in the question, the pigeon will peck the VI-30 key twice as often as the VI-60 key. Put another way, 2/3 of the pigeon's pecks will be on the VI-30 key and the remaining 1/3 will be on the VI-60 key.
1.191 In therapy, an American Indian family is likely to respond most positively to interventions that:
A. reflect a “value-free” perspective.
B. reflect a spiritual, “holistic” orientation to life
C. make a clear distinction between mental and physical well-being.
D. take into account the hierarchical structure of the family.
1.191 It is always important to take a therapy client’s culture into account when deriving a diagnosis and developing a treatment plan.
a. Incorrect When working with American Indian clients, adopting a “value-free” perspective can lead to mistrust.
b. CORRECT American Indians are likely to have a spiritual, holistic orientation to life that emphasizes harmony with nature.
c. Incorrect As a general rule, American Indians do not make clear distinctions between mental and physical health.
d. Incorrect The structure of American Indian families varies; however, families are usually not hierarchical.
1.192 Visual agnosia is best conceptualized as:
A. visual "not caring."
B. visual “not knowing”
C. visual repression.
D. visual blindness
1.192 Visual agnosia is the loss of the ability to recognize visual stimuli even though visual acuity is intact.
b. CORRECT The term "agnosia" is derived from the Greek word "agnostos," which means "unknown, unknowable, not knowing."
1.193 Smith, Glass, and Miller (1980) used meta-analysis to combine the results of 475 psychotherapy outcome studies published between 1941 and 1976 and obtained a mean effect size of ___, which indicated that the average therapy client was “better off” than about 80% of individuals who needed therapy but did not receive it.
1.193 For the licensing exam, you want to be familiar with the Smith, Glass, and Miller (1980) study as well as with the interpretation of an effect size, which indicates the difference between average individuals in the treatment and control groups on the outcome measure in terms of standard deviation units.
c. CORRECT If you didn’t remember the effect size reported by Smith et al., being familiar with the areas under the normal curve may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question: In a normal distribution, 84% of cases fall below the score that is one standard deviation above the mean. Therefore 80% of cases will fall below the score that is slightly below one standard deviation above the mean.
1.194 Random selection of the sample from the target population is an assumption of:
A. parametric statistical tests only.
B. nonparametric statistical tests only.
C. both parametric and nonparametric statistical tests
D. neither parametric nor nonparametric statistical tests.
1.194 Parametric and nonparametric inferential statistical tests are based on probability theory and indicate the likelihood (probability) that an obtained value could have occurred or have been obtained by chance alone.
c. CORRECT To determine if obtained results are due to random (chance) factors versus the effects of the independent variable, the sample must be an unbiased representation of the population. The best way to obtain an unbiased sample is through random selection of the sample from the population -- and random selection is an assumption underlying the use of both paramatric and nonparametric tests (although it is often violated).
1.195 Borderline Personality Disorder is most commonly diagnosed in individuals ages:
A. 19 through 34
B. 29 through 44
C. 39 through 54
D. 49 through 64
1.195 Knowing that the symptoms of Borderline Personality Disorder tend to dissipate with increasing age would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. CORRECT The rates of BPD are highest during the young adult years. Although individuals with this disorder often continue to exhibit some symptoms throughout their life, by age 40, many no longer meet the diagnostic criteria for BPD.
1.196 A therapist is most likely to say that which of the following is the most stressful type of client behavior?
A. threats of a malpractice suit
B. demands for time and attention
C. suicidal statements
D. a lack of gratitude
1.196 Therapists experience stress and burnout for several reasons. Not surprisingly, the most difficult situation--i.e., the one requiring an immediate response--is the one that is associated with the greatest stress.
c. CORRECT Surveys of therapists have revealed that suicidal ideation and threats are considered the most stress-producing client behaviors.
1.197 An examinee obtains a score of 70 on a test that has a mean of 80, a standard deviation of 15, and a standard error of measurement of 5. The 95% confidence interval for the examinee’s score is:
A. 65 to 75
B. 60 to 80
C. 55 to 85
D. 50 to 90
1.197 As described in the Test Construction chapter of the written study materials, the 95% confidence interval for an obtained test score is constructed by multiplying the standard error of measurement by 1.96 and adding and subtracting the result from the examinee's score.
b. CORRECT This interval is closest to the 95% confidence interval and was obtained by multiplying the standard error by 2.0 (instead of 1.96) and adding and subtracting the result from the examinee's score of 70.
1.198 Which of the following is true about the standard error of the mean?
A. It increases as the standard deviation decreases.
B. It is not affected by the size of the standard deviation.
C. It decreases as sample size increases
D. It decreases as the number of samples increases.
1.198 The standard error of the mean is the standard deviation of the sampling distribution of the mean. It is equal to the population standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size.
a. Incorrect As the population standard deviation increases or decreases, the standard error of the mean changes in the same direction: i.e., as one increases, the other increases.
b. Incorrect The standard error of the mean is affected by the standard deviation, so changes in the standard deviation will impact the standard error.
c. CORRECT As sample size increases, the standard error decreases.
d. Incorrect The standard error of the mean is affected by the size (not the number) of samples.
1.199 When using protocol analysis to assess problem-solving in adolescents, a psychologist will ask each adolescent to:
A. assemble a representative set of task assignments that the psychologist will review
B. report the first answer he/she thinks of when presented with a problem.
C. describe how he/she determined the solution after working on a problem.
D. “think aloud” while solving a problem
1.199 Protocol analysis involves analyzing the transcript (protocol) of a person's verbalizations while solving a problem, making a decision, etc.
a. Incorrect This sounds like portfolio assessment.
b. Incorrect This sounds like free association.
c. Incorrect This is called "retrospective debriefing."
d. CORRECT Having a person think-aloud while solving a problem, recording the person's verbalizations, and then analyzing the transcript of that recording are the procedures used in protocol analysis.
1.200 Overall, research investigating the effects of examiner race on the performance of African American children on IQ tests suggests that:
A. the performance of African American children is significantly suppressed when the examiner is White
B. the performance of African American children is significantly improved when the examiner is African American.
C. the performance of African American children is enhanced somewhat when the examiner is White and clearly unbiased.
D. the performance of African American children is affected more by the examiner’s testing experience and attitudes than by his or her race
1.200 This is one of the controversies in psychology that has not been completely resolved. However, in general, matching in terms of race or ethnicity has not been found to be a critical factor in testing, therapy, or other situations.
d. CORRECT This is the best conclusion that can be drawn from the existing studies. When an examiner's race appears to have an impact on the examinee's performance, it is often the result of factors other than race. (Even Arthur Jensen found that, when a White examiner adopted a more informal style with African American children, the children's scores on IQ tests were higher.)
1.201 According to ______, a person’s perception of the magnitude of a stimulus is directly proportional to the logarithm of the actual magnitude of the stimulus.
A. Fechner’s Law
B. Stevens’s Power Law
C. Weber’s Law
D. Gerstmann’s Law
1.201 For the exam, you want to be familiar with the three psychophysical laws listed in answers a, b, and c.
a. CORRECT The description in this question describes the prediction made by Fechner’s Law regarding the relationship between the actual intensity of a physical stimulus and perception of that intensity.
b. Incorrect Stevens’s Power Law predicts that perceived intensity of a stimulus is an exponential function of the actual intensity of the stimulus.
c. Incorrect Weber’s Law predicts that, the greater the intensity of a stimulus, the greater the increase in stimulus intensity needed for the increase to produce a just noticeable difference in intensity.
d. Incorrect There is no “Gerstmann’s Law.” Instead, there’s a Gerstmann’s syndrome that you want to be familiar with. It is caused by damage to the left parietal lobe and its symptoms are finger agnosia, right-left confusion, agraphia, and acalculia.
1.202 Anomia is a likely outcome of damage to which of the following areas of the brain?
A. somatosensory cortex
B. mammillary bodies
C. Wernicke’s area
D. Papez’s circuit
1.202 Knowing that anomia is a symptom of some types of aphasia and/or that it involves an inability to name familiar objects and people would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect The somatosensory cortex is located in the parietal lobe and is involved in pressure, temperature, pain, and proprioception.
b. Incorrect The mammillary bodies are connected to the hypothalamus and play a role in learning and memory.
c. CORRECT Wernicke’s area is a major language area in the brain, and damage causes deficits in language comprehension and production, including an inability to name familiar objects and people.
d. Incorrect Papez’s circuit was proposed as a brain mechanism (circuit) that mediates the experience and expression of emotion.
1.203 Participants in a research study are asked to tap with a finger to keep time with a metronome. After several taps, the metronome is turned off and participants are asked to continue with the same beat. Participants with damage to which of the following areas of the brain will have the most difficulty with this task?
B. suprachiasmatic nucleus
1.203 Knowing that the cerebellum is involved in the timing and coordination of movements would have enabled you to identify the correct answer to this question.
a. CORRECT This question describes a study conducted by Keele and Ivry who propose that an underlying impairment in cerebellar damage is a loss of timing. In their study, patients with cerebellar damage had more trouble on this task than patients with damage to the cortex or basal ganglia, leading these authors to conclude that the cerebellum is involved in the timing of movements [S. W. Keele and R. Ivry, Does the cerebellum provide a common computation for diverse tasks? A timing hypothesis, Annals of the New York Academy of Sciences, 608, 1991].
1.204 Damage to the frontal lobes is MOST likely to cause which of the following?
A. impaired comprehension of speech and written language
B. neglect of the opposite side of the body
C. inability to carry out planned activities
D. inability to recognize familiar objects
1.204 For the exam, you want to be familiar with the major functions of the four lobes of the cerebral cortex. This information is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect Impaired language comprehension is caused by damage to Wernicke's area, which is located in the temporal lobe.
b. Incorrect Contralateral neglect is caused by damage to the non-dominant parietal lobe.
c. CORRECT Damage to certain areas of the frontal lobes can result in profound deficits in planning, insight, and judgment.
d. Incorrect Visual agnosia is caused by damage to the occipital lobe.
1.205 Approximately ____ percent of left-handed people are left hemisphere dominant for language.
A. 5 to 10
B. 20 to 30
C. 50 to 60
D. 90 to 95
1.205 The majority of people are left-hemisphere dominant for language, while the rest are right-hemisphere dominant or have mixed dominance.
c. CORRECT The studies have not produced entirely consistent results but, overall, indicate that about 95 to 99% of right-handed people and 50 to 60% of left-handed people are left-hemisphere dominant for language. See, e.g., H. S. Kirshner, Handbook of neurological speech and language disorders, New York, Informal Healthcare, 1995.
1.206 According to Noam Chomsky’s nativist theory, language is largely the result of:
A. innate factors
B. operant conditioning
C. parental modeling
D. cognitive development
1.206 For the exam, you want to be familiar with the characteristics of the nativist, behaviorist, and interactionist approaches to language development, which are described in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT Chomsky proposed an innate language acquisition device that consists of language rules and that allows children to acquire language just by being exposed to it.
1.207 The parent of a one year old says her daughter shows signs of understanding some of what is said to her. However, the girl is still babbling and the closest she has come to a word is “dadada.” You:
A. advise the parent that this is within the range of normal language development
B. tell the parent that most children don't speak their first words until 16 or 17 months of age.
C. refer the parent and her daughter to a speech pathologist for an evaluation of the child's language ability.
D. consider the possibility of a diagnosis of Expressive Language Disorder.
1.207 At 12 months of age, children still babble, although their babbling consists primarily of identical sound sequences ("dadada"). While many children have spoken their first words by this age, it is not uncommon for first words to appear in subsequent months.
a. CORRECT The child's language development is "on track."
b. Incorrect Most children utter their first words prior to 17 or 18 months.
c. Incorrect The child's language skills do not indicate developmental delays, so this is unnecessary.
d. Incorrect The child's language abilities are not indicative of a disorder.
1.208 Mr. and Mrs. Wolff bring their 17 month old son, Walter, to you for an evaluation because they are concerned that he has not yet started walking or talking. You should:
A. reassure the parents that Walter is developing within normal limits.
B. refer the family to a physician for an evaluation of Walter
C. administer an appropriate developmental screening device.
D. obtain a thorough family history.
1.208 Being familiar with the major developmental milestones would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
b. CORRECT At 17 months of age, most children are talking and walking, so Walter's developmental delays may be indicative of a serious problem. Referral to a physician to help pinpoint the causes of Walter’s delays would be the appropriate course of action. Administering a screening test (response c) is not the best action in this case since the boy’s delays are clearly significant.
1.209 A depressed client says she feels worthless and unlikable and every time she tries to do something to make things better, she is faced with barriers put up by her parents, husband, and boss, who don’t seem to recognize her efforts. In terms of the third component of Beck’s cognitive triad, you would expect the client to also say:
A. other people are "out to get her."
B. she had a "lousy childhood."
C. she feels that things will never change
D. nothing seems to make her feel good.
1.209 This person's statements reflect a negative view of the self and the world, which are two of the three elements of Beck's cognitive triad.
c. CORRECT The third element is a negative view of the future. According to Beck, depressed people feel that failures, disappointments, etc. will never stop or change.
1.210 The behavioral technique known as response cost makes use of which of the following to alter a person’s behavior?
A. positive punishment
B. negative punishment
C. positive reinforcement
D. negative reinforcement
1.210 When using response cost, a stimulus is removed each time the target behavior is performed in order to reduce or eliminate that behavior.
a. Incorrect Positive punishment involves applying a stimulus following a behavior to reduce that behavior.
b. CORRECT Negative punishment involves removing a stimulus following a behavior to reduce that behavior. In the case of response cost, the stimulus is something that the individual finds reinforcing such as money or computer privileges.
c. Incorrect Positive reinforcement involves applying a stimulus following a behavior to increase that behavior.
d. Incorrect Negative reinforcement involves removing a stimulus following a behavior to increase that behavior.
1.211 As described by Beck, automatic thoughts involve:
A. interpreting experiences in patterned, reflexive ways
B. enduring schemas that have been repeatedly reinforced.
C. "shoulds," "musts," and "oughts."
D. episodic memories.
1.211 Automatic thoughts are a primary target in Beck's cognitive therapy.
a. CORRECT As their name implies, automatic thoughts are automatic or reflexive. They also usually have an interpretive component (e.g., "this is awful").
b. Incorrect Although automatic thoughts may be the result of cognitive schemas, Beck does not associate them with repeated reinforcement.
c. Incorrect Shoulds, musts, and oughts are of interesst to practitioners of REBT.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
1.212 Which of the following is not true about the employees with a high need for achievement (nACH)?
A. They are more concerned with personal accomplishment than with obtaining praise or recognition.
B. They like to receive frequent and concrete feedback about their job performance.
C. They usually prefer to work alone or with others who are high in need for achievement.
D. They prefer high-risk projects and goals that maximally challenge their ability to excel
1.212 Need for achievement was identified by David McClelland as one of the primary needs underlying human motivation.
a. Incorrect This is true about people with high nACH. For these individuals, rewards are important only to the extent that they serve as indicators of personal accomplishment.
b. Incorrect Individuals with a high nACH desire regular feedback because it allows them to monitor and, if necessary, modify their performance.
c. Incorrect This is also true about individuals with high nACH.
d. CORRECT McClelland contrasted people high in need for achievement with gamblers. According to McClelland, gamblers are high risk takers while achievement-motivated people prefer moderate levels of risk. For example, workers with high nACH prefer moderately difficult performance goals (i.e., goals that have a 50% chance of success).
1.213 In a police department, the usual rotating 8 hour shift of the officers is replaced by a fixed 12 hour compressed shift. Most likely, this change will have which of the following effects?
A. decrease productivity and satisfaction
B. decrease productivity but increase satisfaction
C. increase productivity but decrease satisfaction
D. increase satisfaction but have little or no effect on productivity
1.213 Questions on the effects of work schedules are difficult to answer since the research on this issue has produced inconsistent results. However, a good generalization is that innovative work schedules have a greater impact on attitudes than on productivity (especially objective measures of productivity).
d. CORRECT This is the best overall conclusion and the one that was reached in a meta-analysis of research on the compressed work week by B. Baltes et al. [Flexible and compressed workweek schedules: A meta-analysis of their effects on work-related criteria, Journal of Applied Psychology, 84(4), 496-513, 1999].
1.214 In a study designed to evaluate the correlates of achievement motivation, a psychologist would be likely to find that, in comparison to people with a low need for achievement, people with a high need for achievement will prefer which of the following kinds of tasks?
A. tasks of low difficulty
B. tasks of moderate difficulty
C. tasks of high difficulty
D. tasks representing a range of difficulty levels
1.214 Achievement-oriented people tend to prefer moderate to moderately difficult tasks.
a. Incorrect You probably could have eliminated this response on the basis of common sense. People who are achievement-oriented would not get too much gratification from success on easy tasks.
b. CORRECT This might not be the answer you'd guess if you're totally unfamiliar with the research on this topic, but, in fact, it is the correct answer.
c. Incorrect Somewhat surprisingly, it is people with a low need for achievement who choose more difficult tasks.
d. Incorrect If you had eliminated answer "a" for the correct reason, that should have helped you eliminate this answer too since tasks of varying difficulty levels would include easy tasks.
1.215 According to John D. Krumboltz (1996), career development and career choice are related primarily to:
A. needs and drives.
B. early childhood experiences.
C. ego identity development.
D. social learning
1.215 Krumboltz proposes that career decisions are based on what the individual has learned.
d. CORRECT Krumboltz's emphasis is on social learning -- i.e., modeling and other aspects of the social environment -- and his theory is referred to as the Social Learning Theory of Career Decision Making (SLTCDM). Additional information about Krumboltz's theory is provided in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
1.216 When using the Critical Incident Technique (CIT), a supervisor:
A. identifies an employee’s typical (average) job behaviors.
B. identifies an employee’s effective and ineffective job behaviors
C. determines if an employee has achieved his/her performance goals.
D. determines if an employee’s performance matches a predefined standard of performance.
1.216 The Critical Incident Technique (CIT) is a performance appraisal technique that is used to provide employees with feedback about their job performance.
b. CORRECT As originally described, CIT involves having the supervisor observe an employee during a designated period and record the employee’s behaviors that represent satisfactory or unsatisfactory performance.
1.217 When attempting to expand your private practice, it is important to keep in mind that in-person solicitations:
A. are always unethical.
B. are unethical only when they target individuals receiving similar services from another professional.
C. are unethical only when they include deceptive or misleading information.
D. are unethical when they include deceptive information or when the person solicited is susceptible to undue influence
1.217 Although the APA's prohibitions against solicitation of clients have been limited by the requirements of the Federal Trade Commission, APA still considers certain types of business solicitations unethical.
a. Incorrect In-person solicitations might be ethically acceptable in some situations (e.g., when they are "invited" solicitations).
b. Incorrect This type of solicitation might also be acceptable in some situations.
c. Incorrect This is not the most complete response of those given.
d. CORRECT This is most consistent with Standard 5.06 of the Ethic Code: Solicitations are unethical when they include deceptive or false information or when their targets are individuals who are vulnerable to undue influence.
1.218 To compare the impact of two or more interventions on patients’ duration and quality of life, you would conduct which of the following types of cost analysis?
A. cost utility
1.218 For the exam, you want to be familiar with the types of cost analysis described in the Ethics and Professional Issues chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT A cost-utility analysis is conducted to compare the effects of two or more treatments on duration and quality of life.
b. Incorrect Cost-effectiveness analysis is used to compare the costs and benefits of different treatments in terms of specific nonmonetary outcomes (e.g., symptom severity, premature dropout rate) to identify the treatment that produces the best outcomes at the least cost.
c. Incorrect As its name implies, a cost-minimization analysis is conducted to determine the least costly option among several options.
d. Incorrect A cost-benefit analysis involves determining the relative costs and benefits of a particular treatment in monetary terms.
1.219 The use of a collection agency to collect delinquent fees from a former client is:
A. unethical and illegal.
B. unethical but legal.
C. ethical under certain circumstances
D. always ethical
1.219 A therapist, like anyone else, has a right to be paid for his/her services.
c. CORRECT The use of a collection agency is not unethical as long as certain precautions are taken: Ideally, the client should be told at the outset of therapy what the therapist’s policy is regarding the collection of delinquent fees. Even more important, the client should be notified of the intention to use a collection agency if delinquent fees are not paid within a specified period of time (See Standard 6.04(e) in the Ethics Code).
1.220 The mother of a previous client of yours asks for a copy of her daughter’s records. The daughter saw you for two years and died three months ago when she was 38. You should:
A. send the woman a copy of the records as requested.
B. send the woman only that information you believe will not be harmful.
C. allow the woman to inspect the records in your office.
D. do not release any information without appropriate authorization
1.220 Although the laws vary from jurisdiction to jurisdiction, in general, a psychologist should not release information after a client's death without proper authorization (e.g., from the executor of the estate or the client's legal representative).
d. CORRECT This is the best course of action. See, e.g., R. I. Simon, Clinical psychiatry and the law, American Psychiatric Press, Washington, DC, 1992.
1.221 For practitioners of Minuchin’s structural family therapy, a symptom is:
A. both the result and cause of dysfunctional communication patterns.
B. the result of a family projection process.
C. a reflection of an "impasse.”
D. a maladaptive reaction to stress
1.221 A primary goal of structural family therapy is to restructure the family so that it is better able to adapt to maturational and situational stressors.
a. Haley’s strategic family therapy focuses on dysfunctional communication patterns.
b. Incorrect The family projection process is a focus of Bowen's extended family systems therapy.
c. Incorrect An impasse is not a focus of structural family therapy.
d. CORRECT For structural family therapists, developmental and environmental changes produce stress which a family can respond to in either a healthy or unhealthy way.
1.222 A psychotherapist is most likely to say that which of the following is the greatest source of stress in his or her work?
C. the general passive nature of his/her work
D. the lack of therapeutic success
1.222 A survey of psychotherapists conducted in the early 1980s indicated that therapists expect their work to be stressful but also expect that their efforts will be appreciated and have positive results.
a. Incorrect In their survey of therapists, B. A. Farber and L. J. Helfetz (The process and dimensions of burnout in psychotherapists, Professional Psychology, 13(2), 293-301, 1982) found that isolation was cited by only 11.1% of their respondents as a major source of stress.
b. Incorrect Only 22.2% of respondents said that overwork was a major problem.
c. Incorrect About 13% of respondents cited this as a source of stress.
d. CORRECT The overwhelming majority of respondents (73.7%) said the major source of stress in their work was the lack of therapeutic success.
1.223 Research on the impact of cultural identification on substance abuse among Native American youth has found that the risk for abuse is:
A. lowest for those who are acculturated into the non-Native American (mainstream) culture.
B. lowest for those who can adapt to both Native American and non-Native American cultures
C. highest for those who strongly identify with the Native American culture and reject the non-Native American culture.
D. highest for those who do not strongly identify with either the Native American or non-Native American culture.
1.223 The studies have established a link between risk for substance abuse and cultural identity for Native American youth.
b. CORRECT The studies have shown that either strong identification with one's own Native American tribe or a bicultural identity is associated with a lower risk for substance use than a strong identification with the mainstream culture only. See, e.g., E. R. Oetting, F. Beauvais, and J. Velarde, Marijuana use by reservation Native American youth, Listening Post (Indian Health Service), 4, 25-28, 1982.
c. Incorrect Strong identification with the Native American culture is associated with a lower risk for substance abuse.
d. Incorrect The highest risk seems to be for those who reject the Native American culture and are highly acculturated into the mainstream.
1.224 A clinical picture similar to the one associated with Panic Disorder can also be observed for which of the following disorders?
A. Mania, Generalized Anxiety Disorder, Caffeine Intoxication
B. Specific Phobia, Dysmorphophobia, Alcohol Intoxication
C. Conversion Disorder, Somatization Disorder, Amphetamine Intoxication
D. Major Depressive Disorder, Generalized Anxiety Disorder, Alcohol Intoxication
1.224 Many of the symptoms of Panic Disorder are also seen in other disorders, which can complicate the diagnostic process.
a. CORRECT Of the disorders listed in the four responses, these three most resemble Panic Disorder. Each typically involves such symptoms as restlessness, tachycardia, trembling or shaking, flushed face, and gastrointestinal disturbances.
b. Incorrect Although a Specific Phobia can include panic attacks, the other disorders listed in this answer do not include symptoms similar to those seen in Panic Disorder.
c. Incorrect Panic symptoms are not characteristic of Conversion Disorder.
d. Incorrect Panic symptoms are not a typical feature of Alcohol Intoxication.
1.225 Neurofibrillary tangles and neuritic plaques are associated with which of the following?
A. dementia of the Alzheimer’s type
B. dementia due to Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
C. Pick’s disease
D. vascular dementia
1.225 Neurofibrillary tangles and neuritic plaques are characteristic of only one of the four types of dementia listed in the answers.
a. CORRECT People with Alzheimer’s disease have an abnormally large number of neurofibrillary tangles (twisted fragments of protein within neurons that interfere with their functioning) and neuritic plaques (abnormal clusters of dead and dying neurons that surround a core of amyloid protein) in certain areas of the brain.
b. Incorrect Neurofibrillary tangles and neuritic plaques have not been linked to dementia due to Cruetzfeldt-Jakob disease.
c. Incorrect People with this type of dementia have Pick bodies and Pick cells in neurons in certain areas of the brain, especially the frontal and anterior temporal lobes.
d. Incorrect Vascular dementia is due to a cerebrovascular accident (stroke) and is characterized by lesions in both the white and gray matter of the brain.
2.1 Assumption underlying the notion of “groupthink” is that:
A. pressures towards uniformity limit task effectiveness
B. increasing cohesiveness results in more extreme decisions.
C. excessive pressures toward conformity produce reactance.
D. lack of familiarity with task demands leads to maintenance of the status quo.
2.1 Groupthink is characterized by a decrease in willingness to consider divergent points of view, resulting in inappropriate decisions and actions (although not necessarily more extreme ones).
a. CORRECT According to Janis (1972, 1982), groupthink results when groups become excessively cohesive. For information on other conditions that contribute to groupthink, see the Industrial-Organizational chapter of the written study materials.
2.2 If one of the offspring in a family develops Schizophrenia, what is the likelihood that his/her biological sibling will also develop this disorder?
2.2 Although the reported concordance rates for Schizophrenia vary somewhat from study to study, only one of the correlations given in the answers comes close to the rates reported in the literature for biological siblings.
b. CORRECT This is the typical correlation reported in the literature for biological siblings.
2.3 A psychologist is using Linehan’s Dialectical Behavior Therapy to treat a patient with Borderline personality Disorder. The essential components of her intervention will be:
A. individual inpatient therapy and the token economy
B. individual outpatient therapy and group skill training
C. family therapy and psychotropic medication.
D. residential treatment and a self-help group.
2.3 Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT) includes three basic components – group skills training that focuses on the acquisition of social skills; individual outpatient therapy that targets motivational issues and the strengthening of social skills; and telephone consultations that help the client apply new skills to situations outside therapy. Other techniques may also be used, but these three make up the core of DBT.
b. CORRECT The combination of individual outpatient therapy and group skills training is the hallmark of DBT and has been found useful for decreasing premature dropout rates as well as for reducing suicide attempts and hospitalizations.
2.4 Research has shown that membership in a cohesive (versus noncohesive) group is associated with:
A. greater productivity, greater satisfaction, and reduced turnover.
B. greater satisfaction, reduced turnover and, in some situations, greater productivity
C. greater productivity but no significant impact on satisfaction or turnover.
D. in the long run, reduced productivity, lower satisfaction, and increased turnover.
2.4 Group cohesiveness has been linked to a number of benefits and liabilities.
b. CORRECT Group cohesiveness has been consistently linked to reduced absenteeism and turnover and higher levels of satisfaction and commitment by the research, but its association with productivity is moderated by a number of factors (e.g., the group's norms regarding productivity).
2.5 Histrionic Personality Disorder and Dependent Personality Disorder share several characteristics. However, people with Histrionic Personality Disorder are more likely to:
A. exhibit excessive emotionality and active demands for attention
B. exhibit a strong need for reassurance and approval from others.
C. respond to abandonment with feelings of emotional emptiness, anger, and self-injurious behaviors.
D. respond to abandonment with submissiveness and a search for a replacement relationship.
2.5 Being familiar with the core features of Histrionic and Dependent Personality Disorders would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. CORRECT As described in the DSM, a characteristic that distinguishes Histrionic Personality Disorder from Dependent Personality Disorder is that the former is characterized by flamboyance, exaggerated emotionality, and excessive attention-seeking.
b. Incorrect A strong need for reassurance and approval from others is characteristic of both Histrionic Personality Disorder and Dependent Personality Disorder.
c. Incorrect Responding to real or imagined abandonment with feelings of emotional emptiness, anger, and self-injurious behaviors is characteristic of Borderline Personality Disorder.
d. Incorrect Responding to abandonment with submissiveness and a search for a replacement relationship that can provide support is characteristic of Dependent Personality Disorder.
2.6 Tacrine (Cognex), donepezil (Aricept), and galantamine (Reminyl) exert their beneficial effects on memory for patients with Alzheimer’s dementia by:
A. slowing acetylcholine depletion
B. slowing dopamine depletion.
C. increasing the production of serotonin.
D. increasing the production of norepinephrine.
2.6 Memory loss associated with Alzheimer’s dementia has been linked to lower-than-normal levels of acetylcholine (ACh).
a. CORRECT The drugs listed in the question are cholinesterase inhibitors, which means that they inhibit enzymes that break down unused ACh and thereby increase levels of this neurotransmitter in the brain.
2.7 From the perspective of Gestalt therapy, introjection is:
A. the result of an unresolved conflict.
B. an image disturbance
C. a boundary disturbance
D. a defense mechanism.
2.7 Gestaltians use the term introjection to describe an overly permeable boundary between the person and the environment.
c. CORRECT For Gestaltians, neurotic behavior is often the result of a disturbance in the boundary between the person and his/her external environment. Introjection is one type of boundary disturbance and occurs when a person accepts values, beliefs, etc. from the environment without actually understanding or fully assimilating them.
2.8 To encourage college students to participate in her research study, Dr. LaPlace offers students free admittance to a popular four-hour workshop (“Finding a Meaningful Relationship and Keeping It”) that is offered by a colleague of hers. This policy:
A. is unacceptable since it is coercive and, therefore, violates the provisions of the Ethics Code.
B. is unacceptable since it represents a multiple relationship and, therefore, violates the provisions of the Ethics Code.
C. is unacceptable since it represents a "conflict of interest" and, therefore, violates the provisions of the Ethics Code.
D. may be acceptable as long as Dr. LaPlace is careful to clarify any risks, obligations, and so on with the students
2.8 The Ethics Code does not prohibit the use of inducements for encouraging people to participate in a research studybut does place some limitations on their use.
a. Incorrect The situation described in this question cannot really be considered coercive: It would be coercive if the research was being conducted in a prison and prisoners were led to believe that they would receive special privileges if they participate in the research study.
b. Incorrect There may be cases when this would be true, but there isn't any information in the question to assume that a multiple (dual) relationship is relevant to this situation.
c. Incorrect A conflict of interest is not relevant to this situation.
d. CORRECT Standard 8.06(b) of the Code states that in offering professional services as an inducement to potential research participants, "psychologists clarify the nature of the services, as well as the risks, obligations, and limitations.
2.9 Research by Lamb and Catanzaro (1998) on sexual misconduct by psychotherapists found that:
A. therapists who had sex with their clients often had sexual relations in the past with their own therapist, a professor, or supervisor.
B. therapists who had sex with their clients were more likely than those who did to not to have been involved in nonsexual dual relationships with clients
C. therapists who had sex with their clients were, in general, less experienced and younger than those who did not.
D. there were no consistent differences between therapists who did and did not have sex with their clients in terms of other dual relationships or sexual relations with their own therapist, professor, or supervisor.
2.9 The studies have found some differences in the characteristics of therapists who do and do not become sexually involved with clients. The results of this research are summarized in the Ethics and Professional Issues chapter of the written study materials.
b. CORRECT Lamb and Catanzaro (1998) looked specifically at sexual and nonsexual boundary violations of psychotherapists and found that those reporting sexual boundary violations were also more likely to report nonsexual boundary violations and to rate nonsexual boundary violations as less negative or problematic than those who did not report sexual boundary violations.
2.10 It is often difficult to distinguish delirium, dementia, and depression in older adults. However, the presence of which of the following suggests that delirium is the appropriate diagnosis?
A. sudden loss of energy
B. memory impairment
C. deficits in executive cognitive functioning
D. a disturbance in consciousness
2.10 A diagnosis of delirium requires a disturbance in consciousness and a change in cognition or the development of perceptual abnormalities.
a. Incorrect A loss of energy is characteristic of depression and is not a diagnostic criterion for delirium.
b. Incorrect Memory impairment is characteristic of all three disorders.
c. Incorrect Deficits in executive cognitive functioning are characteristic of dementia.
d. CORRECT A disturbance in consciousness is not characteristic of dementia or depression; but, as noted above, is a diagnostic criterion for delirium.
2.11 A screening test for a disorder that has a very low base rate in the population is known to have an overall accuracy rate of 98%. When using this test to identify individuals in the general population who have the disorder, it’s important to keep in mind that the test will produce:
A. very few false positives but very many true positives.
B. very few true negatives but very many false negatives.
C. a larger number of false negatives than false positives.
D. a larger number of false positives than false negatives
2.11 This is a difficult question, but you may have been able to identify the correct answer if you know that a low base rate means that there are very few people in the population who have the disorder, which implies that the most likely predictive error will be to falsely identify those who do not have the disorder as having it.
c. Incorrect To understand why this answer is incorrect (and answer d is correct), assume that the base rate for the disorder is 1% and that you test a random sample of 10,000 people with the screening test. In this situation, 100 people will have the disease, and the test (which has a 98% accuracy rate) will correctly identify 98 of them – i.e., 98 will be true positives and 2 will be false negatives.
d. CORRECT Continuing with the example, when the base rate for the condition is 1%, 9,900 of the 10,000 people tested will not have the disease, and the test (which has a 98% accuracy rate) will correctly identify 9,702 of them – i.e., 9,702 will be true negatives and the remaining 198 will be false positives. In other words, there will be more false positives than false negatives – and this will be true whenever the predictor has a high accuracy rate and the base rate is less than 50%.
2.12 Nonsexist therapy, in comparison to feminist therapy, place greater emphasis on:
A. the impact of sex roles and sexism.
B. modification of personal behavior
C. treating men and women the same.
D. the egalitarian nature of the therapeutic relationship.
2.12 To a large degree, nonsexist therapy and feminist therapy overlap.
a. Incorrect This is characteristic of both forms of therapy.
b. CORRECT Of the answers given, this is the best choice. While feminist therapy produces change in personal behavior, that change is more consistently framed within the sociopolitical arena in which it occurs. In contrast, nonsexist therapy, while recognizing sociopolitical influences, also looks at personal change separately.
c. Incorrect Both types of therapy advocate that men and women be treated as equals but not necessarily the same.
d. Incorrect This is an explicit goal of feminist therapy and, perhaps to a lesser degree, a characteristic of nonsexist therapy.
2.13 When a rater’s ratings on a criterion measure are biased by his or her knowledge of the ratee’s performance on the predictor, this is referred to as:
A. criterion irrelevance.
B. criterion unreliability.
C. criterion contamination
D. criterion deficiency.
2.13 Criterion contamination occurs when a criterion measure is "contaminated" by an extraneous variable.
a. Incorrect Relevance refers to the measure's significance in terms of the ultimate criterion.
b. Incorrect A criterion measure is unreliable when scores are affected to a large degree by measurement error.
c. CORRECT Contamination often occurs when a rater's knowledge of a ratee's predictor performance biases ratings on the criterion measure.
d. Incorrect A criterion is deficient when it does not measure important aspects of the ultimate criterion.
2.14 Open-ended questions, affirmations, reflective listening, and summary statements are considered the principle skills or strategies of:
A. solution-focused therapy.
B. reality therapy.
C. motivational interviewing
D. interpersonal therapy.
2.14 The acronym OARS is used to identify the principle skills of motivational interviewing and stands for open-ended questions, affirmations, reflective listening, and summary statements.
c. CORRECT Although the four strategies identified in this question would probably be useful for most types of therapy, they have been explicitly identified as the principle strategies of motivational interviewing. These techniques are considered useful for increasing a client’s motivation. For example, "What things about your use of alcohol would you like to change?" is an open-ended question that would enhance the client’s motivation by helping him clarify his thoughts and feelings about drinking.
2.15 During his first therapy session, an Asian American client tells his non-Asian therapist that he would prefer to see an Asian psychologist. The therapist’s best course of action would be to:
A. discuss the issue with the client and make a referral, if, after the discussion, the client says he still wants to see an Asian therapist
B. tell the client that she's had experience working with members of minority groups and suggest that they see each other for at least two or three more sessions.
C. realize that the client's preference is a manifestation of resistance and tell him that she thinks it would be best if they saw each other for a few sessions before a referral is made.
D. tell the client that it would be discriminatory, and therefore unethical, for her to make a referral to another therapist on the basis of race alone
2.15 This question is fairly simple: It is never ethical to coerce a client into remaining in therapy.
a. CORRECT This is the best course of action in this type of situation. The client will not benefit from treatment if he is not comfortable with the therapist, and it would be unethical to try to "talk him into" additional sessions.
2.16 When calculating an “effect size,” you would:
A. divide the difference between the means of the experimental and control groups by the "grand mean."
B. divide the mean of the experimental group by its standard deviation and the mean of the control group by its standard deviation and sum the results.
C. add the mean difference between the experimental and control groups for each study and divide the result by the total number of studies.
D. divide the difference between the means of the experimental and control groups by the standard deviation of the control group
2.16 The term "effect size" is associated with meta-analysis, which is addressed in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
d. CORRECT There are several ways to calculate an effect size, but the most commonly used method produces a standard score, which means that it reports the effect of an intervention in terms of standard deviation units. This answer describes the formula that is used to calculate this type of effect size.
2.17 A test developer obtains a kappa coefficient of .91 for a recently developed test. This coefficient indicates that:
A. items have a high degree of internal consistency.
B. test items are difficult.
C. there is a high degree of agreement between raters
D. test scores are stable over time.
2.17 To answer this question, you have to know that the kappa coefficient is a measure of inter-rater reliability.
c. CORRECT The kappa coefficient (or kappa statistic) is used to evaluate inter-rater reliability. A coefficient in the upper .80s or .90s would indicate an adequate degree of consistency in the ratings of different raters.
2.18 Agranulocytosis is a potential side effect of clozapine, carbamazepine, and a number of other psychiatric drugs. Early symptoms of this disorder include:
A. fever, sore throat, mouth ulcers, and lethargy
B. nausea, diarrhea, vomiting, and a metallic taste in the mouth.
C. sweating, palpitations, headache, tremulousness, and cardiac arrhythmia.
D. constricted pupils, decreased visual acuity, sweating, constipation, and nausea.
2.18 Agranulocytosis is caused by a failure of the bone marrow to produce a sufficient number of certain white blood cells, which increases the body’s susceptibility to infection.
a. CORRECT Fever, sore throat, chills, mouth ulcers, lethargy, and weakness are early signs of agranulocytosis.
b. Incorrect These are potential gastrointestinal side effects of lithium.
c. Incorrect These symptoms may occur when a beta-blocker is abruptly discontinued.
d. Incorrect These are signs of narcotic-analgesic use.
2.19 Which of the following would be most useful for establishing comparable worth?
A. job evaluation
B. 80% rule
C. needs assessment
D. person (employee) analysis
2.19 For the exam, you want to be able to distinguish between the procedures listed in the answers to this question, and all four are described in the Industrial-Organizational chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT A job evaluation is conducted in organizations to determine the relative worth of jobs in order to set wages and salaries. Several methods of job evaluation are useful for establishing comparable worth, which refers to the principle that men and women should receive comparable compensation for work that requires similar skills, knowledge, responsibilities, etc.
b. Incorrect The 80% rule is used to determine if a job selection technique is having an adverse impact.
c. Incorrect A needs assessment is conducted to determine training needs.
d. Incorrect A person analysis is part of a needs assessment and involves determining which employees require training and what knowledge, skills, and abilities they need to acquire to perform their jobs effectively.
2.20 As described by Kobasa (1979), the three components of “hardiness” are:
A. attachment, caring, and intimacy.
B. commitment, control, and challenge
C. intellect, emotion, and will.
D. what we do, what we think, and what we feel.
2.20 Hardiness is a psychological style that has been linked to the ability to maintain good physical health under conditions of stress.
b. CORRECT According to S. C. Kobasa, hardy people (1) have a strong sense of commitment to their lives and work, (2) believe they can control or influence the events they encounter, and (3) view change as a positive challenge (Stressful life events, personality, and health: An inquiry into hardiness. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 37, 1-11, 1979).
2.21 When working with an African American client exhibiting “healthy cultural paranoia,” an Anglo therapist would be best advised to:
A. refer the client to an African American therapist.
B. use a culturally sensitive approach that ameliorates the client's paranoia.
C. help the client bring feelings suspiciousness, frustration, and antipathy toward whites into conscious awareness
D. help the client understand that his/her behavior is manifestation of resistance.
2.21 C. R. Ridley presents a "typology of black client self-disclosure," which relates the willingness to self-disclose to four levels of "paranoia": intercultural nonparanoic disclosure; functional paranoiac; healthy cultural paranoiac; and confluent paranoiac (Clinical assessment of the nondisclosure of the black client, American Psychologist, 39(11), 1234-1244, 1984).
a. Incorrect This is probably the best course of action, according to Ridley, for the confluent paranoiac but isn't necessary for the individual experiencing healthy cultural paranoia.
b. Incorrect This isn't the best response since healthy cultural paranoia may not need to be "ameliorated."
c. CORRECT Ridley recommends that therapists confront the meaning of the client's cultural paranoia by bringing his/her feelings into conscious awareness and then help the client clarify when it is appropriate or inappropriate to self-disclose.
d. Incorrect This is not the course of action recommended by Ridley.
2.22 To intervene effectively, a mediator should:
A. encourage direct contact between disputants at the beginning of the mediation process.
B. hold early discussions in an "open site" that is readily observed and influenced by interested parties
C. prioritize relevant issues so they can be settled sequentially in order from the most specific to the more general.
D. introduce new ideas and alternatives for reaching an agreement to the disputants
2.22 A mediator is a neutral third party whose primary task is to help disputants reach an agreement.
a. Incorrect This is a good idea only when the conflict between disputants is mild. With more serious conflicts, the better course of action is to initially meet separately with each disputant to identify and clarify the relevant issues.
b. Incorrect A closed site is preferable during the initial stages of mediation. An open site is best when an agreement between disputants is very close to being reached.
c. Incorrect It is usually more effective to address multiple issues as a package rather than to negotiate issues separately. Also, when there are a large number of issues that must be resolved separately, it is better to progress from the more general to the more specific.
d. CORRECT “Perhaps the most creative thing a mediator can do is to introduce new issues and alternatives, thereby broadening the disputants" horizons and providing them with ideas for achieving integrative agreements” (J. Z. Rubin et al., Social conflict: Escalation, stalemate, and settlement, New York, McGraw-Hill, Inc., 1994, p. 209).
2.23 According to Erikson, the purpose of play is to:
A. release “unemployed energy.”
B. reduce tension by re-enacting prior experiences.
C. socially construct knowledge within the zone of proximal development.
D. master social and emotional experiences
2.23 Knowing that Erikson describes development as involving eight psychosocial stages would have enabled you to identify the correct answer to this question even if you’re unfamiliar with his view of play.
a. Incorrect Play was described as an opportunity to release surplus energy by Spencer, Schiller, and other evolutionary theorists.
b. Incorrect Freud described children’s play as the result of a "repetition compulsion."
c. Incorrect Vygotsky’s sociocultural theory of development describes knowledge as socially constructed and conceptualizes symbolic play as an opportunity to practice behaviors in situations that require less precision and accuracy than would be required in reality.
d. CORRECT Erikson (1977) describes play as a function of the ego that allows children to master and control social and emotional experiences. Through play, children learn about themselves and their social environments.
2.24 Thorndike’s research with cats in puzzle boxes provided information about:
A. trial-and-error learning
B. insight learning
C. generative learning
2.24 Thorndike was interested in the slow, trial-and-error nature of the cats' learning.
a. CORRECT He concluded that learning was not due to mental events but to connections that develop between stimuli and responses as the result of trial-and-error.
2.25 In one series of studies, Pavlov conditioned dogs to salivate in response to a black square but not in response to a light grey square. Subsequently, when the dogs were shown a medium grey square, they exhibited which of the following?
B. spontaneous recovery
C. experimental neurosis
D. learned helplessness
2.25 This question is describing trials that required dogs to make difficult discriminations.
c. CORRECT Pavlov found that difficult discriminations produced experimental neurosis -- i.e., uncharacteristic behaviors that included extreme restlessness, agitation, and unprovoked aggression. Additional information on experimental neurosis is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
2.26 Recent research suggests that, in terms of predicting job performance, “g” (general cognitive ability):
A. is useful only for managerial and other professional jobs.
B. is useful only for predicting performance in traditionally "male" jobs.
C. is not as accurate as specific ability tests for many different types of jobs.
D. is predictive of performance across a wide variety of jobs
2.26 The current thinking about "g" is that it is a good predictor of job performance for a wide range of jobs.
d. CORRECT Meta-analyses of the literature suggest that general cognitive ability is related to job performance across a variety of jobs and that specific ability tests explain little additional variability in performance over that explained by g. See, e.g., P. R. Sackett and S. L. Wilk, Within-group norming and other forms of score adjustment in preemployment testing, American Psychologist, 49(11), 929-954, 1994.
2.27 A white middle-aged man is at highest risk for suicide if he:
A. has been divorced for 10 years, overtly expresses aggression and hostility, and is unwilling to talk about his suicidal feelings.
B. has been divorced for 6 years, exhibits a constriction of affect, and has a peptic ulcer.
C. has been divorced for 3 years, overtly expresses aggression and hostility, and is unwilling to talk about his suicidal feelings.
D. has been divorced for 1 year, exhibits a constriction of affect, and has a peptic ulcer
2.27 Knowing that divorce is related to increased risk for suicide, with the risk being greatest during the first year, would have helped you answer this question correctly.
a. Incorrect Unwillingness to talk about suicidal feelings is more characteristic of elderly adults than middle-aged adults.
d. CORRECT The more recent the divorce, the greater the risk for suicide. A higher risk in adulthood is also associated with constriction of affect (versus overt expression) and the presence of certain illnesses including a peptic ulcer. See, for example, S. J. Blumenthal and D. J. Kupfer, Suicide over the life cycle: Risk factors, assessment, and treatment of suicidal patients, American Psychiatric Press, Washington, DC, 1990.
2.28 According to Janis (1972), groupthink is most likely to occur when:
A. a group is highly cohesive
B. a group has a "laissez-faire" leader.
C. group members have low levels of organizational commitment.
D. group members are overly influenced by outside opinions.
2.28 Groupthink was originally described by Arthur Janis to describe several failed foreign policy decisions including the Kennedy administration's decision to invade Cuba.
a. CORRECT Although Janis did not believe that high cohesiveness alone necessarily leads to groupthink, he considered it to be the primary condition and proposed that cohesiveness is likely to lead to poor decision making when it is combined with certain other conditions including insulation from outside opinions, the presence of external threats, and highly directive leadership.
2.29 Which of the following is most relevant to equity theory?
A. Rosenthal effect
B. social comparison theory
C. drive theory
D. the buffering hypothesis
2.29 Equity theory predicts that motivation is a function of the comparisons workers make between their own input/outcome ratio and those of workers doing similar jobs.
a. Incorrect The Rosenthal effect is another name for the self-fulfilling prophecy effect, which isn't really relevant to equity theory.
b. CORRECT According to equity theory, motivation is a result of our social comparisons. Additional information on equity theory is provided in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
c. Incorrect Drive theory is also a theory of motivation but isn't as relevant to equity theory as social comparison theory.
d. Incorrect The buffering hypothesis predicts that the perception of adequate social support buffers people against the negative effects of stress.
2.30 Hypnagogic hallucinations are:
A. misperceptions of real stimuli.
B. sensations perceived in the wrong sensory modality.
C. false perceptions that occur when falling asleep
D. false perceptions associated with hallucinogenic use.
2.30 Hypnagogic hallucinations are not necessarily indicative of a mental disorder but are associated with Narcolepsy.
a. Incorrect This sounds more like an illusion.
b. Incorrect This is referred to as synesthesia.
c. CORRECT This is the definition of hypnagogic hallucinations.
d. Incorrect These are simply hallucinations.
2.31 Which of the following represents a phoneme?
2.31 A phoneme is the smallest unit of sound in a language.
a. CORRECT English has 26 letters but 44 phonemes since the same letter alone or combined with others can represent more than one sound.
b. Incorrect This is a morpheme (the smallest unit of sound that conveys meaning).
2.32 In most situations, the “holder of the privilege” is the:
C. client and therapist jointly
2.32 Privilege is a legal requirement that prohibits (with some exceptions) confidential client information from being disclosed in legal proceedings.
a. CORRECT In most circumstances, the client is the holder of the privilege, which means that only the client can determine when confidential information may be disclosed in court, a deposition, or other legal proceeding. See the Ethics and Professional Issues chapter in the written study materials for additional information on privilege.
2.33 Use of the Taylor-Russell tables would indicate that the decision-making accuracy of a selection test that has a low to moderate validity coefficient is greatest when:
A. the selection ratio is .90 and the base rate is .20.
B. the selection ratio is .90 and the base rate is .50
C. the selection ratio is .10 and the base rate is .20.
D. the selection ratio is .10 and the base rate is .50
2.33 For the exam, you want to know what the base rate and selection ratio are as well as know how these factors contribute to a test's ability to improve decision-making accuracy. This information is presented in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
d. CORRECT The Taylor-Russell Tables provide information on a test’s decision-making accuracy for various combinations of base rates, selection ratios, and validity coefficients. The tables indicate that a test with a low or moderate validity coefficient can improve decision-making accuracy when the selection ratio is low (e.g., .10) and the base rate is moderate (near .50).
2.34 Lee L., age 33, is brought to therapy by his sister. She reports that, following the loss of his home in a fire two weeks ago, Lee has experienced hallucinations, is incoherent, and is uncharacteristically aggressive and sloppy in appearance. In this situation, before assigning a diagnosis of Brief Psychotic Disorder, you would want to rule out alternative explanations for Lee’s symptoms. Therefore, you would want to determine if Lee:
A. has been using alcohol or drugs
B. has impaired memory for recent events.
C. is experiencing delusions.
D. is experiencing rapid shifts in mood.
2.34 Although Lee’s history and symptoms are suggestive of Brief Psychotic Disorder, you would want to rule out other explanations, especially a Psychotic Disorder due to a General Medical Condition or a Substance-Induced Psychotic Disorder. Note that this question is asking you to identify the information that would rule out (not confirm) a diagnosis of Brief Psychotic Disorder.
a. CORRECT Psychotic symptoms can be produced by a number of factors including alcohol or drugs. Therefore, you would want to consider the possibility of an alcohol- or drug-induced psychotic disorder before assigning a diagnosis of Brief Psychotic Disorder.
b. Incorrect This is a characteristic symptom of Brief Psychotic Disorder and would help confirm the diagnosis rather than rule it out.
c. Incorrect Delusions are characteristic of Brief Psychotic Disorder.
d. Incorrect Rapid shifts in mood are also characteristic of Brief Psychotic Disorder.
2.35 During an interview, a job applicant exhibits one or two very positive characteristics. These characteristics then influence how the interviewer evaluates the applicant on other unrelated characteristics so that her overall impression is very favorable. This is an example of which of the following:
A. halo error
B. contrast error
C. leniency bias
D. fundamental attribution bias
2.35 In this situation, the interviewer's overall evaluation of the applicant has been influenced by one or two very positive characteristics.
a. CORRECT This is best described as a positive halo error.
b. Incorrect A contrast effect occurs when the evaluation of an applicant is affected by a previous applicant; e.g., if the previous applicant was very poor, a mediocre applicant is likely to be evaluated more favorably than he/she would if the previous applicant had excellent qualifications.
c. Incorrect A leniency bias is occurring when a rater tends to rate everyone highly.
d. Incorrect The fundamental attribution bias refers to the tendency to attribute the behavior of others to dispositional (versus situational) factors.
2.36 Which of the following is a therapeutic approach that explicitly addresses an individual’s commitment and readiness to change?
A. solution-oriented therapy
B. motivational interviewing
C. reality therapy
D. self-control training
2.36 This is a difficult question since it provides very little information about the intervention it is asking about. You may have been able to identify the correct response, however, through the process of elimination.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Motivational interviewing has been defined by W. R. Miller and S. Rollinick as an approach designed to help clients build commitment and readiness to change (Motivational Interviewing, New York: Guilford, 1991). It is based on the assumption that interventions are most effective when they are matched to the individual's level of readiness.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect Self-control techniques incorporate self-monitoring and self-reinforcement and are used for a variety of disorders. They do not explicitly address a client's readiness to change.
2.37 The best conclusion about the etiology of Major Depressive Disorder is that:
A. genetic factors play a more substantial role than environmental factors, with a dominant gene being the most likely causal agent.
B. genetic factors play a more substantial role than environmental factors, with a recessive gene being the most likely causal agent.
C. genetic factors play a substantial role in only a small number of cases of this disorder.
D. genetic and environmental factors both play a substantial role in the development of this disorder
2.37 Family, twin, and adoption studies have confirmed a genetic contribution to Major Depressive Disorder. However, these studies have shown that the heritability of this disorder is in the 31 to 42% range, which indicates that environmental factors also play an important role. See, e.g., P. F. Sullivan, M. C. Neale, and K. S. Kendler, Genetic epidemiology of major depression: Review and meta-analysis, American Journal of Psychiatry, 157, 1552-1562, 2000.
d. CORRECT Based on their review of the research, Sullivan et al. conclude that Major Depressive Disorder is a complex and heterogeneous condition that results from a combination of genetic and environmental factors. They suggest that a genetic vulnerability to this disorder might be expressed only when the individual is also exposed to certain environmental events.
2.38 A 71-year-old man has a stroke involving the middle cerebral artery and the dominant hemisphere. His symptoms will most likely include:
A. memory impairment and cortical blindness with denial of the disability
B. contralateral weakness and sensory loss in the leg, amnesia, and depression.
C. contralateral weakness and sensory loss in the arm and face, and aphasia
D. visual agnosia and alexia without aphasia.
2.38 Strokes cause focal brain damage that reflects the arterial territory (or territories) involved. Most strokes occur in the region of the middle cerebral artery, which supplies blood to a number of areas of the brain including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes.
a. Incorrect These are symptoms of posterior cerebral artery infarct.
b. Incorrect These symptoms are associated with anterior cerebral artery infarct.
c. CORRECT A stroke occurring in the middle cerebral artery is associated with these symptoms. Aphasia results when the dominant (left) hemisphere is involved; when the nondominant (right) hemisphere is affected, denial of defects and left-sided neglect are common.
d. Incorrect These symptoms are not characteristic of a stroke involving the middle cerebral artery.
2.39 For most patients with Parkinson’s Disease, depression:
A. is only slightly more common than it is in the general population and seems to be a reaction to the diagnosis.
B. appears to be a reaction to the diagnosis and usually first appears when motor symptoms begin to interfere with daily functioning.
C. appears to be endogenous to the disorder and may precede motor symptoms, especially in younger patients
D. appears to be endogenous to the disorder and first appears in the later stages as cognitive impairments increase
2.39 The debate over the relationship between Parkinson's Disease and depression has not been entirely resolved. However, there seems to be more evidence that it is endogenous to the disorder rather than simply a reaction to it.
a. Incorrect Depression is more common in those with Parkinson's Disease than in the general population and, as noted above, it is currently believed to be endogenous to the disorder.
b. Incorrect As noted, depression is probably not just a reaction to the disorder.
c. CORRECT One source of evidence for the endogenous nature of depression in Parkinson's Disease is the occurrence of a prodromal "parkinsonian personality," which is characterized by melancholia, introversion, and pessimism. The early appearance of depressive symptoms is most common in younger patients and those with a family history of the disorder.
d. Incorrect As noted above, depression is an early appearing symptom in some patients.
2.40 According to Super’s career development theory, job satisfaction is directly related to:
A. the degree of similarity between the individual’s ego identity and career identity.
B. the degree of satisfaction that the person has with his/her life in general.
C. the degree to which the person is able to implement his/her self-concept at work
D. the degree to which the job fulfills the person's most prepotent needs.
2.40 Knowing that the "self-concept" is a key concept in Super’s theory would have enabled you to identify the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect Ego identity is a focus of Tiedeman and O’Hara’s theory of career development.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT According to Super, the self-concept consists of the values, abilities, personality traits, needs, and interests that we believe we possess. Self-concept influences career choice, and the degree of match between the self-concept and the job affects the individual’s job satisfaction, stability, and success.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
2.41 From the perspective of Freudian psychoanalysis, anxiety is due to:
A. the inability to "construe" an event.
B. a threat to one's unified self-concept.
C. a feeling of being isolated and helpless in a hostile world.
D. the inability to deal with an internal or external threat
2.41 Freud's personality theory emphasizes conflicts between the internal instincts and the demands of reality.
a. Incorrect This best describes Kelly's definition of anxiety.
b. Incorrect This is Roger's view of anxiety.
c. Incorrect Horney referred to this as "basic anxiety."
d. CORRECT Of the answers given, this is the only one that addresses internal and external threats and, therefore, is the best description of Freud’s conceptualization of anxiety.
2.42 Escape conditioning becomes avoidance conditioning when:
A. a signal is provided that indicates that positive reinforcement will be withheld.
B. a signal is provided that indicates that an aversive stimulus is about to be delivered
C. the target behavior is positively reinforced.
D. the discriminative stimulus is removed.
2.42 Escape and avoidance conditioning are both applications of negative reinforcement. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the difference between them.
b. CORRECT Avoidance conditioning is more complex than escape conditioning and involves presenting a cue immediately before the aversive stimulus is applied so that the individual can avoid the aversive stimulus by engaging in the target behavior as soon as the cue is presented. Additional information about escape and avoidance conditioning is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
2.43 A psychologist in private practice who has been sued once in the past by a client for malpractice and who fears being sued again decides to limit his practice to clients whose problems are not highly associated with higher rates of malpractice claims. This is:
A. unethical if he is competent to treat these clients.
B. ethical only if he is willing to see these clients in emergencies and other unusual circumstances.
C. ethical as long as he makes appropriate referrals
D. ethical as long as he makes his policy clear at the outset of treatment.
2.43 Although you may feel the therapist's decision is "not quite right," therapists are not required to see patients they do not want to see.
c. CORRECT This issue is addressed by R. I. Simon in Clinical psychiatry and the law (American Psychiatric Press, Washington, DC, 1992). Although Simon is discussing the obligations of psychiatrists, the same principles apply to psychologists: Self-employed mental health professionals do not have a legal or ethical duty to enter into professional relationships. While the psychologist's decision may seem unfair, he is free to serve the clients he chooses. He should, however, make appropriate referrals. (Note that the Ethics Code does require psychologists not to discriminate on the basis of race, gender, or any other basis proscribed by law. Litigious clients do not fall into this category, however.)
2.44 Individuals with which of the following disorders cross-dress specifically for the purpose of sexual arousal?
B. Transvestic Fetishism
2.44 Of the disorders listed in the answers, only Transvestic Fetishism is characterized by cross-dressing for the purpose of sexual arousal.
a. Incorrect Transsexualism refers to persistent cross-gender identification and is categorized in the DSM-IV-TR as Gender Identity Disorder.
b. CORRECT Transvestic Fetishism is characterized by "recurrent, intense, sexual urges and sexually arousing fantasies, of at least six months duration, involving cross-dressing." It is distinguished from "cross-dressing for the relief of tension or gender discomfort," which does not directly cause sexual excitement.
c. Incorrect Frotteurism involves intense sexually arousing fantasies, sexual urges, or behaviors that involve touching or rubbing against a nonconsenting person.
d. Incorrect As its name implies, Exhibitionism involves exposing one's genitals to strangers.
2.45 When considering concurrent individual and group therapy for a client it is important to keep in mind that:
A. combined treatments are contraindicated for narcissistic and borderline clients who benefit more from individual therapy alone.
B. individual therapy may decrease participation and involvement in group therapy
C. participation in group therapy may increase resistance in individual therapy.
D. combined treatments are usually beneficial only when they are provided by different therapists.
2.45 For many therapists, it is common practice to combine individual and group therapy. However, there are some drawbacks to this approach.
a. Incorrect In fact, several authors suggest that concurrent individual and group therapy is the best approach for these clients (see, e.g., The psychiatric therapies, American Psychiatric Association, 1984).
b. CORRECT Yalom (1975) and others caution that individual therapy can "drain off" clinical material from group therapy and thereby decrease involvement and participation in group therapy.
c. Incorrect At least one authority (Anthony, et al., 1971) suggests that the opposite is true: Group therapy can actually reduce resistance in individual therapy.
d. Incorrect It is not true that concurrent group and individual therapies are beneficial only when they are provided by different therapists.
2.46 From the perspective of Freudian psychoanalytic theory, the defense mechanism of _______ is viewed as underlying all other defense mechanisms.
2.46 The goal of all of the defense mechanisms can be said to be keeping unwanted thoughts and impulses out of consciousness.
a. Incorrect Regression occurs when an individual reverts to behaviors characteristic of an earlier stage in life in order to avoid anxiety-producing impulses.
b. CORRECT Repression involves pushing unacceptable id impulses into the unconscious. Repression can be viewed as the most "basic" of the defense mechanisms since the goal of all defense mechanisms is to make unwanted impulses unconscious.
c. Incorrect Sublimation involves channeling unwanted impulses into socially-acceptable endeavors. It is considered the most "advanced" of the defense mechanisms.
d. Incorrect Projection occurs when an individual attributes his/her unwanted impulses to other people.
2.47 “Sampling error” is due to:
A. the unreliability of the test.
B. the invalidity of the test.
C. random factors that produce a nonrepresentative sample
D. non-random factors that produce a nonrepresentative sample.
2.47 Whenever a sample is drawn from a population, there is a good chance that the sample will not be entirely representative of that population.
c. CORRECT As the result of random (chance) factors, the sample may not "mirror" the population in terms of important characteristics. This is referred to as sampling error.
2.48 A researcher would use logistic regression when he/she is using several predictors to predict or estimate status on:
A. a single dichotomous outcome variable
B. a single continuous outcome variable.
C. two or more dichotomous variables.
D. two or more continuous variables.
2.48 Logistic regression is one of several multivariate techniques that you want to be familiar with for the exam. Information about these techniques is provided in the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT Logistic regression is used when the goal is to predict status on a single dichotomous variable (a categorical variable with two levels). Note that an extended version of logistic regression is used when a single outcome variable has more than two categories and is referred to as multinomial or polytomous logistic regression.
2.49 A middle-aged man with brain damage cannot pantomime motor movements when requested to do so (e.g., cannot pretend to open a door with a key) but usually has less trouble performing the same movements when using actual objects. The damage causing this impairment is most likely located in the man’s:
A. left parietal lobe
B. right parietal lobe.
C. left temporal lobe.
D. right temporal lobe.
2.49 The man's symptoms are characteristic of apraxia.
a. CORRECT The condition described in this question is a type of ideomotor apraxia. It is caused by damage to the left posterior parietal lobe and, consequently, is also known as left parietal apraxia. Additional information about apraxia is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
2.50 A personnel director conducts a study to evaluate the criterion-related validity of a new selection test. She finds that the slope of the regression line differs for males and females. This suggests that the test may:
A. be "unfair."
B. have differential validity
C. be lacking in incremental validity.
D. have inadequate convergent validity.
2.50 The slope of a regression line in a criterion-related validity study indicates the degree of correlation between the predictor and the criterion.
a. Incorrect It is the predictor cutoff scores of the two groups that help determine whether there is unfairness, not the slope of the regression line.
b. CORRECT If the slope of the regression line for two different groups differs, this suggests that there may be differential validity (different validity coefficients for different groups). Additional information on unfairness and differential validity is provided in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
c. Incorrect Incremental validity refers to decision-making accuracy and, although it is affected by a predictor's validity, its magnitude is not determined by comparing the slopes of two different groups.
d. Incorrect Convergent validity refers to the degree of correlation between two measures that assess the same trait using different techniques.
2.51 In the context of cognitive-behavioral family therapy (Schwebel and Fine, 1994), “family ______” refers to a set of cognitions that family members possess and that shape how they understand and approach family life.
2.51 Even if you are unfamiliar with cognitive-behavioral family therapy, familiarity with cognitive-behavioral therapy in general should have helped you select the correct answer to this question
d. CORRECT Schemas are a key concept in cognitive-behavioral therapy and in cognitive-behavioral family therapy. However, in the latter, they are conceptualized more narrowly as the cognitive frameworks that family members have about family functioning. See A. Schwebel and M. Fine, Understanding and helping the family: A cognitive-behavioral model, Hillsdale, NJ, Erlbaum, 1994.
2.52 Research on the serial position effect suggests, that when “cramming” for a test, it is important to:
A. get a good night's sleep before taking the test.
B. engage in a distracting activity after studying and prior to taking the test.
C. give extra attention to material studied during the middle of the study session
D. give extra attention to material studied at the beginning of the study session.
2.52 To answer this, you have to know that the serial position effect refers to the tendency to forget items in the middle of a list (versus the beginning and end of the list).
c. CORRECT Studies on memory and forgetting have shown that people tend to remember information presented in the beginning and, in some cases, end of a list better than that presented in the middle. If this finding is extended to a study session, it predicts that a student should pay most attention to the information reviewed in the middle of the study session since that is the information that is most likely to be forgotten.
2.53 In a research study, participants are divided into two groups. Members of the first group are first given a list of three-letter nonsense syllables to remember, are then given a new list of three-letter nonsense syllables to remember, and are subsequently asked to recall the first list. Members of the second group are given the same initial list of syllables but, instead of being given the second list, are asked to count backwards by threes (377, 374, 371, etc.) before being asked to recall the list of words. Apparently, the purpose of this study is to investigate the effects of:
A. retroactive interference
B. proactive interference
D. cue-dependent forgetting
2.53 For the exam, you want to be able to distinguish retroactive and proactive interference. These are described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT Comparing the performance of the participants in the two groups will provide information on retroactive interference, which occurs when recently learned information interferes with the ability to recall previously learned information. (Subjects in the second group are asked to count backwards in order to keep them from rehearsing the list.)
b. Incorrect Proactive interference occurs when prior learning interferes with the learning or recall of subsequent (new) learning.
c. Incorrect Overlearning refers to practicing information past the point of mastery.
d. Incorrect Cue-dependent forgetting occurs when cues needed to recall information are inadequate.
2.54 Studies on the “serial position effect” have provided information on:
A. primacy and recency effects
B. retrograde and anterograde amnesia.
C. echoic and iconic memory
D. proactive and retroactive interference
2.54 The serial position effect is the tendency to recall items at the beginning and end of a list better than items in the middle of the list.
a. CORRECT Enhanced recall of items at the beginning of a list is referred to as the primacy effect, while enhanced recall of items at the end of a list is called the recency effect.
2.55 Dr. Marla Martin is asked to provide crisis intervention services to community members who were recently affected by a tornado that destroyed their homes. Dr. Martin does not have experience providing assistance to people who have been traumatized by a natural disaster, but there is no one else in the area who has experience and is available to see these individuals. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Martin should:
A. provide services only if she is supervised by another professional who has experience with victims of a natural disaster
B. provide services to these individuals but use only interventions that she has experience using.
C. provide services to these individuals but stop when the crisis has ended or other services become available
D. refuse to provide the services.
2.55 This issue is addressed in Standard 2.02 of the Ethics Code.
c. CORRECT Standard 2.02 states: "In emergencies, when psychologists provide services to individuals for whom other mental health services are not available and for which psychologists have not obtained the necessary training, psychologists may provide such services in order to ensure the services are not denied. The services are discontinued as soon as the emergency has ended or appropriate services are available."
2.56 One criticism of anger management training for children is that its positive effects are limited because:
A. children are unable to develop control over angry feelings and behaviors.
B. children tend to blame others for their anger.
C. it places too much emphasis on behavior (versus cognition).
D. it places too much emphasis on the individual (versus social) factors
2.56 Although there are many approaches to anger management training, most programs are based on a cognitive-behavioral approach that emphasizes the individual’s perceptions, feelings, and behaviors.
d. CORRECT One problem with most anger management training programs is that they focus on the individual and ignore the role of interpersonal or systemic factors. The importance of broadening the focus is supported by research showing that targeting individual, family, peer, and community relationships increases the effectiveness of anger management programs (e.g., E. Morley and S. B. Rossman, Helping at-risk youth: Lessons from community-based initiatives, Washington, D.C., The Urban Institute, 1997).
2.57 Vygotsky viewed the “self-talk” of young children as:
A. a manifestation of egocentrisim.
B. a means of self-guidance and self-instruction
C. “rehearsal” for interpersonal communication.
D. prelinguistic speech.
2.57 Self-talk (talking aloud to oneself) is also referred to as private speech and is exhibited by children ages 4 through 9. Vygotsky considered children’s self-talk to be an essential contributor to cognitive development.
a. Incorrect Piaget viewed self-talk as nonsocial and as a manifestation of egocentrism. Vygotsky disagreed with Piaget’s view.
b. CORRECT Vygotsky believed that the self-talk of young children helps them integrate language with thought and thought with action. According to Vygotsky, children use self-talk to guide their actions, especially when working on difficult or confusing tasks.
c. Incorrect Vygotsky viewed self-talk as communication with oneself, not as rehearsal for communication with others.
d. Incorrect Prelinguistic speech refers to crying, cooing, babbling, and imitation of the speech of others.
2.58 Work by Perry and colleagues (1986) suggests that highly aggressive children:
A. were exposed prenatally to high levels of androgens.
B. are less sensitive to physical discomfort than less aggressive children.
C. exhibited a disoriented/disengaged attachment pattern as young children
D. show little remorse after hurting another child
2.58 Perry and colleagues recognize the role of parenting practices in the development of aggression in children. However, much of their research has looked at the cognitive characteristics of aggressive children.
d. CORRECT Research by Perry et al. found that highly aggressive children tend to show little regret or remorse following their aggressive acts.
2.59 Which of the following brain structures is responsible for interhemispheric communication?
A. precentral gyrus
B. arcuate fasciculus
C. cingulate gyrus
D. corpus callosum
2.59 Interhemispheric communication refers to communication between the right and left hemispheres of the brain.
a. Incorrect The precentral gyrus is located in the frontal lobe and contains the motor cortex.
b. Incorrect The arcuate fasciculus connects Wernicke’s area to Broca’s area.
c. Incorrect The cingulate gyrus is part of the limbic system and is involved in the processing and formation of emotions.
d. CORRECT The corpus callosum is the primary bundle of nerve fibers connecting the left and right hemispheres. Its role in transferring information between the hemispheres was identified in the 1950s by Myers and Sperry.
2.60 Research by Broverman et al. (1970) on sex-role stereotyping found that:
A. male and female mental health professionals rate males and females in a nonstereotypic way.
B. male mental health professionals rate males more favorably while female mental health professionals rate females more favorably.
C. male mental health professionals rate females more favorably while female mental health professionals rate males more favorably.
D. male and female mental health professionals rate males more favorably
2.60 Studies have generally found that both sexes use different adjectives to describe men and women, and they tend to describe men in more favorable terms than women.
d. CORRECT I. K. Broverman, et al. found that male and female mental health professionals tend to attach more favorable characteristics to "healthy males" than to "healthy females." For instance, they found that healthy females were described by mental health professionals of both sexes as submissive, dependent, and passive, while healthy adults and healthy males were described as independent, active, and competitive (Sex-role stereotypes and clinical judgments of mental health, Journal of Consulting and Clinical Psychology, 34,, 1-7, 1970).
2.61 During the first session with a Japanese client, you decide that your primary goals are to normalize the client’s problems and instill a sense of hope. According to Sue and Zane (1987), these goals are:
A. examples of giving
B. ways of establishing ascribed credibility.
C. ways of fostering "amae."
D. manifestations of "cultural expressiveness."
2.61 Sue and Zane argue that therapy outcome for members of minority groups is enhanced by two factors -- credibility and giving [S. Sue and N. Zane, The role of culture and cultural techniques in psychotherapy: A critique and reformulation, American Psychologist, 42(1), 37-45, 1987].
a. CORRECT Gift giving is an important ritual in interpersonal relations in Asian cultures, but Sue and Zane feel that, in therapy, it is useful for other minority clients as well, especially for reducing premature termination from treatment. In therapy, giving can take several forms including normalization of the client's problems and instillation of hope.
2.62 According to Piaget, centration, or the tendency to focus on only one aspect of a situation or object while ignoring all others, is characteristic of the _______ stage.
D. concrete operational
2.62 For the exam, you want to be familiar with the characteristics of Piaget's four stages of cognitive development. This information is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
c. CORRECT Piaget described centration as characteristic of the preoperational stage and as one of the reasons why young children cannot conserve.
2.63 Which of the following best characterizes the nature of the criticism that boys and girls tend to receive from their teachers in elementary school?
A. Girls receive criticism directed at their behavior, whereas boys receive criticism directed at their ability.
B. Boys receive criticism directed at their behavior, whereas girls receive criticism directed at their ability
C. Girls receive more criticism than boys in all respects.
D. There is no difference in the nature of the criticism that boys and girls receive.
2.63 Research has shown that boys receive more criticism, whereas girls receive more praise during their elementary school years.
b. CORRECT Furthermore, the nature of the criticism varies: boys are more often criticized for incorrect behavior and girls are more often criticized for a lack of ability.
2.64 When a test developer wants to maximize the size of a test’s reliability coefficient, she would want the average item difficulty level for the test’s items to be closest to:
2.64 For the exam, you want to know that the item difficulty index (p) indicates the number of examinees who answered the item correctly and ranges from 0 to 1.0, with 0 indicating that none of the examinees answered the item correctly and 1.0 indicating that all of the examinees answered the item correctly.
c. CORRECT For many tests, items with a moderate difficulty level (close to .50) are preferred for several reasons – i.e., a moderate difficulty level increases score variability, helps ensure that scores will be normally distributed, and helps maximize the test’s reliability.
2.65 A common migraine:
A. begins with an aura and is usually accompanied by nausea.
B. is constant and non-throbbing and may be exacerbated by bright lights
C. does not begin with an aura and may be exacerbated by bending over or lifting
D. is sharp and unilateral and is usually accompanied by autonomic symptoms.
2.65 Migraine headaches are classified as common or classic.
a. Incorrect Classic migraines begin with an aura.
b. Incorrect Migraines involve throbbing pain.
c. CORRECT A number of things can exacerbate the pain of a migraine including lifting or bending over. In contrast to classic migraines, common migraines do not begin with an aura.
d. Incorrect This sounds more like a cluster headache than a migraine headache.
2.66 Alderfer’s (1972) ERG theory is best viewed as a modification of and alternative to:
A. Maslow’s need hierarchy
B. Herzberg’s two-factor theory.
C. Vroom’s expectancy theory.
D. Bandura’s social cognitive theory.
2.66 ERG theory proposes that we have three basic needs: existence, relatedness, and growth.
a. CORRECT Alderfer modified Maslow’s need hierarchy theory so that it better corresponds to research showing that humans have three (rather than five) distinct needs and that more than one need can act as a motivator at any point in time.
2.67 When determining which diagnosis to assign a client, determining whether the primary goal of his manipulative behaviors is to gain nurturance or gain material gratification would be most useful for distinguishing between which of the following disorders?
A. Histrionic Personality Disorder and Antisocial Personality Disorder
B. Histrionic Personality Disorder and Borderline Personality Disorder
C. Schizoid Personality Disorder and Antisocial Personality Disorder
D. Borderline Personality Disorder and Narcissistic Personality Disorder
2.67 Being familiar with the major characteristics of each of the personality disorders listed in the answers to this question would have helped you identify the correct response.
a. CORRECT As noted in the DSM-IV-TR, Histrionic and Antisocial Personality Disorders share several features – i.e., impulsivity, superficiality, recklessness, and manipulativeness. However, with regard to the latter, people with Histrionic Personality Disorder engage in manipulative behaviors to gain nurturance, while those with Antisocial Personality Disorder do so to gain power or material gratification.
b. Incorrect Individuals with Borderline Personality Disorder engage in manipulative behaviors and, like those with Histrionic Personality Disorder, do so to gain nurturance.
2.68 In a study of group conflict among boys at a boy’s camp, researchers attempted to identify effective methods for reducing conflicts between groups. Results of the study demonstrated that conflict between groups is best alleviated by which of the following techniques:
A. having group members work toward a common goal
B. creating competition between groups.
C. increasing contact between members of competing groups under pleasant circumstances.
D. introducing a "common enemy."
2.68 In a study similar to the one described in this question (the "Robber's Cave" study), Sherif and his colleagues (1961) first established intergroup conflict by putting two groups of campers in competition for rewards that only one group could obtain. They then tried various methods for reducing the conflict they had created.
a. CORRECT Sherif, et al. found that conflict between groups was best resolved when groups were united in the pursuit of a "superordinate" goal that could be achieved only through cooperation.
b. Incorrect This is the method Sherif, et al. used to create conflict between groups.
c. Incorrect Increasing interpersonal contact under positive conditions only provided members of the groups with more opportunities to express hostility toward one another.
d. Incorrect Introducing a third group as a common enemy simply widened the scope of hostility.
2.69 The basic premise underlying goal-setting theory is that:
A. participation in goals is necessary to ensure commitment to them.
B. a person’s conscious goals and intentions regulate his or her actual behavior
C. a person will work to achieve organizational goals only when they are consistent with his or her self-concept.
D. the willingness to work toward achieving organizational goals is a function of a person's self-efficacy beliefs.
2.69 An important thing to remember about goal-setting theory is that it predicts that acceptance of goals is considered to be of paramount importance.
a. Incorrect Although participation in goals can increase one's acceptance (and intentions), it is not considered necessary.
b. CORRECT Acceptance is the critical factor: A person must consciously accept the goals and intend to achieve them.
c. Incorrect This is not a prediction made by goal-setting theory (although it would contribute to a person's acceptance of goals).
d. Incorrect This is also not a prediction of goal-setting theory.
2.70 A regression equation is used to:
A. predict the likely score on a dependent variable on the basis of an obtained score on an independent variable
B. determine the true score on a dependent variable on the basis of an obtained score on an independent variable.
C. estimate the true score of a variable on the basis of an obtained score on that variable.
D. estimate the likely scores on two or more dependent variables on the basis of obtained scores on two or more independent variables.
2.70 If you can get past the somewhat awkward language used in the responses to this question, the question is not all that difficult as long as you know that a regression equation is used to predict a single Y score from a single obtained (known) X score.
a. CORRECT The regression line is essentially a "running mean" and predicts the mean Y (dependent variable) score obtained by individuals in the validation or tryout sample for each value of X (independent variable). Consequently, for an individual examinee, the equation for the regression line predicts the most likely Y score based on that examinee's obtained score on X.
2.71 If a psychology licensure candidate is believed to have cheated on the psychology licensing exam, he/she will:
A. be allowed to re-take the exam but will be monitored during the process.
B. be barred from re-taking the exam for a period of no less than three years.
C. be given an opportunity to provide evidence to the licensing board why his/her test should not be cancelled
D. be required by the Ethics Committee to appear at a formal hearing on the matter within six months
2.71 This situation is addressed in the Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing(AERA, APA, & NCME, 1999).
c. CORRECT Standard 8.11 of the Standards states that, in cases of misconduct by a test taker (e.g., suspected cheating), the test taker should be notified and "given a timely opportunity to provide evidence that the score should not be cancelled or withheld." In addition, Standard 8.13 states that, in this situation, the test taker is entitled to "some form of procedural due process protection." In other words, the test taker must be given an opportunity to respond to the charge and be provided with information about the procedures that will be followed before any action against him/her is taken.
2.72 Elsie E. has just been promoted to a managerial position and is terrified because her new job will require her to occasionally speak to groups of employees. Elsie is concerned that, when she gets up in front of the employees, she will experience a panic attack and “make a fool of herself.” The most likely diagnosis for Elsie is?
A. Specific Phobia
B. Social Phobia
C. Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia.
D. Panic Disorder without Agoraphobia.
2.72 For the exam, you'll want to be famiiar with the similar and distinguishing features of the disorders listed in the answers to this question, and this information is provided in the Abnormal Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect Specific Phobia is characterized by a fear of a circumscribed object or situation that is not indicative of a diagnosis of Agoraphobia or Social Phobia.
b. CORRECT As its name implies, Social Phobia involves a persistent fear of one or more situations involving scrutiny by others or in which the presence of others will result in humiliation or embarrassment. This is consistent with the information given about Elsie -- i.e., her primary symptom is a fear of speaking in front of people.
c. Incorrect Elsie's symptoms are not suggestive of Panic Disorder, which requires two or more unexpected panic attacks with at least one attack being followed by one month of persistent concern about having another attack, worry about the implications of the attack, or a significant change in behavior related to the attack. (A person with a Social Phobia can, however, experience panic attacks.)
d. Incorrect Elsie's symptoms are not suggestive of Panic Disorder.
2.73 Which of the following would be most effective for reducing a rater’s leniency bias?
B. peer ratings
C. forced-choice technique
2.73 A leniency bias occurs when a rater rates all ratees very positively regardless of their actual level of performance. Likert-type scales are most susceptible to leniency and other rater biases.
a. Incorrect BARS is a type of rating scale. Although it was developed to help increase rater accuracy, the research has not been particularly favorable.
b. Incorrect Peer ratings would not overcome the problem of leniency.
c. CORRECT A forced choice scale presents items that have been identified as being of equal social desirability in dyads or triads and requires the rater to pick the item that best describes the ratee. Because of its format, it eliminates the leniency bias.
d. Incorrect A BIB – biographical information blank – is not a rating scale.
2.74 Behavioral assessment is distinguished from traditional assessment in several ways. Which of the following does NOT accurately describe a characteristic associated with behavioral assessment?
A. It focuses on directly observable behaviors and environmental factors.
B. It views outward behaviors as signs of an individual’s underlying needs, conflicts, and other characteristics
C. It involves assessing behaviors repeatedly throughout the course of an intervention.
D. It involves assessing specific (rather than global) aspects of the individual's behaviors.
2.74 Behavioral assessment is used as both a diagnostic and evaluative tool to guide decisions related to interventions and to assess their effectiveness.
a. Incorrect This is characteristic of behavioral assessment.
b. CORRECT Behavioral assessments focus on samples of overt behaviors and do not view or interpret them as signs of underlying phenomena.
c. Incorrect This is characteristic of behavioral assessment.
d. Incorrect This is characteristic of behavioral assessment.
2.75 A DSM-IV-TR diagnosis of Adjustment Disorder requires the development of symptoms within ___ month(s) of the onset of the stressor.
2.75 As defined in the DSM-IV-TR, Adjustment Disorder is "a psychological response to an identifiable stressor or stressors that results in the development of clinically significant emotional or behavioral symptoms" (p. 679).
b. CORRECT The DSM requires that symptoms develop within three months of the onset of the stressor and that symptoms do not persist for more than six months after the stressor or its consequences have ended.
2.76 Which of the following would be LEAST useful for eliminating the halo effect, the central tendency bias, and other rater biases from performance ratings?
A. paired comparison
B. Likert scale
C. forced distribution
2.76 A major problem with subjective rating scales is that they are susceptible to rater biases and thus may not provide accurate information about an employee's job performance. However, biases can be controlled by using certain types of subjective rating scales.
a. Incorrect The paired comparison method requires the rater to compare each employee with each other employee and, therefore, does eliminate response biases.
b. CORRECT Likert-type scales and other graphic rating scales are very susceptible to rater biases, especially when the dimensions of job behavior being rated are very global.
c. Incorrect The forced distribution is a method of controlling rater biases.
d. Incorrect Like the paired comparison and forced distribution methods, ranking is a relative technique and helps reduce rating biases.
2.77 For the treatment of hypertension, biofeedback:
A. is generally ineffective.
B. is effective only when combined with medication
C. is about equally as effective as relaxation training or self-monitoring of blood pressure
D. is more effective than relaxation training or self-monitoring of blood pressure.
2.77 The research on biofeedback is far from consistent, but biofeedback does appear to have positive effects for several problems including hypertension.
c. CORRECT The research has shown that, for most disorders that it has been applied to, biofeedback has beneficial effects, but these effects do not exceed those associated with other treatments. For hypertension, biofeedback seems to be about as effective as relaxation training and self-monitoring.
2.78 On the MMPI-2, a T-score of 70 means that an examinee’s score is at the:
A. 68th percentile
B. 70th percentile
C. 84th percentile
D. 97th percentile
2.78 The T-distribution has a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 10, which means that a T-score of 70 is two standard deviations above the mean.
d. CORRECT In a normal distribution (which is assumed for MMPI scores), about 97% of scores fall below the score that is two standard deviations above the mean.
2.79 Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk for migraine headaches?
A. a 35 year old female who is perfectionistic and ambitious
B. a 60 year old female who is sensitive and conscientious
C. a 35 year old male who is competitive and stressed
D. a 50 year old male who exercises regularly and drinks alcohol
2.79 Migraine headaches are more common in females and have been linked with certain personality characteristics.
a. CORRECT The risk for migraine is higher for females than males; the onset of migraines is between puberty and mid-life; and personality characteristics that have been linked to migraines include perfectionism, neatness, restraint, and ambitiousness.
2.80 Otitis media (OM) is a frequently-diagnosed childhood disease. Research on the long-term consequences of chronic OM has found that, in general:
A. it does not affect hearing ability.
B. it is associated with mild hearing loss that has little or no impact on school achievement.
C. it is associated with mild to moderate hearing loss that may have a negative impact on school achievement
D. it is associated with profound hearing loss.
2.80 Otitis media (OM) is a middle ear disease. When chronic, it often causes mild to moderate hearing loss.
c. CORRECT The hearing loss resulting from OM has been linked to attention problems (especially attention to language) and resulting language deficits, behavioral problems, and lower school achievement. See, e.g., L. Feagans and A. Proctor, The effects of mild illness in infancy on later development: The sample case of the effects of otitis media (middle ear effusion), in C. B. Fisher and R. M. Learner (Eds.), Applied developmental psychology, Cambridge, MA, McGraw-Hill, 1994.
2.81 The ______ is responsible for our ability to set goals and priorities, make decisions and plans, identify strategies to carry out those decisions and plans, and control impulses.
A. prefrontal cortex
B. Entorhinal cortex
C. corpus callosum
2.81 The functions described in this question are examples of our executive (higher-order) cognitive functions.
a. CORRECT The prefrontal cortex is part of the frontal lobe and plays an important role in our executive cognitive functions. The results of recent research suggest that the lack of impulse control and poor judgment associated with adolescence are due to incomplete development of this area of the brain.
b. Incorrect The entorhinal cortex is located in the ventromedial part of the temporal lobe. It plays an important role in memory and is one of the first areas of the brain to be affected by Alzheimer’s dementia.
c. Incorrect The corpus callosum is the largest bundle of fibers connecting the two hemispheres of the brain and is not responsible for the functions listed in the question.
d. Incorrect The striatum consists of the putamen and caudate nucleus, which are part of the basal ganglia. The basal ganglia are involved in motor control and several other functions (but not the functions listed in the question).
2.82 For her math class assignment, a high school student decides to compare the average number of hours that students in her school view TV each day to the national average. To analyze the data she collects, the student will use which of the following statistical tests?
A. single-sample t-test
B. independent samples t-test
C. single-sample chi-square test
D. multiple-sample chi-square test
2.82 The data analysis for the study described in this question will involve comparing the mean number of TV viewing hours for the high school students to the national mean.
a. CORRECT The t-test is used to compare two means, and when one of the means is a sample mean and the other is a known population mean, the appropriate t-test is the single-sample t-test.
b. Incorrect The independent samples t-test is the appropriate t-test for comparing means obtained from two independent samples.
c. Incorrect The single-sample chi-square test is used to compare the number (frequency) of cases in each category when a study includes a single variable.
d. Incorrect The multiple-sample chi-square test is used to compare the number (frequency) of cases in each category when a study includes two or more variables.
2.83 To compare the effectiveness of three different doses of a new drug for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), an investigator obtains a sample of 16 adults who have just received a diagnosis of GAD. All participants in the study will receive all three doses of the drug but in different order: Four participants will first receive the low dose for two weeks, then the moderate dose for two weeks, and then the high dose for two weeks; four other participants will first receive the moderate does for two weeks, then the low does for two weeks, then the high does for two weeks; and so on. The investigator is using which of the following research designs?
D. Solomon four-group
2.83 The investigator is using a within-subjects design that involves having each participant receive all levels of the independent variable.
a. Incorrect The term "analogue" is used in the context of research design to refer to the investigation of a well-defined research question in well-controlled conditions.
b. Incorrect The dismantling strategy is used to determine the effects of each component of a multi-component treatment and involves administering different components to different groups of participants.
c. CORRECT Counterbalanced designs are within-subjects designs that help control order or practice effects by administering the levels of the independent variable to different subjects (or groups of subjects) in a different order.
d. Incorrect The Solomon four-group design is used to evaluate the impact of pretesting on a study’s internal and external validity.
2.84 Rational decision-making in organizations most often fails because:
A. decisions are affected by "social desirability" and other decision biases.
B. decisions are typically guided by economic concerns only.
C. too many people are involved in the decision-making process.
D. there is insufficient information, time, and money
2.84 Decision-making strategies have been categorized in terms of several basic types. One strategy is referred to as rational decision-making; as its name implies, it involves examining alternatives in a rational way to identify the best one.
a. Incorrect Social desirability is a type of response style that affects how an individual responds to test items and is not relevant to decision-making strategies.
b. Incorrect Although this is true in some cases, it is not an accurate generalization.
c. Incorrect This has not been identified by the research on rational decision-making as a cause of bad decisions.
d. CORRECT Herbert Simon has proposed that rational decision-making often fails because the decision-maker often "satisfices" (rather than "maximizes"); i.e., he/she chooses the first satisfactory alternative rather than continue to search for the optimal alternative due primarily to inadequate information about the problem and alternative solutions, to a lack of time and money, and to limits on the decision-maker's own intelligence.
2.85 As conceptualized in Baddeley and Hitch’s (1974) multi-component model, the ______ is responsible for directing attention to relevant sensory information.
A. cognitive sketchpad
B. sensory coding system
C. central executive
D. episodic buffer
2.85 According to the multi-component model, working memory consists of a central executive and three subsystems -- the phonological loop, the visuo-spatial sketchpad, and the episodic buffer.
c. CORRECT The central executive is the primary component of working memory and acts as an "attentional control system." Additional information about this model is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
2.86 The MMPI-2’s K scale is treated as which of the following when scoring the test?
A. suppressor variable
B. mediator variable
C. measure of response consistency
D. measure of psychosis
2.86 The K-scale is one of the MMPI-2's validity scales. It was originally developed as a measure of clinical defensiveness and has since been found to have positive correlations with education level and socioeconomic status.
a. CORRECT A suppressor variable is a variable that correlates with scores on a test but is irrelevant to what is being measured by the test. Suppressor variables are sometimes used in scoring a test to remove variability in scores due to irrelevant factors. On the MMPI-2, an examinee's K-scale score is used as a correction factor for scores on the clinical scales.
b. Incorrect A mediator variable is a variable that causes (is responsible for) the relationship between independent and dependent variables.
c. Incorrect The VRIN and TRIN scales are measures of response consistency.
d. Incorrect The K scale score is not used as a measure of psychosis.
2.87 A factor matrix indicates that Test A has a factor loading for .40 on Factor I and a factor loading of .30 on Factor II. Assuming the factors are orthogonal, what is the communality for Test A?
2.87 As described in the Test Construction chapter of the written study materials, when factors are orthogonal (uncorrelated), a test's factor loadings can be squared and summed to calculate the communality (the amount of variability in test scores explained by the identified factors).
b. CORRECT Test A's communality is equal to .40 squared (.16) plus .30 squared (.09), which is .25.
2.88 Secondary reinforcers are:
A. stimuli that increase a behavior through their accidental pairing with that behavior.
B. stimuli that gain their reinforcing value through their association with an unconditioned reinforce
C. high-frequency behaviors that are used to reinforce low-frequency behaviors.
D. reinforcers that are removed (rather than applied) following a behavior.
2.88 Reinforcers are classified as primary or secondary.
a. Incorrect This answer does not describe secondary reinforcers.
b. CORRECT Primary (unconditioned) reinforcers are inherently reinforcing, while secondary (conditioned) reinforcers acquire their reinforcing value through their association with one or more primary reinforcers. Money is an example of a secondary reinforcer.
c. Incorrect When using the Premack Principle, a high-frequency behavior is used as a reinforcer for a low-frequency behavior to increase the low-frequency behavior.
d. Incorrect This answer describes negative reinforcement.
2.89 Research has consistently show that the greater the genetic similarity between people, the more highly correlated their IQ test scores. Which of the following does NOT accurately represent the correlation coefficients reported in the research?
A. identical twins reared together: .85
B. identical twins reared apart: .67
C. biological siblings reared together: .45
D. unrelated individuals reared together: .06
2.89 Studies have shown that, among children and adolescents, about 50% of intelligence test score variability can be attributed to genetics and that, for adults, this figure is 70 to 80%.
a. Incorrect This is the correlation reported for identical twins reared together.
b. Incorrect This is the correlation reported for identical twins reared apart.
c. Incorrect This is the correlation reported for biological siblings reared together.
d. CORRECT The reported correlation coefficient for unrelated individuals reared together is close to .30. See, e.g., D. Meyers, Psychology, New York: Worth, 1998. Note: Although information on "unrelated individuals reared together" is not presented in the Psychological Assessment chapter, you may had to use the process of elimination to identify this as the correct answer. Alternatively, you may have recalled that the correlation for an adoptive parent and child (who are "unrelated individuals") is .18, which would have helped you identify this as the correct response.
2.90 Which of the following techniques would be most useful for analyzing the time until first relapse for mild, moderate, and heavy smokers who participate in a self-administered smoking cessation program?
A. survival analysis
B. trend analysis
C. time-series analysis
D. cluster analysis
2.90 For the exam, you want to be familiar with the uses of all of the techniques listed in the answers to this question.
a. CORRECT Survival analysis is used to analyze the amount of time that passes before a particular event occurs (i.e., to analyze “time-to-event” data). For example, it would be useful for analyzing time until first relapse following treatment, time until a particular skill is acquired, or time until symptoms develop following exposure to a disease.
b. Incorrect As its name suggests, trend analysis is used to identify patterns (trends). For example, statistically significant trends can be detected with the analysis of variance when the independent variable is quantitative. In this situation, the analysis would indicate if there is a statistically significant linear or nonlinear relationship between the independent and dependent variables.
c. Incorrect Time-series analysis is used to analyze data collected over time. As an example, it could be used to analyze data from a within-group research study in which the dependent variable was measured multiple times before and after the independent variable was applied.
d. Incorrect Cluster analysis is used to divide people, events, or variables into meaningful groups (clusters) based on data collected on those variables. For instance, cluster analysis could be used to identify subgroups of patients with Major Depressive Disorder in terms of predominant symptoms and help-seeking behaviors.
2.91 To determine the degree of association between two variables that are reported in terms of ranks, you would use which of the following correlation coefficients?
2.91 For the exam, you want to be familiar with the correlation coefficients listed in the answers to this question.
a. Incorrect The contingency coefficient is used when both variables are measured on a nominal scale.
b. Incorrect The biserial coefficient is the appropriate correlation coefficient when one variable is continuous and the other is an artificial dichotomy.
c. Incorrect The phi coefficient is used when both variables are true dichotomies.
d. CORRECT The Spearman rank-order correlation coefficient is also known as Spearman rho and is used when both variables are ranks.
2.92 During the tenth meeting of a therapy group, one of the co-therapists openly disagrees with the reactions of the other co-therapist to one of the group members. According to Irvin Yalom, a leading authority in the field of group therapy, such open disagreement between co-therapists is:
A. counterproductive and disruptive to the group process.
B. useful since it helps members see how disagreements can be resolved
C. useful as long as one of the therapists takes the side of the group member.
D. useful as long as such open disagreement is an explicit group norm.
2.92 Yalom notes that "whether co-therapists should openly express disagreement during a group session is an issue of some controversy" (1985, p. 420). However, he believes that, in general, disagreement can be useful.
b. CORRECT Yalom believes that disagreements between co-therapists may be inappropriate during the first few meetings of a therapy group but, in later sessions, can contribute to treatment by providing a “model-setting experience” for group members that shows them how disagreements can be resolved.
d. Incorrect Yalom does not qualify his support for disagreement with the requirement that it be an explicit group norm.
2.93 To assess the reading, spelling, and arithmetic skills of an elementary-school child who may have a learning disability, you would use which of the following?
2.93 For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the tests listed in the answers to this question. Additional information about these tests is provided in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT The Wide Range Achievement Test (WRAT) is a rapid screening device for assessing reading, spelling, and math skills and was designed to be used to assist in the diagnosis of a learning disability.
b. Incorrect The Differential Aptitude Test (DAT) assesses job-related abilities and broad intellectual skills and is used for vocational counseling.
c. Incorrect The Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test (PPVT) is a measure of receptive vocabulary that provides a nonverbal estimate of intelligence.
d. Incorrect The Cognitive Assessment System (CAS) is a measure of basic cognitive processes central to learning.
2.94 A psychologist has just started working at a mental health clinic. Several of the clients who are referred to him belong to an ethnic minority group that he has not worked with before. He should:
A. inform the clients of his limited experience and discuss their options with them.
B. consult with a senior member of the clinic
C. read relevant research on the needs of members of this group.
D. refer the clients to a more qualified therapist.
2.94 There is nothing in the question that says the minority clients have problems that are unfamiliar to the therapist, that their well-being will be jeopardized by seeing this therapist, or that there is any other reason why a referral would be the best course of action.
a. Incorrect Of the responses given, this is not the best one. In certain situations, admitting a lack of expertise is appropriate, but as a general strategy for a particular kind of client, it would not be a good policy.
b. CORRECT This is always a good course of action in any situation involving uncertainty about one's competence.
c. Incorrect This would be insufficient.
d. Incorrect This is not really a wrong answer but is not suggested by the conditions of the question. You'd want to consider this course of action in situations where it would be clearly in the best interests of the clients to do so.
2.95 Alcohol Withdrawal is characterized by:
A. dysphoric mood, vivid dreams, insomnia, increased appetite.
B. hand tremor, insomnia, hallucinations, grand mal seizures
C. incoordination, nystagmus, impaired memory, mood lability.
D. dysphoric mood, restlessness, insomnia, fever.
2.95 A diagnosis of Alcohol Withdrawal is made when cessation of (or reduction in) heavy, prolonged alcohol consumption results in at least two characteristic symptoms.
a. Incorrect This describes Amphetamine Withdrawal.
b. CORRECT These are characteristic symptoms of Alcohol Withdrawal.
c. Incorrect These are symptoms of Alcohol Intoxication.
d. Incorrect These symptoms are associated with Opioid Withdrawal.
2.96 Research investigating the effects of early physical maturation in adolescence has found that, in general:
A. it has short-term benefits for adolescent boys and girls.
B. it is associated with harmful consequences for adolescent boys and girls.
C. it has some benefits for adolescent boys but harmful consequences for adolescent girls
D. it has some benefits for adolescent girls but harmful consequences for adolescent boys.
2.96 Research comparing on-time, early, and late physical maturation in adolescence has found that the effects differ for boys and girls. Note, however, that the effects of late (and early) maturation decline over time so that, in adulthood, early, on-time, and late maturers are essentially indistinguishable.
c. CORRECT For adolescent boys, early physical maturation is associated with a number of benefits including greater popularity with peers and better overall adjustment. In contrast, for girls, early physical maturation has been linked to lower academic achievement and a higher risk for sexually precocious behavior and drug use.
2.97 According to Irvin Yalom (1985), in group therapy, increasing intimacy and willingness to self-disclose and greater adherence to group norms are attributable to which of the following?
D. group transferences
2.97 Yalom describes the beginning of a new therapy group as involving three formative stages.
a. CORRECT According to Yalom, the third stage of group therapy is characterized by a growing sense of group cohesiveness, which leads to greater participation in the group and increased adherence to group norms.
2.98 Dr. Looby receives a letter from the Ethics Committee stating that the Committee has received a complaint from a current client who is concerned about Dr. Looby’s office staff and procedures. The client has found two members of the staff to be consistently rude, and they have made comments to her that imply they have access to confidential information. Dr. Lobby should:
A. discuss the matter with the staff members.
B. set up an appointment with the client to discuss the matter.
C. send a letter of apology to the client and inform her that changes will be made.
D. respond to the Committee in writing
2.98 This question is difficult to answer because none of the responses describes an entirely inappropriate action. However, only one response addresses APA requirements.
d. CORRECT This response addresses the requirements of APA's Ethics Code and Rules and Procedures – i.e., both documents require psychologists to cooperate with the Ethics Committee. Specifically, Part II, Standard 8.2 of the Rules and Procedures requires psychologists to respond to charges of unethical conduct personally and Standard 9 requires full cooperation "in a timely fashion." How Dr. Looby responds to the client's charges – e.g., by talking to the client, discussing the matter with the staff – depends on the situation.
2.99 Harry Harlow’s research confirmed the importance of which of the following in the development of attachment in infant monkeys?
A. oral gratification
B. tactile comfort
C. interactional synchrony
2.99 Harlow is best known for his research on early attachment and its consequences in infant monkeys.
b. CORRECT Harlow and his colleagues found that infant monkeys preferred physical contact with a soft terrycloth surrogate mother to contact with a hard wire surrogate that provided food. They concluded that these results indicate that contact (tactile) comfort is most critical for attachment.
2.100 You are asked by one of the parties in a custody case to offer an opinion as to the best custody arrangement for the couple’s child at an upcoming hearing. The party making the request believes you are the best person to offer an opinion since you have been seeing the child in therapy since her parents separated 12 months ago. You should:
A. agree to the request and make sure that you base your opinion on the best interests of the child.
B. agree to the request only if you are also able to evaluate both parents
C. agree to the request only if both parents sign a consent.
D. refuse to do so.
2.100 This issue is addressed in the APA's Guidelines for Child Custody Evaluations in Family Law Proceedings.
d. CORRECT The Guidelines states that psychologists must avoid multiple relationships. For example, they should avoid assuming an evaluative role in custody cases where they already have established a therapeutic relationship with the child and/or the child's parents.
2.101 Two weeks before the election for senior class president, the four candidates are given the opportunity to deliver a 10 minutes speech during a school assembly. Sally Smart is familiar with research on the recency and primacy effects and, therefore, asks if she can speak:
2.101 Research on the persuasiveness of messages has found that, in general, the first presenter is most influential.
a. CORRECT The primacy effect is usually stronger than the recency effect, although the advantage of going first or last is affected by several factors. For example, there is more likely to be a primacy effect when the messages are presented back-to-back and there is a delay before a decision must be made. Additional information on recency and primacy effects is provided in the Social Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
2.102 The primary advantage of manual-guided treatment is that the use of manuals:
A. standardizes treatment delivery so that, in research, treatment effects can be more clearly ascertained
B. substantially improves treatment outcomes across different clients, diagnoses, and contexts.
C. reduces the legal liability of clinicians for "treatment errors."
D. ensures that the procedures used to evaluate treatment effectiveness are valid.
2.102 Manual-guided treatments provide manuals that specify the theoretical underpinnings of the treatment and treatment goals and present specific therapeutic guidelines and strategies.
a. CORRECT Treatment manuals were initially developed to standardize treatments so that their effects could be empirically evaluated and to provide training guidelines for therapists.
b. Incorrect The research on this issue is inconsistent and but has generally not found manual guided treatments to have substantially better outcomes than treatments that are not guided by the use of a manual.
c. Incorrect This has not been identified as an outcome of the use of treatment manuals.
d. Incorrect This is not one of the benefits of treatment manuals.
2.103 According to Hersey and Blacnchard’s situational leadership model, a leader should use a “participative” style for subordinates who have:
A. low ability and low motivation.
B. low ability and high motivation.
C. high ability and low motivation
D. high ability and high motivation.
2.103 Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model proposes that a leader is most effective when his/her leadership style matches the subordinate's ability and motivation (willingness to accept responsibility), and they distinguish between four styles -- telling, selling, participating, and delegating.
a. Incorrect A telling style is most effective for employees low in both ability and motivation.
b. Incorrect A selling style is most effective for employees who are low in ability and high in motivation.
c. CORRECT According to Hersey and Blanchard, a participative leadership style is most effective when subordinates have high levels of ability and low levels of motivation.
d. Incorrect A delegating style is most effective for employees who are high in both ability and motivation.
2.104 Responsibility for the validity of information provided by an automated test scoring and interpretation services lies with:
A. the test scoring and interpretation service.
B. the psychologist who is in charge of the test scoring and interpretation service.
C. the psychologist who uses the test scoring and interpretation service
D. the test scoring and interpretation service and the psychologist who uses the service.
2.104 This issue is addressed in Standard 9.09(c) of the Ethics Code.
c. CORRECT According to the Code, "psychologists retain responsibility for the appropriate application, interpretation, and use of assessment instruments, whether they score and interpret such tests themselves or use automated or other services."
2.105 During the first therapy session with a husband and wife who are experiencing marital problems, a therapist requests that, during the next week, they identify things in their relationship that they want to continue. Most likely, this therapist is a practitioner of:
A. psychoeducational family therapy.
B. behavioral marital therapy.
C. interpersonal therapy.
D. solution-focused therapy
2.105 The therapist has given the couple a task that will help them focus on the positive aspects of their relationship.
d. CORRECT In the context of solution-focused therapy, this assignment is an example of a "formula task." Its purpose is to help the couple identify positive aspects of their relationship that, in turn, can lead to solutions to their marital difficulties.
2.106 One of your current clients is a 31 year old man who was sexually abused as a child. During the fifth session, he tells you that he’s been having fantasies about sexual contacts with children. He says that he has not acted on these feelings but is concerned about them. You should:
A. advise him that you are required to make a report with the authorities.
B. attempt to determine the degree of risk that he will act on his fantasies
C. tell him that this is not unusual for someone who has been sexually abused and continue to work on this issue in therapy.
D. contact his wife to see if she has noticed any changes in the behavior of their three children.
2.106 A psychologist is required to report suspected or known cases of child abuse. From the information presented in this question, however, there is no reason to suspect that abuse has actually occurred.
b. CORRECT This is the best response of those given. Obviously, the man's fantasies are a "red flag" that must be taken seriously and dealt with directly.
2.107 A practitioner of ________ family therapy is likely to agree that the initial interview with a family influences the entire course of therapy and consists of four stages- social, problem, interaction, and task-setting.
C. object relations
D. Milan systemic
2.107 For the exam, you want to be familiar with the key concepts and strategies associated with each of the family therapies listed in the answers to this question.
a. CORRECT Haley, a leading contributor to strategic family therapy, considered the initial interview with the family to be an important determinant of the course of therapy and divided it into the four stages listed in this question.
2.108 “Vicarious liability” is most likely to be a concern when a psychologist is acting in the role of:
C. faculty member
D. radio talk show host
2.108 Under certain circumstances, supervisors may be legally responsible for the actions of their supervisees.
a. CORRECT The determination of vicarious liability ordinarily rests on the disparity in training and experience between the supervisor and supervisee and the level of responsibility the supervisor has for the supervisee's actions.
2.109 A client you have been seeing in therapy for seven weeks tells you that her ex-husband is threatening to kill you because he blames you for unwillingness to get back together with him. From your conversations with the client, you know that the man has a history of violent behavior and that his threat against you must be taken seriously. As an ethical psychologist:
A. you must continue seeing the client and should contact the police to obtain protection only with the client's consent to do so.
B. you must continue seeing the client but may contact the police to obtain protection with or without the client's consent to do so.
C. you may terminate therapy with the client and may contact the police to obtain protection with or without the client’s consent to do so
D. you may terminate therapy with the client but should contact the police to obtain protection only with the client's consent to do so.
2.109 Terminating therapy with a client in this situation is addressed in Standard 10.10(b) of the APA's Ethics Code.
c. CORRECT Standard 10.10(b) states that "psychologists may terminate therapy when threatened or otherwise endangered by the client/patient or another person with whom the client/patient has a relationship." In addition, prohibitions against breaching client confidentiality do not apply if the psychologist needs to contact the police or others to obtain protection for him/herself (see, e.g., C. B. Fisher, Decoding the Ethics Code: A practical guide for psychologists, Thousand Oaks, CA, Sage Publications, 2003).
2.110 ______ is to b weight as ______ is to beta coefficient.
A. unstandardized; standardized
B. Linear; nonlinear
C. Unimodal; multimodal
D. Semi-partial; partial
2.110 There are two types of regression coefficients in multiple regression: b weights (or values) and beta coefficients.
a. CORRECT A b weight is unstandardized and reflects the unit of measure of the predictor, which means that the b weight for each predictor represents a different metric. For example, the b weight for height would be in inches, while the b weight for weight would be in pounds. In contrast, beta coefficients are standardized (with a mean of 0 and standard deviation of 1) so that the beta coefficients for all predictors are in the same metric and can be compared.
2.111 Alcohol consumption by a pregnant woman is likely to have the most adverse effects on her baby’s prenatal development when the woman drinks during:
A. the first trimester
B. the second trimester
C. the third trimester
D. the first or the third trimester
2.111 Alcohol consumption by a woman during pregnancy can have detrimental effects on the developing fetus, with the severity and extent of the effects depending on the amount of alcohol consumed and the time during which it is consumed.
a. CORRECT There does not appear to be any safe time for alcohol consumption during pregnancy. However, the worst effects overall (i.e., for many different aspects of development) are associated with drinking during the first trimester.
2.112 Hans Eysenck’s (1952) review of psychotherapy outcome studies sparked controversy because of its conclusion that:
A. behavioral therapies are more effective than insight-oriented therapies for most mental disorders.
B. People who receive therapy are not “better off” than those with similar problems who do not receive therapy
C. most people who receive therapy experience a relapse within six months after termination of therapy
D. people who terminate therapy prematurely are no “better off” than those who continue therapy until treatment goals have been achieved.
2.112 Eysenck (1952) based his conclusions about the effectiveness of psychotherapy on 24 outcome studies.
b. CORRECT Eysenck concluded that the effects of psychotherapy are “small or nonexistent” and that any apparent positive effects may be due to spontaneous remission. Eysenck’s conclusions were criticized on methodological grounds.
2.113 Singh and Young (1995) found that, when men were asked to rate women in terms of attractiveness, health, and desirability as a romantic partner, they gave the highest ratings to females with:
A. large breasts and narrow hips
B. large breasts and broad hips.
C. small breasts and narrow hips.
D. small breasts and broad hips.
2.113 If you’re not familiar with Singh and Young’s research, you may have been able to identify the correct answer to this question by considering the women who appear in advertising and men’s magazines.
a. CORRECT D. Singh and R. K. Young found that large breasts, narrow hips and low waist-to-hip ratio were consistently rated by men as more attractive, healthy, and desirable for a romantic relationship [Body weight, waist-to-hip ratio, breasts, and hips: Role in judgments of female attractiveness and desirability for relationships, Ethology and Sociobiology, 16(6), 483-507, 1995].
2.114 Research investigating the impact of early attachment has most consistently linked the _______ attachment pattern to aggressive behavior problems in childhood.
B. organized avoidant
D. disorganized secure
2.114 The studies have linked early attachment to a number of behaviors, including aggression in childhood.
a. Incorrect The ambivalent attachment pattern is relatively rare, and the research has not linked it to aggressiveness in childhood.
b. Incorrect Although some studies found a link between the avoidant attachment pattern and aggression for boys (but not for girls), other studies have not found a consistent link between the avoidant pattern and agression for boys or girls. In addition, while a disorganized avoidant pattern (a pattern that combines behaviors associated with the disorganized and avoidant types) has been linked an increased risk for aggression, an organized avoidant pattern has not.
c. CORRECT The research has most consistently linked aggression to the disorganized attachment pattern. See, e.g., K. Lyons-Ruth, Attachment relationships among children with aggressive behavior problems: The role of early disorganized attachment patterns, Journal of Consulting and Clinical Psychology, 64(1), 64-73, 1996.
d. Incorrect Disorganized secure is not one of the attachment patterns identified by the researchers.
2.115 The primary feature that distinguishes Acute Stress Disorder from Posttraumatic Stress Disorder is:
A. the shorter duration of symptoms in the former disorder
B. a less severe precipitant in the former disorder.
C. reliving of the trauma in dreams or flashbacks in the latter disorder
D. symptoms of increased arousal in the latter disorder.
2.115 The name of the disorder — Acute Stress Disorder — should have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. CORRECT The symptoms of Acute Stress Disorder must occur within four weeks of the traumatic event and must resolve within that four week period. When symptoms last for one month or more and meet the criteria for PTSD, the diagnosis is changed to PTSD.
b. Incorrect Both disorders are precipitated by a very severe trauma.
c. Incorrect These are symptoms of both disorders.
d. Incorrect This is also characteristic of both disorders.
2.116 Tom is not colorblind but he has a brother who is colorblind. Tom’s wife, Alice, is not colorblind and does not have any relatives who are colorblind. Which of the following describes the likelihood that the children of Tom and Alice will be colorblind?
A. Their male children only are likely to be colorblind.
B. Their female children only are likely to be colorblind.
C. Their male and female children may or may not be colorblind.
D. Neither their male nor their female children will be colorblind.
2.116 To identify the correct answer to this question, you have to be aware that colorblindness is a recessive trait that is carried on the X chromosome.
a. Incorrect For a son to be colorblind, he would have to inherit the colorblind gene from his mother. This will not occur in this case since there is no history of colorblindness in Alice's family.
b. Incorrect For a daughter to be colorblind, she would have to inherit the colorblind gene from her father and her mother. Since there's no history of colorblindness in Alice's family, this would not occur. (However, a daughter would carry the trait if she inherits the gene from her father.)
c. Incorrect See explanation for answers a and b.
d. CORRECT Since the gene for colorblindness is carried on the X chromosome, colorblindness would have to come from the mother for sons and from both the mother and father for daughters. However, since there's no history of colorblindness in the mother's family, this will not occur.
2.117 Melzack and Wall’s (1965) gate-control theory is useful for understanding how:
A. non-pain stimuli can block or modify the sensation of pain
B. signals are transferred from one neuron to an adjacent neuron.
C. newly acquired information interferes with the ability to recall previously acquired information.
D. information from short-term memory is transferred to long-term memory.
2.117 As long as you have gate-control theory associated with response to pain, you would have been able to quickly identify the correct answer to this question.
a. CORRECT Gate-control theory explains why rubbing your elbow after accidentally hitting it against a hard surface helps reduce the sensation of pain.
b. Incorrect This answer describes synaptic transmission.
c. Incorrect This describes the interference theory of forgetting.
d. Incorrect This describes elaborative rehearsal and other effective memory strategies.
2.118 A listener is LEAST likely to change her attitude as the result of a communicator’s message if:
A. the listener accidentally overhears the message.
B. the listener has prior knowledge about the content of the message
C. the communicator is arguing against his or her own best interests.
D. there is a moderate discrepancy between the listener's initial position and the communicator's position.
2.118 Much research has been conducted on communicator, audience, and message characteristics that influence persuadibility. Though you should be familiar with such research, you can also sometimes use logic or your own experience to derive answers to questions such as this one.
a. Incorrect "Accidental" messages are associated with greater attitude change than intended messages.
b. CORRECT Research suggests that listeners are better able to resist a persuasive message if they have been forewarned about its content.
c. Incorrect A communicator arguing against his/her own best interest is more likely to change the attitudes of listeners than a communicator arguing to advance his/her own interests.
d. Incorrect A moderate discrepancy in position between the listener and communicator is associated with greater attitude change than either a high or low discrepancy.
2.119 Studies investigating self-recognition in young children have found that by _______ months of age, over 60% of infants recognize their own image in a mirror.
2.119 Researchers have used a number of techniques to investigate self-recognition in babies including mirrors, photos, and use of the words "I" and "me."
a. CORRECT In a frequently cited study investigating the emergence of self-recognition, J. Brooks-Gunn and M. Lewis had mothers wipe the noses of their babies, ages 9 to 24 months, with a red dye, and then place the babies in front of a mirror. Results indicated that about 30% of the 18-month-old babies recognized themselves in the mirror (i.e., they rubbed the red spot on their own noses when they saw their reflection), while 60% of the 21-month-old babies did so (Social cognition and the acquisition of self, New York, Plenum, 1979).
2.120 A multiple regression equation yields a predicted criterion score for an examinee based on the examinee’s scores on the predictors included in a test battery. When computing a multiple regression equation, each test is weighted:
A. in direct proportion to its correlation with the criterion and in inverse proportion to its correlation with the other predictors in the test battery
B. in inverse proportion to its correlation with the criterion and in direct proportion to its correlation with the other predictors in the test battery.
C. in direct proportion to its correlation with the criterion and with the other predictors in the test battery.
D. in inverse proportion to its correlation with the criterion and with the other predictors in the test battery.
2.120 When choosing tests for a test battery that will be used to predict status on a criterion, each test should correlate highly with the criterion but not with the other tests in the battery in order to provide the most useful (nonredundant) information.
a. CORRECT By computing the multiple regression equation so that each test is weighted in direct proportion to its correlation with the criterion and in inverse proportion to its correlation with other tests, the test with the highest criterion-related validity and the least amount of overlap (correlation) with the other tests will be given the largest weight, while the test with the lowest criterion-related validity and the most overlap with the other tests will be given the smallest weight.
2.121 A _______ seizure affects movement and sensation, usually on one side of the body, without a loss of consciousness.
A. petit mal
D. simple partial
2.121 There are many different types of seizures. Each involves a different etiology and combination of symptoms.
a. Incorrect Petit mal (absence) seizures involve a loss of consciousness without prominent motor symptoms.
b. Incorrect Atonic seizures involve a sudden loss of muscle tone that causes the individual to fall down.
c. Incorrect Clonic seizures are characterized by jerky movements.
d. CORRECT A simple partial seizure begins on one side of the brain and, at least initially, affects only one side of the body. It does not involve a loss of consciousness.
2.122 A middle-aged man is convinced that TV commercials are sending him personal message, and he cannot be talked out of this belief. This is an example of which of the following:
A. delusion of being controlled
B. delusion of reference
C. magical thinking
D. obsessive thinking
2.122 The man is exhibiting a false belief and is unwilling to consider that the belief is untrue. This is the definition of a delusion.
a. Incorrect A delusion of being controlled involves the belief that one's feelings, thoughts, impulses, or actions are not one's own but are being imposed by an external force.
b. CORRECT Delusions of reference involve the belief that events, objects, or other people in one's immediate environment have particular and unusual significance.
c. Incorrect Magical thinking is characterized by the belief that one's thoughts, words, or actions might or will cause or prevent a specific outcome in a way that defies normal laws of cause and effect.
d. Incorrect Obsessions are recurrent, persistent, and senseless ideas, thoughts, images, or impulses that are experienced as ego-dystonic.
2.123 The techniques known as shaping is most useful for:
A. replacing an undesirable high-frequency behavior with a more desirable low-frequency behavior.
B. eliminating an undesirable behavior by replacing it with an incompatible behavior.
C. increasing a behavior that the individual rarely or never performs
D. eliminating a behavior that is self-reinforcing.
2.123 Shaping involves reinforcing successive approximations to the target behavior.
c. CORRECT Shaping is useful for establishing a new behavior or increasing a behavior that the individual rarely performs when the behavior is complex or difficult.
2.124 Children’s understanding of race as a physical, social, and biological category is usually first evident by _____ year of age.
2.124 Although children show awareness of racial differences by age 3 or 4, a sophisticated understanding of race does not develop until later.
c. CORRECT This is the finding reported by M. N. Alejandro-Wright for both White and African-American children, and it is consistent with the work of other investigators (The children's conception of racial classification: A socio-cognitive developmental model, in M. B. Spencer et al. (Eds.),Beginnings: The social and affective development of Black children, Hillsdale, NJ, Erlbaum, 1985).
2.125 An insurance company is conducting a peer review and requests that you provide in with information about a current client whose fee is being paid by the company. In this situation, you are best advised to:
A. provide the company with the requested information only if the client is willing for you to do so.
B. provide the company with only that information you believe to be pertinent to the review.
C. provide the company with relevant information after ensuring that it is aware of the need to maintain confidentiality
D. provide the company with the requested information because the client waived confidentiality when he/she signed the insurance form.
2.125 Although this issue is not explicitly addressed in the Ethics Code, the "spirit" of the Code dictates that confidential information be treated with care.
c. CORRECT When a client's therapy fee has been paid by an insurance company, it is likely that the client has already signed a waiver on his/her insurance form. In addition, therapists are expected to cooperate with peer reviews. Therefore, this is the best response. A therapist would be required to provide information to the insurance company as requested, but the therapist should release only relevant information and should take steps to ensure that confidentiality will be safeguarded.
2.126 Tarasoff v. Regents of the University of California (1976) established:
A. a psychotherapist’s duty to waive confidentiality when a client poses a danger to him/herself.
B. a psychotherapist’s duty to protect an intended victim from a therapy client’s violent actions
C. the right of students or the parents of students to inspect and, when appropriate, to modify students’ academic records.
D. the right of students with disabilities to have test procedures modified to fit their abilities.
2.126 Although the original 1974 Tarasoff decision established a "duty to warn" the intended victim of a therapy client, that decision was superceded by the 1976 rehearing of the case which established a "duty to protect" the intended victim.
b. CORRECT According to 1976 California Supreme Court ruling, a psychotherapist has a duty to protect an intended victim of a therapy client by taking one of several actions: warning "the intended victim or others likely to apprise the victim of the danger, … [notifying] the police, or … [taking] whatever other steps are reasonably necessary under the circumstances."
2.127 According to the Health Belief Model, health behavior is related to:
A. a combination of information, motivation, and behavioral skills.
B. perceived severity, perceived susceptibility, and perceived benefits
D. intentions and perceived norms.
2.127 Several models have been developed to predict when people will act in ways that benefit their health.
a. Incorrect These are components of the Information-Motivation-Behavioral Skills model of AIDS prevention.
b. CORRECT The Health Belief Model is based on the premise that perceived severity of consequences, perceived susceptibility to consequences, and perceived benefits of preventive behavior all contribute to health behavior.
c. Incorrect Habit is not a component of the Health Belief Model.
d. Incorrect This sounds more like the Theory of Reasoned Action.
2.128 The first use of meta-analysis to evaluate the effectiveness of psychotherapy is attributed to:
A. Jacobson and Christensen.
C. Smith and Glass
D. Howard and colleagues.
2.128 Meta-analysis was originally used by Karl Pearson in 1904 to evaluate the extent to which smallpox inoculation increased survival rates. At that time, the technique was not known as "meta-analysis."
c. CORRECT It was not until the 1970s that the term "meta-analysis" was introduced by Smith and Glass who also refined the technique and were the first to apply it to psychotherapy outcome studies. See M. L. Smith and G. V. Glass, Meta-analysis of psychotherapy outcome studies, American Psychologist, 1977, 32, 752-760.
2.129 Equity theory predicts that a husband will feel best about his marriage if:
A. he and his wife give and receive the same amount in their relationship.
B. he perceives that he and his wife give and receive the same amount in their relationship.
C. in terms of their relationship, his give/receive ratio is the same as or greater than the give/receive ratio of his wife.
D. in terms of their relationship, he perceives that his give/receive ratio is the same as the give/receive ratio of his wife
2.129 Equity theory is a cognitive theory of motivation that emphasizes the impact of the individual's beliefs about the equity of the situation in terms of inputs and outcomes. When a person perceives the situation to be equitable, he/she will be satisfied and motivated.
d. CORRECT According to equity theory, a person compares his/her input/outcome ratio to that of others. If he/she perceives the ratios to be similar, this has positive effects on satisfaction and motivation.
2.130 Which of the following approaches was used to derive the “Big Five” personality traits?
B. empirical criterion keying
D. multitrait-multimethod matrix
2.130 The Big Five personality traits – i.e., conscientiousness, extroversion/introversion, openness to experience, emotional stability, and agreeableness – were originally identified through factor analyses of personality traits included in the dictionary.
c. CORRECT The lexical approach is atheoretical and is based on the assumption that all socially-relevant personality traits have been incorporated into language. For the Big Five, this initially involved identifing the personality traits listed in the dictionary.
2.131 A slightly overweight psychological assistant wants to lose 15 pounds. The psychologist who employs her is a well-known authority on the use of behavioral techniques for weight reduction. Therefore, the assistant asks the psychologist if he will accept her as a client. The assistant is willing and able to pay the full fee for the treatment plan. If the psychologist agrees to accept his assistant as a client, he will have:
A. acted ethically since this situation is not covered by the Ethics Code.
B. acted ethically since the assistant is going to pay for the treatment.
C. acted ethically since the psychologist did not solicit the assistant as a client.
D. acted unethically because his dual roles as therapist and employer may create a conflict
2.131 Standard 3.05(a) of APA's Ethics Code states that a psychologist "refrains from entering into a multiple relationship if the multiple relationship could reasonably be expected to impair the psychologist's objectivity, competence, or effectiveness in performing his or her functions as a psychologist, or otherwise risks exploitation or harm to the person with whom the professional relationship exists."
a. Incorrect This situation clearly constitutes a multiple relationship, which is prohibited by the Ethics Code.
b. Incorrect Regardless of whether or not the assistant pays for treatment, the situation would constitute a multiple relationship.
c. Incorrect Solicitation, or lack thereof, has no bearing on the inappropriateness of establishing a multiple relationship.
d. CORRECT Accepting an assistant, or any other employee, as a client would represent a multiple relationship, as defined above. Such relationships should be avoided when possible.
2.132 When conducting research with human participants, a psychologist should be aware that:
A. participants must be debriefed promptly after their participation in the study.
B. participants must be debriefed after their participation in a study only when the study involved deception.
C. participants must be debriefed promptly if possible or, if necessary to delay the debriefing, psychologists must reduce the risk for harm
D. the decision to debrief is left to the psychologist and involves considering the risk for harm to participants if they are not debriefed.
2.132 This issue is addressed in Standard 8.08 of the Ethics Code.
c. CORRECT Research participants should be promptly provided with "appropriate information about the nature, results, and conclusions of the research." When there must be a delay in providing such information, "psychologists take reasonable measures to reduce the risk of harm."
2.133 Interpersonal and social rhythm therapy (IPSRT) has been identified as an effective treatment for:
B. Bipolar Disorder
C. Anorexia Nervosa
D. Borderline Personality Disorder
2.133 IPSRT was developed specifically as a treatment for Bipolar Disorder. See, e.g., E. Frank, H. A. Swartz, and D. J. Kupfer, Interpersonal and social rhythm therapy: Managing the chaos of Bipolar Disorder, Biological Psychiatry, 2000, 48, 593-604.
b. CORRECT As described by Frank et al., the development of IPSRT was based on the premise that people with Bipolar Disorder “have a genetic predisposition to circadian rhythm and sleep-wake cycle abnormalities that may be responsible, in part, for the symptomatic manifestations of the illness” (p. 593). IPSRT is ordinarily used in conjunction with lithium or other mood stabilizer.
2.134 Edgar E., age 24, told his family that he is gay two months ago, and, since then, his father has refused to talk to him. Also, six weeks ago, a man Edgar recently became involved with told him he will soon be moving to another state. Edgar says that, since these events occurred, he’s been feeling depressed and hasn’t been able to sleep well and is having trouble concentrating at work. Edgar also states that he hasn’t felt like spending time with his friends and has been staying home alone much more than usual lately. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis for Edgar is:
A. Adjustment Disorder
B. Dysthymic Disorder.
D. Acute Stress Disorder.
2.134 The information presented in the question suggests that Edgar’s symptoms are the result of two specific stressors: his father's rejection and the loss of his friend/lover.
a. CORRECT Adjustment Disorder is diagnosed when a person"s symptoms are a reaction to an identifiable psychosocial stressor; when symptoms have persisted for no more than six months since the termination of the stressor or its consequences; and when the symptoms are either interfering with the person's occupational and/or social functioning or are in excess of what might be expected.
b. Incorrect In adults, a diagnosis of Dysthymic Disorder requires a duration of symptoms of at least two years.
c. Incorrect Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) involves the development of specific symptoms (re-experiencing of the trauma, avoidance of stimuli associated with the trauma, and increased arousal) following exposure to a trauma that involves experiencing or witnessing threatened or actual death, severe injury, or a threat to one"s personal integrity. Edgar’s situation and symptoms are not characteristic of PTSD.
d. Incorrect The symptoms of Acute Stress Disorder are similar to those of PTSD but are of shorter duration.
2.135 As described in the DSM-IV-TR, if a person’s depressive symptoms develop after the loss of a loved one and meets the criteria for a Major Depressive Episode, the person’s condition should be attributed to Bereavement unless the symptoms persis for more than ________ or include marked or prolonged impairment in functioning, a morbid preoccupation with worthlessness, suicidal ideation, psychotic symptoms, or psychomotor retardation.
A. one month
B. two months
C. four months
D. six months
2.135 Bereavement is included in the DSM-IV-TR with Other Conditions That May be a Focus of Clinical Attention.
b. CORRECT The DSM notes that the duration of “normal” bereavement varies from individual to individual but states that a diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder should “generally not be given” until the person’s symptoms persist for two months or more after the loss of a loved one or include certain symptoms (i.e., the ones listed in this question).
2.136 The outer limit of Vygotsky’s zone of proximal development is defined as:
A. what a child can do with the assistance of an adult or more capable peer
B. what the child can do with maximal effort and motivation.
C. the limitations determined by the child’s current biological maturation.
D. the limitations determined by the child’s current level of psychosocial development
2.136 The "zone of proximal development" is a key concept in Vygotsky"s theory of cognitive development.
a. CORRECT As described by Vygotsky, the zone of proximal development refers to the gap between what the child can currently do alone and what he/she can do with the assistance of a more skilled person.
2.137 A researcher investigating the chemical correlates of memory would be most likely to find that administration of which of the following would improve memory consolidation in older adults?
2.137 Older adults with severe memory impairments have been found to exhibit a significant improvement in memory consolidation following administration of yeast RNA (Cameron, 1958). Although this research result has not always been replicated in humans, it has been consistently found in animals.
a. Incorrect This is the abbreviation for the lateral geniculate nucleus in the brain.
b. Incorrect THC, the active ingredient in marijuana, has not been found to improve memory.
c. CORRECT As noted above, there is evidence that RNA is associated with memory consolidation.
d. Incorrect GABA, an inhibitory neurotransmitter found in the central nervous system, has not been linked with improved memory.
2.138 A 50 year old man with a frontal lobe tumor frequently makes lewd comments, engages in inappropriate sexual behavior, and sometimes responds to events with an unexpected aggressive outburst. Other symptoms likely to be exhibited by this man include:
A. concreteness and perseveration.
B. distractibility and emotional liability
C. sparse verbal output and lower extremity weakness.
D. occasional hallucinations and a "dazed" feeling.
2.138 The symptoms caused by a tumor in the frontal lobe depend on its location. The symptoms given in the question are characteristic of orbitofrontal disinhibition syndrome, which is produced by lesions in the orbitofrontal area of the prefrontal cortex and is also known as pseudopsychopathy.
a. Incorrect These symptoms are consistent with dorsal convexity dysexecutive syndrome, which is caused by lesions in the dorsolateral area.
b. CORRECT These symptoms are consistent with orbitofrontal disinhibition syndrome.
c. Incorrect These symptoms are characteristic of mesial frontal apathetic syndrome, which is caused by damage to the mediofrontal area.
d. Incorrect These symptoms are suggestive of a temporal lobe tumor.
2.139 A therapy client’s negative transference is most likely to be manifested in which of the following ways:
A. The client will criticize the therapist and be pessimistic about the outcome of therapy.
B. The client will be more willing to talk about anxiety-arousing events.
C. The client will say whatever comes to his/her mind
D. The client will express unrealistic positive expectations for the outcomes of therapy.
2.139 The interpretation of a client’s transferences is an important part of psychodynamic psychotherapy.
a. CORRECT Negative transference involves the projection of negative emotions onto the therapist and may manifest itself several ways including making direct, negative comments about the effectiveness of therapy or being late for or missing appointments.
b. Incorrect Transference is a form of resistance and, consequently, is not likely to increase a client's willingness to talk about anxiety-arousing events.
c. Incorrect This describes the psychodynamic technique of free association and is not how a client would be likely to manifest transference.
d. Incorrect Unrealistic positive expectations for the outcomes of therapy are more likely to be a manifestation of positive transference.
2.140 Moffitt (1993) attributes the adolescent-limited type of Conduct Disorder to which of the following?
A. a “maturity gap”
B. coercive family interactions
C. a difficult temperament
D. adolescent egocentrism
2.140 Moffitt (1993) distinguishes between two types of Conduct Disorder – life-course persistent and adolescent-limited.
a. CORRECT Moffitt describes the adolescent-limited type of Conduct Disorder as a temporary form of antisocial behavior that reflects a "maturity gap" between the adolescent’s biological maturity and lack of opportunities for adult privileges and rewards.
b. Incorrect Patterson (1992) uses a coercive family interaction model to explain aggressive behaviors in children.
c. Incorrect Moffitt attributes the life-course persistent type of Conduct Disorder to neurological impairment, a difficult temperament, and certain adverse environmental circumstances.
d. Incorrect Elkind (1984) attributes certain behaviors of adolescents (e.g., the belief that one is unique and not subject to natural laws that govern others) to adolescent egocentrism.
2.141 Major Depressive Disorder has been linked to all of the following sleep disturbances except:
A. reduced Stage 3 and Stage 4 sleep.
B. increased slow-wave (non-REM) sleep
C. decreased REM latency.
D. decreased sleep continuity.
2.141 Major Depressive Disorder is associated with several abnormalities in the sleep cycle.
a. Incorrect Reduced Stage 3 and Stage 4 sleep is characteristic of depression.
b. CORRECT Depression is associated with decreased (not increased) slow-wave sleep.
c. Incorrect Decreased REM latency (earlier onset of REM sleep) is characteristic of depression.
d. Incorrect Decreased sleep continuity is common in individuals with Major Depressive Disorder.
2.142 The symptoms of hypoglycemia include headache, dizziness, sweating, impaired concentration, confusion, clumsy or jerky movements, weakness, and, in extreme cases, convulsions or a loss of consciousness. The cause of hypoglycemia is:
A. low levels of blood glucose
B. excessive salt intake.
D. low insulin levels.
2.142 Hypoglycemia may be a condition by itself or may be a complication of diabetes, severe liver disease, insulinoma (a pancreatic tumor that produces insulin), or other disorder or a consequence of using certain drugs.
a. CORRECT Hypoglycemia is an abnormally low level of blood glucose (sugar) that reduces the brain’s ability to function properly.
b. Incorrect Excessive salt intake may result in high blood pressure.
c. Incorrect Symptoms of dehydration (too little water) include thirst, fatigue, irritability, muscle weakness or cramps, headache, dizziness, nausea, forgetfulness, confusion, and, in severe cases, diminished consciousness, lowered blood pressure, and a rapid, feeble pulse.
d. Incorrect A low insulin level is associated with a high level of blood glucose.
2.143 Dr. Lane, a psychologist, is conducting a research study on peer pressure, and the study’s participants will be 120 fifth-grade students. The study will involve a 30 minute interview with each student and observation of the students during their lunch hour. Before beginning the study, Dr. Lane should:
A. obtain an informed consent from each student.
B. obtain an informed consent from each student's parent.
C. obtain an informed consent from appropriate school personnel.
D. obtain the assent of each student and an informed consent from each student’s parent
2.143 Standard 3.10(b) of the APA's Ethics Code is relevant to this situation.
d. CORRECT This answer is consistent with Standard 3.10(b), which states: "For persons who are legally incapable of giving informed consent, psychologists nevertheless (1) provide an appropriate explanation, (2) seek the individual's assent, (3) consider such persons' preferences and best interests, and (4) obtain appropriate permission from a legally authorized person, if such substitute consent is permitted or required by law." This requirement applies to minors and to adults who have been declared legally incompetent.
2.144 Soon after starting to take an antidepressant, a young woman develops several troublesome symptoms including dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation, and blurred vision. Which of the following would be most useful for alleviating these side effects?
B. an antihistamine
C. a dopamine agonist
D. a cholinergic agonist
2.144 The woman's symptoms are collectively referred to as "anticholinergic side effects" and are caused by interference with acetylcholine activity.
d. CORRECT A drug that increases activity at acetylcholine receptors would be appropriate in this situation. Cholinergic agonists (e.g., bethanechol) work by binding to and stimulating acetylcholine receptors.
2.145 Interoceptive exposure involves:
A. exposure in imagination to objects or situations that evoke anxiety.
B. exposure to bodily sensations associated with anxiety reactions.
C. prolonged continuous exposure to a feared stimulus in vivo.
D. graded (graduated) exposure to a feared stimulus first in imagination, then in vivo.
2.145 Interoceptive exposure has been found useful for reducing anxiety associated with panic attacks, PTSD, and other anxiety-related disorders.
b. CORRECT Interoceptive exposure involves exposing the individual to internal bodily sensations (e.g., elevated heart rate, hyperventilation) associated with a panic attack or other anxiety response by having him/her inhale carbon dioxide, spin in a chair, etc.
2.146 An emphasis on contact, awareness, and experimentation is central to which of the following?
A. Gestalt therapy
B. solution-focused therapy
C. Adlerian therapy
D. rational-emotive therapy
2.146 This is one of those questions you may have been able to answer correctly even if you had incomplete information – i.e., if you knew that the goal of Gestalt therapy is to achieve conscious awareness, you would have been able to identify response a as the correct answer.
a. CORRECT Contact, conscious awareness, and experimentation are key targets in Gestalt therapy. Contact refers to being in touch with what is happening in the here-and-now; awareness refers to focused attention in situations requiring it; and experimentation is the act of trying something new in order to increase understanding.
2.147 One area of interest to industrial psychologists in the effects of rest breaks on productivity. For example, Bhatia and Murrell (1969) evaluated daily output figures after the introduction of rest breaks that reduced the total work time from eight to seven hours per day. Generally speaking, studies like the one conducted by Bhatia and Murrell have indicated that the introduction of rest breaks results in:
A. a rise in daily output despite the fact that employees actually spend less time on the job
B. a decrease in daily output due to reduced time on the job.
C. no significant change in productivity rates.
D. a decrease in productivity but an increase in job satisfaction.
2.147 Even if you are unfamiliar with the research in this area, it makes sense that the less the fatigue, the greater the productivity.
a. CORRECT Studies on the effects of rest breaks have indicated that such breaks actually increase productivity despite reduced time on the job, presumably due to decreased fatigue.
b. Incorrect There is no evidence that rest breaks cause a decrease in output.
c. Incorrect Rest breaks do appear to cause an increase in productivity.
d. Incorrect Rest breaks do not decrease productivity.
2.148 Dr. Goodman has been dating Billy Bob for seven weeks when she realizes that he is the brother of a client she has been seeing in therapy for nearly three months. Dr. Goodman’s best course of action would be to:
A. refer the client to another therapist immediately.
B. stop seeing Billy Bob immediately.
C. discuss the matter with the client as soon as possible
D. do nothing until it becomes evident that the situation is creating a conflict.
2.148 The APA's Ethics Code warns against becoming involved in multiple relationships. However, it does not directly address this particular situation.
c. CORRECT This response is most consistent with the spirit of Standard 3.05(b) of the Ethics Code which states, "If a psychologist finds that, due to unforeseen factors, a potentially harmful multiple relationship has arisen, the psychologist takes reasonable steps to resolve it with due regard for the best interests of the affected person and maximal compliance with the Ethics Code." It may be necessary, eventually, to refer the client to another therapist or end the relationship with Billy Bob, but neither of these would be the best initial action.
2.149 Most interpretations of performance on the Bender-Gestalt are directed toward:
A. screening for brain damage
B. assessing personality.
C. evaluating executive functioning.
D. assigning a psychiatric diagnosis.
2.149 The Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test is a brief assessment of visual-motor integration that may also provide interpretive information about an individual's development and neuropsychological functioning.
a. CORRECT The Bender-Gestalt is considered to be a useful screener for neuropsychological impairment. Additional information about the Bender-Gestalt is provided in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials.
2.150 A manager engaged in long-range planning for his company is fairly confident about the strategic plan he has developed for the future but has some reservations about its acceptability. In this situation, the approach-avoidance conflict model predicts that, as it gets closer to the time to implement the plan:
A. the positive aspects of the plan will increase in strength for the manager while the negative aspects decrease.
B. the negative aspects of the plan will increase in strength for the manager while the positive aspects decrease.
C. the positive and negative aspects of the plan will both increase in strength for the manager, but the negative aspects will increase more
D. the positive and negative aspects of the plan will both decrease in strength for the manager, but the positive aspects will decrease more.
2.150 The approach-avoidance conflict is an intraindividual conflict that occurs when a goal or alternative has both positive and negative qualities. For information on other types of intraindividual conflict, see the Social Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
c. CORRECT As distance from the goal decreases, the strength of both the "approach gradient" and the "avoidance gradient" increases. However, the strength of the avoidance gradient increases more rapidly, meaning that, as you get closer to the goal, the more likely that you will choose to avoid it.
2.151 Studies comparing children of lesbian and heterosexual mothers suggests that children of lesbian mothers:
A. are more likely to have problems related to gender role identity and behavior.
B. are more likely to be homosexual themselves.
C. are more susceptible to psychosocial problems.
D. are comparable in adjustment to children of heterosexual mothers
2.151 Studies investigating the effects of parental sexual orientation on children's adjustment have found that the nature of the parent-child relationship is more important than a parent's sexual orientation.
d. CORRECT The studies have found that children of homosexual and heterosexual parents are fairly indistinguishable in terms of psychosocial adjustment, gender identity development, and sexual orientation.
2.152 A realist job preview is most important for:
A. retaining employees
B. maximizing transfer of training.
C. attracting talented job applicants.
D. reducing selection biases.
2.152 A realistic job preview involves providing job applicants with accurate information about the job and the organization.
a. CORRECT Research on realistic job previews has confirmed that they help reduce turnover which, in turn, reduces costs related to selection and training.
2.153 A structural family therapist’s interventions when working with a triangulated family will be designed to:
A. foster insight in order to establish more appropriate hierarchies and boundaries.
B. create stress in order to unbalance the family’s homeostasis
C. dilute the tension between family members in order to reduce triangulation.
D. alter the family's implicit and explicit rules in order to increase differentiation.
2.153 As its name suggests, structural family therapy is concerned with restructuring the family.
b. CORRECT Before the family's structure can be altered, its homeostatic state must be unbalanced so that family members are more susceptible to change. This is accomplished by interjecting some type of stress into the family.
2.154 In the assessment of cognitive abilities with a standardized test, you would most likely “test the limits”:
A. before administering the test using standardized procedures.
B. as an alternative to administering the test using standardized procedures.
C. after administering the test using standardized procedures
D. whenever it seems appropriate to do so.
2.154 Testing the limits was one of the early methods used to obtain additional qualitative information about an examinee's abilities.
c. CORRECT Testing the limits is done after the entire test has been administered under standardized conditions. It is used to obtain additional information about an examinee and may involve providing cues or asking questions.
2.155 In vivo exposure with response prevention (flooding) and implosive therapy are both based on:
A. mediated generalization.
B. graded desensitization.
D. classical extinction
2.155 Flooding and implosive therapy both involve exposing an individual to the CS without the US.
a. Incorrect Mediated generalization is another name for stimulus generalization, which involves responding to similar stimuli with the same conditioned response.
b. Incorrect As its name implies, graded desensitization involves a gradual exposure to the feared stimulus. Flooding and implosive therapy both involve exposure to a high intensity stimulus.
c. Incorrect Counterconditioning entails presenting a US that is incompatible with the CS so that the current response (e.g., anxiety) is eventually replaced by the desired response (e.g., relaxation).
d. CORRECT Classical extinction is used to extinguish (eliminate) a conditioned response and involves presenting the CS without the US.
2.156 Tolman’s demonstration of latent learning suggests that:
A. a student studying algebra in September may not learn algebra until he begins to study geometry.
B. a student studying algebra will come to a sudden and whole understanding of it.
C. a student will not learn algebra unless the proper incentive for learning is provided.
D. a student might appear to know little about algebra until he takes an algebra test
2.156 Tolman demonstrated latent learning in his experiments with rats and mazes. Some rats were allowed to freely explore mazes for ten days, but did not display any proficiency in solving the maze until reinforcement was offered for doing so. This phenomenon suggests that, reinforcement is more of a factor in the performance than the learning of a response.
b. Incorrect A Gestalt learning theorist might say this.
c. Incorrect A person who views learning as a function of operant conditioning (e.g., positive reinforcement) might say this.
d. CORRECT In this case, the student has learned algebra but is not displaying that knowledge until reinforcement (a good grade) is provided for doing so. Therefore, this observation would be congruent with Tolman's demonstration of latent learning.
2.157 Research on “motor imagination” indicates that which area of the brain is most likely to be active when a person is imagining that he/she is engaging in a motor activity?
A. posterior occipital lobe
B. mammillary bodies
C. supplementary motor area
D. ascending reticular activating system
2.157 The studies on motor imagination have found that the same areas of the brain that are active during the execution of a motor activity are active when a person is imagining that he/she is engaging in that activity.
c. CORRECT The specific areas that are activated when a person imagines he/she is engaging in a motor activity depend on the specific nature of the activity. However, the areas most likely to be involved include the supplementary motor area, cerebellum, basal ganglia, and parietal lobe (especially the somatosensory cortex).
2.158 A number of researchers have attempted to determine the conditions associated with positive outcomes for children who were “at risk” at birth and during early infancy. Their studies suggest that children who recover from early deficiencies:
A. have higher-than-average levels of intelligence.
B. exhibit good social responsiveness during infancy
C. are placed in special education classes on entering school.
D. have mothers who do not work.
2.158 One of the most commonly-cited studies on the outcomes for at-risk children is the longitudinal study by E. Werner and R. Smith (Vulnerable but invincible, New York, McGraw-Hill, 1982). That study and others have identified several factors that predict positive outcomes for high risk (vulnerable) children.
a. Incorrect While significantly lower-than-average IQs are associated with a poor outcome, many children with average IQs have a positive outcome.
b. CORRECT Children with positive outcomes tend to be described as very active and socially responsive during infancy, and many studies have found that a positive outcome is likely to the extent that the child is able to successfully elicit attention and appropriate care from his/her caretakers.
c. Incorrect Learning disabilities (with or without special education) are associated with poorer outcomes.
d. Incorrect Many of the mothers in the Werner and Smith study worked outside the home. However, this did not seem to have a negative effect since the children often had close relationships with their grandmothers and/or siblings who acted as caretakers.
2.159 The primary function of the psychology licensing board is best described by which of the following?
A. establishment of minimal standards of competence
B. limitation of access to the profession
C. protection of the public through the collection of fees for licensure
D. the establishment, monitoring, and enforcement of ethical principles
2.159 Although the various state and provincial boards have different requirements for licensure, they all set the minimum requirements for licensure.
a. CORRECT Licensing boards establish and monitor entry-level qualifications required to offer services to the public for a fee under the title "psychologist"; by doing so, the boards helps ensure competence.
b. Incorrect The licensing boards do not function to limit access to the profession.
c. Incorrect Although licensing is designed to protect the public, this protection is not accomplished through the collection of fees.
d. Incorrect The APA, not the licensing boards, establishes, monitors, and enforces the ethical principles.
2.160 According to Hans Selye, the body’s reaction to sustained stress can be described it terms of three phases: These phases, in order, are:
A. arousal, readiness, fight or flight.
B. alarm, resistance, fight or flight.
C. arousal, readiness, exhaustion.
D. alarm, resistance, exhaustion
2.160 Selye referred to the body's physiological reaction to prolonged stress as the general adaptation syndrome (GAS). For the exam, you want to be familiar with the order of the stages and events that occur during each stage. This information is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
d. CORRECT These are the three stages described by Selye and the order in which they occur.
2.161 Role disputes, role transitions, unresolved grief, and interpersonal deficits are the primary targets of:
A. interpersonal therapy
B. reality therapy.
C. solution-focused therapy.
D. narrative therapy.
2.161 Of the therapies listed in the answers, only one explicitly targets the problem areas listed in the question.
a. CORRECT Interpersonal therapy (IPT) is a brief structured manual-based therapy that was originally developed as a treatment for depression but has since been applied to other disorders. Its primary targets are the four problem areas listed in this question.
2.162 All other things being equal, which of the following types of tests would be expected to have the lowest reliability?
A. 7-response multiple choice
B. 3-response multiple choice
D. free recall
2.162 A test's reliability is an index of the degree to which scores on the test are free from random error (chance factors) and indicative of examinees' true scores. The greater the probability that an examinee can answer an item correctly by guessing (i.e., by chance), the lower a test's reliability.
a. Incorrect The probability that an examinee can guess a correct answer on a 7-response multiple choice test is 14% (1 in 7).
b. Incorrect The probability that an examinee can guess a correct answer on a 3-response multiple choice exam is 33% (1 in 3).
c. CORRECT On a true-false test, the probability that the correct answer can be selected by chance is 50% (1/2). In other words, there is a higher probability that an examinee can guess a correct answer on a true-false test than on the other tests, and thus, an examinee's score on a true-false test will reflect, to a greater degree, error rather than his/her true score.
d. Incorrect The probability that an examinee can guess a correct answer on a free recall test is close to zero.
2.163 Which of the following is an example of a morpheme?
2.163 For the exam, you want to be able to distinguish between morphemes and phonemes.
a. CORRECT Morphemes are the smallest unit of sound that has meaning and include words such as "do" and "go" and prefixes and suffixes such as "ful," "un," and "ing."
b. Incorrect Phonemes are the smallest unit of sound understood in a language and include b, v, and th.
2.164 A potential problem with the Premack Principle is that:
A. it is often difficult to identify an alternative behavior that serves the same function as the target behavior.
B. it may not be possible to apply the reinforce immediately following the target behavior
C. for some people, secondary reinforcers have little value.
D. it is difficult to extinguish a behavior without simultaneously reinforcing an alternative one.
2.164 The Premack Principle entails reinforcing a low-frequency behavior with a high-frequency behavior or activity.
b. CORRECT The high-frequency behavior or activity may not be immediately available, which can reduce the effectiveness of the intervention since positive reinforcement is most effective when the reinforcer can be delivered immediately following the target behavior.
2.165 While preparing for the licensing exam, you should keep in mind that which of the following will maximize your retention of the material you are studying?
A. elaborative rehearsal and distributed practice
B. elaborative rehearsal and massed practice
C. maintenance rehearsal and distributed practice
D. maintenance rehearsal and massed practice
2.165 For the exam, you want to be familiar with the definition and effects of elaborative versus maintenance rehearsal and distributed versus massed practice.
a. CORRECT The studies have consistently shown that elaborative rehearsal (making new information meaningful) is more effective in terms of retention and recall than is maintenance rehearsal (rote repetition). The studies have also found that distributed practice (distributing study time over several study sessions) results in better retention than does massed practice (studying all material in a single study session).
2.166 Dr. Cooper is appointed by the court to evaluate a 42 year old man who is the defendant in a court proceeding. With regard to privilege, Dr. Cooper should be aware that:
A. the defendant is the holder of the privilege and must sign a waiver of confidentiality before any information is given to the court.
B. Dr. Cooper is the holder of the privilege in this situation and it is his responsibility to determine what information to release to the court.
C. privilege is waived in this situation but Dr. Cooper should inform the defendant of the limits on confidentiality
D. privilege is waived in this situation and Dr. Cooper can decide if it is appropriate to inform the defendant of the limits on confidentiality.
2.166 There are many reasons why a court might appoint a psychologist to evaluate a party in a court case. In these situations, privilege is waived, and the individual must be informed of the limits of confidentiality.
c. CORRECT Obviously, the evaluation would serve no useful purpose if the court did not have the right to access the information obtained during the course of the evaluation. Consequently, this is one of the exceptions to the privilege requirement. A psychologist should, however, always inform the individual of the limits of confidentiality in this situation.
2.167 The MMSE (Mini Mental State Exam) is most often administered to:
A. children as a measure of intelligence.
B. adolescents and adults as a measure of brain dysfunction.
C. older adults as a measure of cognitive functioning
D. older adults as a measure of quality of life.
2.167 The MMSE was originally developed by Folstein in 1975 as a "practical method for grading the cognitive state."
c. CORRECT The MMSE measures several aspects of cognitive functioning. The score is derived by considering both age and level of education, with a score of 24 or less (out of 30) suggesting cognitive impairment.
2.168 Which of the following is generally considered to be the most effective treatment for nocturnal enuresis?
B. EEG biofeedback
C. bladder strengthening exercises
D. the night alarm
2.168 Behavioral interventions, antidepressants, and antidiuretics are the most common treatments for enuresis.
a. Incorrect Night-lifting involves waking the child periodically throughout the night, walking him/her to the bathroom to urinate, and then walking the child back to the bed. It is considered by some experts to be punishing for both the child and the parent; and it has not been found to be more effective than the night alarm.
b. Incorrect Although some investigators report that EEG (brainwave) biofeedback is useful for treating enuresis, there is more consistent evidence for the effectiveness of the night alarm.
c. Incorrect Bladder strengthening exercises are used to treat enuresis but usually in conjunction with the night alarm or other treatment.
d. CORRECT Of the treatments listed, the night alarm (also known as the bell-and-pad) has been identified as the most effective treatment for nocturnal enuresis. Although relapse is a problem for the night alarm, relapse rates are lower than the rates associated with antidepressants and other drugs.
2.169 When attempting to expand your private practice, it is important to keep in mind that in-person solicitation of business:
A. is unethical in all circumstances.
B. is unethical only when the solicitation includes misleading or coercive information.
C. is ethical only when the person being solicited is not receiving similar services from another professional
D. may be ethical if the person being solicited is not susceptible to undue influence
2.169 This issue is addressed in Standard 5.06 of the APA's Ethics Code.
d. CORRECT Standard 5.06 states that "psychologists do not engage, directly or through agents, in uninvited in-person solicitation of business from actual or potential therapy clients/patients or other persons who because of their particular circumstances are vulnerable to undue influence. However, this does not preclude (1) attempting to implement appropriate collateral contacts for the purpose of benefiting an already engaged therapy client/patient or (2) providing disaster or community outreach services." Of the answers given, this one is most consistent with Standard 5.06.
2.170 An item characteristic curve (ICC) indicates:
A. the relationship between the likelihood that an examinee will endorse the item and the examinee’s level on the attribute measured by the test
B. the expected number of scale items answered correctly as a function of the attribute(s) measured by the scale.
C. the expected range within which an examinee’s obtained score is likely to fall given the effects of measurement error.
D. the degree to which the item is actually measuring the attribute purportedly measured by the test.
2.170 As its name suggests, an item characteristic curve (ICC) provides information about an item’s characteristics. Additional information about the ICC is provided in the Test Construction chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT This accurately describes the ICC.
2.171 When using ______, examinees who obtain scores that fall within a specified range of scores are considered to have received identical scores.
A. top-down selection
B. within-group norming
C. separate cutoff scores
2.171 The procedures listed in the answers are methods of score adjustment that are used to take group differences into account when assigning or interpreting scores. They are described in the Test Construction chapter of the written study materials.
d. CORRECT Banding is being used, for example, when a band is defined as 91 to 100 points and examinees who receive scores of 91, 95, and 99 are treated the same.
2.172 While attending a psychology conference, a colleague reports that he has developed a new assessment evaluation for suicide risk. You believe that this test may help you in your clinical practice. However, you learn that this test is labeled, “For Research Purposes Only,” at this time. Given this information, what is the appropriate course of action?
A. You would not use the new test.
B. You learn as much as possible about this new test, and then use it if it seems appropriate to do so.
C. You can use the new test if you obtain the appropriate consent from a client before using the new test.
D. You can use the new test if it is used in conjunction with other data.
2.172 Since tests should only be used in the context in which they have been validated, it would not be appropriate to use a test labeled, "For Research Purposes Only," in the clinical setting.
a. CORRECT You would not use the new test because this test should only be used "For Research Purposes Only."
2.173 Which of the following is LEAST likely to be true about a 55 year old Asian client?
A. When she smiles, this is more likely to indicate confusion or embarrassment than pleasure.
B. She will be uncomfortable discussing personal details about her family relationships.
C. When she avoids eye contact, this will communicate respect rather than inattention or disrespect.
D. She will respond best to an indirect, unstructured therapeutic approach.
2.173 It is very important not to overgeneralize the characteristics of members of culturally diverse groups. However, the licensing exam sometimes includes questions like this one that require you to do so.
a. Incorrect Among Asians and Asian Americans, a smile is more likely to signal embarrassment or confusion than pleasure.
b. Incorrect Asians are generally uncomfortable discussing personal details about family members.
c. Incorrect Avoidance of eye contact is a sign of respect in the Asian culture.
d. CORRECT Although not all Asian and Asian American clients will prefer a direct, structured approach (rather than an indirect, unstructured approach), this is often the preferred strategy.
2.174 Studies examining the risk factors for recidivism among juvenile offenders has identified which of the following as being the BEST predictor of re-offending?
B. socioeconomic status
C. age at first offense
D. history of maltreatment/abuse
2.174 Risk and protective factors for recidivism among juvenile offenders was investigated by C. Schwalbe et al. [North Carolina Assessment of Risk (NCAR): Reliability and predictive validity with juvenile offenders, Journal of Offender Rehabilitation, 40(1/2), 1-22, 2004.]
a. Incorrect Schwalbe et al. report a correlation of .142 between IQ and re-offense.
b. Incorrect These investigators report a correlation of .065 for SES and re-offense.
c. CORRECT Schwalbe et al. found the strongest correlation (r = -.346) between age at first offense and reoffense (the younger the age the first offense, the higher the risk for recidivism).
d. Incorrect These authors report a correlation of .112 between history of maltreatment and re-offense.
2.175 Sleep disturbances, chronic pain, and cardiovascular dysfunction in the absence of cognitive-affective symptoms are most suggestive of:
A. masked depression
2.175 You may have had to answer this one using the process of elimination.
a. CORRECT Masked depression refers to depression that is manifested primarily as somatic symptoms without obvious cognitive-affective problems.
b. Incorrect Hypochondriasis involves a preoccupation with fears of having a serious disease.
c. Incorrect Malingering is an "intentional production of false or grossly exaggerated physical or psychological symptoms, motivated by external incentives."
d. Incorrect Pseudodementia is a term used to describe depression in the elderly, which may be mistaken for dementia because of the presence of memory loss and other cognitive impairments.
2.176 The parents of a three year old boy ask a psychologist what they can do to reduce their son’s frequent temper tantrums. After learning that the parents pay attention to the boy whenever he has an outburst, the psychologist tells them to consistently ignore the boy each time he has tantrum. The technique the psychologist has suggested is an example of:
B. negative reinforcement
2.176 In the situation described in this question, the child will no longer be reinforced for engaging in temper tantrums; and, as a result, his tantrums will cease.
a. Incorrect Shaping is a type of positive reinforcement in which successive approximations to the desired response are reinforced.
b. Incorrect Negative reinforcement involves removing or withholding a stimulus following a behavior in order to increase the behavior.
c. CORRECT Extinction involves removing reinforcement from a previously reinforced behavior to reduce or eliminate it. Extinction has been found to be an effective method for reducing a child’s temper tantrums.
d. Incorrect Overcorrection is used to eliminate an undesirable behavior and establish more appropriate or desirable ones.
2.177 Dr. Lisa Lopez has been treating Glenn G. for depression for three weeks. During their most recent session, Glenn disclosed that he has also been seeing another therapist for several months. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Lopez should:
A. tell Glenn he cannot continue seeing him in therapy since he is receiving services from another professional.
B. tell Glenn that he will need to decide which therapist he wishes to continue seeing with the next few weeks.
C. discuss this issue with Glenn and consult with the other therapist after getting Glenn’s approval to do so
D. continue therapy with Glenn since he has not expressed a desire to stop.
2.177 Standard 10.04 of the APA's Ethics Code applies to this situation.
c. CORRECT This answer is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 10.04. Dr. Lopez should discuss the issue with Glenn, determine if there is a duplication of services (e.g., Glenn may be seeing a behavioral therapist who is helping him stop smoking), and, if appropriate, consult with the other therapist after obtaining Glenn's permission to do so. Of course, if the two therapists are providing duplicate services, Glenn will have to eventually choose between them, but that is not the best initial action.
2.178 Electroconvulsive shock therapy (ECT):
A. is as or more effective than drug therapy for acute Schizophrenia.
B. has been found to be more effective for treating mania than depression.
C. is considered useful for treating depression that involves suicidal preoccupation
D. is no longer used as a treatment for depression because of its negative effects on memory and executive functioning.
2.178 Although ECT was originally used as a treatment for Schizophrenia, it is now used primarily as a treatment for severely depressed individuals who have not responded to other forms of treatment.
a. Incorrect Because ECT is less effective than pharmacological treatments for Schizophrenia, it is no longer considered a useful treatment for this disorder.
b. Incorrect The research has found ECT to be less effective for mania than for depression.
c. CORRECT Although its effects are still not understood, ECT continues to be used to treat depression, especially severe forms involving suicidal preoccupation and vegetative symptoms. Some studies suggest that ECT is more effective in these cases than are antidepressant drugs.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
2.179 George Kelly is associated with which of the following?
A. Reality Therapy
B. Personal Construct Therapy
C. Existential Therapy
D. Solution Focused Therapy
2.179 George Kelly developed Personal Construct Therapy (PCT) in the 1950s as both a theory of personality and approach to therapy.
b. CORRECT Personal Construct Therapy (also known as "constructive alternativism") is based on the premise that people construe (construct) their own experiences. His approach was very influential in the development of narrative-constructivist approaches to therapy. Additional information about Personal Construct Therapy is provided in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
2.180 The most common cause of Dementia is older adults is:
A. Vascular Dementia
B. Alzheimer's Disease
C. Dementia due to Nutritional Condition
D. Dementia due to Endocrine Disorder
2.180 Dementia has a number of causes. In older adults, Alzheimer's disease is the most frequent cause.
a. Incorrect Although the risk for Vascular Dementia increases with increasing age, this form of dementia is less common than Alzheimer's disease.
b. CORRECT It has been estimated that 40 to 50% of nursing home admissions are due to Alzheimer's disease. In addition, 10% of all older adults in the U. S. and 48% of those over 85 have this disorder.
2.181 On the WAIS-IV, a Full Scale IQ score of 85 is ________ below the mean.
A. one standard deviation
B. one and one-half standard deviation
C. two standard deviations
D. three standard deviations
2.181 This is an easy question as long as you know that the WAIS-IV Full Scale IQ has a mean of 100 and standard deviation of 15.
a. CORRECT A score of 85 is one standard deviation below the mean (100 – 15 = 85).
2.182 Research on prejudice indicates that certain conditions can reduce intergroup hostilities. Which of the following conditions would be MOST effective for reducing racial prejudice displayed by groups of White and African American children?
A. the children are required to cooperate in order to achieve a common goal
B. the children are confronted with a "common enemy"
C. contact between the children occurs daily over an extended period of time
D. the children are provided with norms that prescribe courtesy and friendliness
2.182 Research on intergroup hostility has contributed greatly to the understanding of the variables that contribute to prejudice. One of the most consistent findings is that intergroup hostilities (e.g., prejudice) can be reduced by having groups work on a common goal (Cook, 1978; Sherif, 1966).
a. CORRECT When children are required to cooperate in order to achieve a common ("superordinate") goal, prejudice is likely to decrease.
b. Incorrect Sherif (1966), for example, found that the introduction of a common enemy merely widened the scope of conflict.
c. Incorrect Research has generally not supported the notion that increased contact alone is sufficient to reduce prejudice. In fact, Sherif (1966) found that increased contact under pleasant circumstances only provided more opportunities for the expression of hostility.
d. Incorrect Research has not supported the notion that prejudice can be reduced simply if children are provided with norms that prescribe courtesy and friendliness.
2.183 Which of the following is NOT an example of a standard score?
A. WAIS IQ score
B. percentage score
C. z score
D. T score
2.183 A standard score is a norm-referenced score that indicates an examinee's performance in terms of standard deviation units (e.g., a z score of 1.0 indicates a raw score that is one standard deviation above the mean).
a. Incorrect WAIS IQ scores are standard scores – e.g., a WAIS IQ of 115 indicates a score that is one standard deviation above the mean of the norm group.
b. CORRECT Percentages are not standard scores.
c. Incorrect A z score is a standard score.
d. Incorrect A T score is also a standard score – e.g., a T score of 40 indicates a score that is one standard deviation below the mean.
2.184 Research indicates that the nature of communication networks can affect worker satisfaction, group performance, and leadership effectiveness. For instance, when tasks are complex and unstructured:
A. a centralized communication network is associated with better group performance.
B. a centralized communication network is associated with better group performance only when the group leader is authoritarian.
C. a decentralized communication network is associated with better group performance
D. a decentralized communication network is associated with better group performance only when the group leader is authoritarian.
2.184 Researchers interested in work-related communication distinguish between two types of communication networks – centralized and decentralized. The characteristics and outcomes associated with these networks are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
c. CORRECT The research indicates that decentralized networks, in which no one individual has greater access to information, are best for complex, unstructured tasks that have a number of different solutions. Centralized networks, on the other hand, are better for simple, structured tasks.
2.185 Self-verification theory (Swann, Pelham, and Krull, 1989) predicts that a depressed person will prefer evaluations from others that:
A. are consistently non-evaluative
B. are non-emotion-arousing.
C. confirm his/her own negative self-evaluations
D. contradict his/her own negative self-evaluations.
2.185 Swann et al. (1989) conclude that people prefer feedback that is consistent with their own self-beliefs.
c. CORRECT Research assessing the validity of self-verification theory has, among other things, confirmed that depressed people and people with low self-esteem prefer evaluations that are consistent with their own negative self-evaluations.
2.186 Sherif (1935) used the autokinetic effect to study which of the following phenomena?
C. psychological reactance
D. locus of control
2.186 The apparent movement of a stationary light in a dark room is referred to as the autokinetic effect.
a. CORRECT Sherif (1935) used the autokinetic effect to study conformity. He found that estimates of movement varied widely when a participant made an estimate alone but conformed to the estimates of other people when a participant was asked to provide an estimate after hearing the estimates of others.
2.187 As defined by Piaget, assimilation and accommodation are the two components of:
A. cognitive organization
2.187 Assimilation is the process of interpreting the environment in terms of existing cognitive schemas, while accommodation is the process of altering existing schemas to fit new environmental experiences.
a. Incorrect Although Piaget used the term organization in his description of cognitive development, it refers to the internal rearrangement and integration of schemas.
b. CORRECT Adaptation involves building schemas as the result of direct interactions with the environment. It consists of the two processes known as assimilation and accommodation.
c. Incorrect Decentration is a cognitive operation that contributes to the ability to conserve, which emerges during the concrete operational stage.
d. Incorrect Piaget used the term decalage to refer to developmental phenomena that are uniform for all children.
2.188 Survey feedback is a method of organizational development that is based on the premise that:
A. people are not usually open and honest with each other.
B. work teams are the basic foundation of an organization.
C. organizational output is a function of both production and people.
D. employees need to understand an organization’s strengths and weaknesses
2.188 Organization development encompasses a variety of techniques.
a. Incorrect This sounds more like sensitivity training.
b. Incorrect This is an assumption underlying the technique known as team building.
c. Incorrect This describes an assumption underlying organizational grid training.
d. CORRECT The survey feedback technique involves collecting data about the strengths and weaknesses of an organization from employees at all levels; providing employees with the results of the survey; and helping employees use the data to identify ways to overcome current problems.
2.189 In a normal distribution of scores, what percent of people receive T scores between 30 and 70?
2.189 To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to be familiar with the areas under the normal curve and know that T scores have a mean of 50 and standard deviation of 10.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT T scores of 30 and 70 are two standard deviations below and above the mean and, in a normal distribution, about 95% of scores fall between the scores that are plus and minus two standard deviations from the mean.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
2.190 A researcher would use stepwise multiple regression when she wants to:
A. identify the fewest number of predictors needed to account for criterion variability
B. identify the fewest number of criteria needed to accurately predict performance.
C. statistically remove the effects of one or more moderator variables.
D. identify the optimal number of distinct criterion groups.
2.190 Stepwise multiple regression is a type of multiple regression.
a. CORRECT The results of a stepwise multiple regression analysis indicate the fewest number of predictors needed to obtain maximally accurate predictions. It involves either adding or subtracting one predictor at a time and calculating the multiple correlation coefficient to determine the effects of having more or less predictors.
2.191 A researcher wants to investigate the effects of a brief treatment for a group of 10 therapy clients before and after the treatment is applied. She will measure symptom severity three times at regular intervals before administering the treatment to the clients and then three times at regular intervals after the clients complete the 10 sessions. The researcher is using which of the following research designs?
A. multiple baseline
C. interrupted time-series design
D. nonequivalent control group
2.191 In this situation, the researcher is measuring the effects of the treatment over time for a single-group of participants.
c. CORRECT Cook and Campbell (1979) refer to this type of design as an interrupted time series design. It is a single-group design in which the DV is measured at regular intervals before and after the treatment is applied.
2.192 If an alpha error is equivalent to a false positive, then a beta error is equivalent to a:
A. true positive
B. true negative
C. false positive
D. false negative
2.192 In statistics, alpha is the probability of making a Type I error, which refers to concluding that the null hypothesis is false when it is actually true; while beta is the probability of making a Type II error, which refers to concluding that the null hypothesis is true when it is actually false.
d. CORRECT In decision theory, a false positive occurs when a predictor indicates an effect (e.g., a diagnosis) when, in fact, there is none – e.g., the predictor tells you that you have a disease when you don’t have it. Therefore, a false positive is similar to an alpha (Type I) error in inferential statistics. In contrast, a false negative occurs when a predictor indicates no effect (e.g., an absence of a diagnosis) when, in fact, there is an effect – e.g., the predictor says you do not have a disease when you do have it. Therefore, a false negative is similar to a beta (Type II) error in inferential statistics.
[Note that the experts differ with regard to the analogy between alpha and beta errors and false positives and false negatives. However, since this question explicitly compares an alpha error to a false positive, it is accurate to compare a beta error to a false negative.]
2.193 When using the Cleary (1968) model, test bias is evaluated by:
A. comparing the results of a factor analysis for members of different groups.
B. comparing the test’s regression lines for members of different groups.
C. comparing the test's means for members of different groups.
D. comparing the "base rates" for members of different groups.
2.193 Knowing that T. A. Cleary's model is known as the regression model of test bias would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
b. CORRECT According to the Cleary model, if a test has the same regression line for members of both groups, the test is not biased even it if has different means for the groups. (Test bias: Prediction of grades of Negro and white students in integrated colleges, Journal of Educational Measurement, 5,115-124, 1968.)
2.194 Akathisia is characterized by:
A. spasms and contortions.
B. motor and psychic hypoactivity.
C. unpleasant feelings of physical restlessness
D. rigidity and coarse tremors.
2.194 You're likely to encounter two or three questions on the exam that, like this one, require you to identify the correct description of a condition or disorder.
a. Incorrect This describes dystonia.
b. Incorrect This is akinesia.
c. CORRECT Akathisia is an extrapyramidal side effect of the neuroleptic drugs and a symptom of Parkinson's disease and involves an unpleasant feeling of restlessness and need to move.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
2.195 Patients who have recently started talking naltrexone (ReVia) as a treatment for alcohol dependence are most likely to experience which of the following drug side effects?
A. dizziness, ataxia, visual disturbances, nausea, and rash
B. blurred vision, sexual dysfunction, weight gain, edema, and tremor
C. shortness of breath, increased dreaming, nausea, diarrhea, and bradycardia
D. abdominal cramping, nausea, insomnia, nervousness, and headache
2.195 As a treatment for alcohol dependence, naltrexone exerts its therapeutic effects by blocking the craving for and reinforcing effects of alcohol.
a. Incorrect These side effects are characteristic of carbamazepine, an anti-seizure drug that is also used to treat bipolar disorder.
b. Incorrect These are possible side effects of the MAOI inhibitors.
c. Incorrect These are possible side effects of the beta blocker propranolol.
d. CORRECT These are potential side effects of naltrexone. Note, however, that most people experience few side effects when taking naltrexone as a treatment for alcohol dependence.
2.196 Which of the following is true about the retrograde amnesia caused by moderate to severe head trauma?
A. The most remote memories are most vulnerable to amnesia and are the first to be recovered
B. The most recent memories are most vulnerable to amnesia and are the first to be recovered.
C. The most remote memories are most vulnerable to amnesia but more recent memories are the first to be recovered.
D. The most recent memories are most vulnerable to amnesia but more remote memories are the first to be recovered
2.196 The impact of moderate to severe head trauma on memory was originally described by Theodore Ribot in 1882.
d. CORRECT Head trauma is most likely to affect more recent long-term memories. When memories begin to return, however, those that are most remote are recovered first. For example, if you forget everything that happened to you during the year prior to a head trauma, once you begin to recover your "lost" memories, you will first recall things that occurred 12 months prior to the trauma, than 11 months prior to the trauma, and so on.
2.197 ______ seizures begin in and are often restricted to the temporal lobe and involve impaired consciousness and automatisms such as lip smacking, chewing, fidgeting, and walking in circles.
A. Grand mal
B. Complex partial
2.197 Seizures are categorized as "generalized" or "partial." Generalized seizures are caused by electrical impulses throughout the entire brain, while partial seizures are produced – at least initially – by electrical impulses in a specific area in the brain.
a. Incorrect A grand mal seizure is a type of generalized seizure. It involves unconsciousness, convulsions, and muscle rigidity.
b. CORRECT Complex partial seizures are called "complex" because they impair consciousness and "partial" because they begin in a limited area of the brain, most often the temporal lobe. Because of the involvement of the temporal lobe, these seizures are also known as temporal lobe epilepsy.
c. Incorrect A myoclonic seizure is a type of generalized seizure. Its primary symptoms are brief jerky contractions of muscles in different parts of the body, most often in the arms and legs.
d. Incorrect Absence seizures are a type of generalized seizure and involve a brief loss of consciousness with few or no other symptoms.
2.198 You would be most concerned about a child with ADHD being prescribed methylphenidate if he has a co-diagnosis of:
A. Tourette’s Disorder
B. Conduct Disorder
C. Major Depression
D. Mental Retardation
2.198 Methylphenidate is the primary treatment for ADHD. The studies suggest, however, that it may be contraindicated in some cases.
a. CORRECT The research on this issue is far from consistent, but there is some agreement among experts that caution is necessary when prescribing methylphenidate for children with existing tics or a family history of tics since the drug may elicit or exacerbate the condition.
2.199 Your ability to clearly remember where you were and what you were doing when you first heard about the Oaklahoma City bombing is attributable to the phenomenon known as “flashbulb memory.” In turn, flashbulb memory is attributable to the activities of the:
B. prefrontal cortex
C. limbic system
D. occipital lobe
2.199 Flashbulb memory refers to a vivid recollection of an emotionally-charged event.
c. CORRECT The amygdala, which is part of the limbic system, is believed to add the emotional component to our memories and, therefore, to be active in the formation of flashbulb memories.
2.200 A person with damage to the hippocampus and adjacent areas in the temporal lobes will most likely demonstrate which of the following?
A. inability to form long-term memories about facts and events
B. impairments in working memory
C. inability to acquire a classically-conditioned response
D. loss of memory for remote personal events
2.200 The hippocampus and adjacent areas in the temporal lobe are involved in memory.
a. CORRECT The effects of lesions in these areas of the brain were demonstrated in the case of H.M. who exhibited profound impairments in the ability to consolidate declarative memories (i.e., following ablation of these areas to control H.M.'s epilepsy, he was unable to form new memories of facts and events).
2.201 Which of the following is least likely to be an initial symptom of multiple sclerosis?
A. blurred or double vision
B. fatigue that worsens in the afternoon
C. impaired memory and attention
D. heaviness, weakness, or loss of sensation in the legs
2.201 Multiple sclerosis (MS) is caused by demyelination of nerve fibers in the central nervous system. Although its symptoms vary from individual to individual, the progression of symptoms usually follows a predictable pattern.
a. Incorrect Visual problems are common initial symptoms of MS.
b. Incorrect Fatigue (especially fatigue that worsens in the afternoon) is a common initial symptom of this disorder.
c. CORRECT It is estimated that up to 70% of people with MS develop some type of cognitive dysfunction, and this most often involves impairments in attention, recent memory, and information processing speed. While some of these individuals experience cognitive problems in the early stages of the disorder, the majority do not do so until they have had the disease for an extended period. Therefore, of the answers given, this one is the best response.
d. Incorrect Sensory and motor problems are initial signs of MS and most often affect the legs.
2.202 Which of the following is LEAST characteristic of infants who were exposed to cocaine in utero?
A. They are abnormally insensitive to tactile, visual, and auditory stimulation.
B. They are excessively irritable and unresponsive to attempts to comfort.
C. They often have increased motor tone.
D. They often have a low birthweight and small head circumference.
2.202 Prenatal cocaine exposure is associated with both physical and behavioral problems in childhood.
a. CORRECT This is the opposite of what is true. Early exposure to cocaine is associated with oversensitivity to environmental stimuli, even stimuli of low intensity.
b. Incorrect This is one of the reasons why these children often exhibit disturbances in attachment.
c. Incorrect Cocaine-exposed children often have an unusual pattern of motor development as the result of excessive muscle tone.
d. Incorrect This is true about these children.
2.203 Research evaluating the impact of child sexual abuse on the adjustment of males and females has:
A. consistently found that negative outcomes are essentially the same for males and females in terms of both nature and severity.
B. consistently found that negative outcomes are worse for males than for females in terms of both nature and severity.
C. consistently found that negative outcomes are worse for females than for males in terms of both nature and severity.
D. produced inconsistent results, with some studies showing that females have more negative outcomes and other findings that the outcomes are similar for males and females
2.203 Like much research in psychology, studies on the outcomes of child sexual abuse have not produced consistent results.
d. CORRECT Currently, there is no clear consensus about the outcomes of child sexual abuse for male and female victims. A number of studies have found no consistent gender differences; but, when differences are found, the outcomes are worse for females than for males.
2.204 Research on Kohlberg’s theory of moral development has found that very few people ever reach Stage 6. However, some do engage in Stage 5 reasoning and base their moral judgments on:
A. social contracts.
B. self-chosen universally-applicable standards.
C. rules and laws
D. the motivation underlying an act.
2.204 Kohlberg's theory distinguishes between three levels of moral development (preconventional, conventional, and postconventional) that each consist of two stages. See the Lifespan Development chapter for additional information about Kohberg's theory.
a. CORRECT Stage 5 is the first stage in the postconventional level. People in this stage consider social contracts and democratically-chosen laws when making moral judgments.
b. Incorrect Internalized universal moral principles underlie the judgments made by people in Stage 6.
c. Incorrect People in Stage 4 base their moral judgments on existing rules and laws..
d. Incorrect An actor's intentions are of concern to people in Piaget's autonomous stage of moral development.
2.205 Rutter (1985) studied the risk and protective factors that are associated with child psychopathology. His research found that which of the following places a child at greatest risk for behavioral problems?
A. chronic health problems during infancy and abusive father
B. early enrollment in daycare and paternal alcoholism
C. paternal psychopathology and emphasis on traditional gender roles
D. severe marital conflict and maternal psychopathology
2.205 Rutter identified six factors that are most predictive of child psychopathology.
d. CORRECT The six risk factors identified by Rutter are severe marital discord, low SES, large family size or overcrowdedness, parental criminality, maternal psychopathology, and placement of a child outside the home.
2.206 A “scallop” in the cumulative recording is characteristic of which schedule of reinforcement?
A. fixed interval
B. fixed ratio
C. variable interval
D. variable ratio
2.206 Each intermittent schedule of reinforcement is associated with a different pattern of responding.
a. CORRECT On a fixed interval (FI) schedule, the subject stops responding once the reinforcement is delivered and then begins responding again toward the end of the interval. This produces a "scallop" in the cumulative recording.
2.207 Identifying alternative behaviors to replace targeted undesirable behaviors is an integral part of which of the following behavioral techniques?
A. response cost
B. implosive therapy
C. contingency management
D. negative practice
2.207 While some behavioral techniques are designed specifically to either decrease or increase a behavior, others attempt to accomplish both goals.
a. Incorrect Response cost is used to decrease an undesirable behavior.
b. Incorrect Implosive therapy is used to extinguish a conditioned response and does not attempt to deliberately substitute an alternative response (although this may, of course, occur).
c. CORRECT "Contingency" refers to the consequence of a behavior, and contingency management involves identifying and applying punishments for undesirable behaviors and identifying and applying reinforcements for desirable ones.
d. Incorrect When using negative practice, the person is required to deliberately repeat the undesirable behavior. It has been found to be an effective treatment for tics.
2.208 A psychologist who views learning as the result of operant conditioning would likely attribute the acquisition of complex behaviors to which of the following?
C. higher-order conditioning
D. stimulus generalization
2.208 From the perspective of operant conditioning, new behaviors are acquired as the result of reinforcement.
a. CORRECT With chaining, each response in the chain of responses required to learn and perform a complex behavior serves as a reinforcement for the previous response in the chain.
b. Incorrect A behavior is said to be under "stimulus control" when it is elicited by the presence of some stimuli but not others.
c. Incorrect Higher-order conditioning is a form of classical conditioning involving the pairing of a second neutral stimulus with a conditioned stimulus so that the second neutral stimulus also elicits the conditioned response.
d. Incorrect Stimulus generalization is occurring when stimuli similar to the conditioned stimulus also elicit the conditioned response. It can explain how behaviors can occur in situations outside the context in which they were originally learned.
2.209 The research has confirmed that working memory is negatively affected by increasing age. According to Baddeley (1986), this decline is due primarily to:
A. reduced efficiency of sensory register.
B. reduced capacity of short-term memory.
C. the susceptibility of older adults to proactive and retroactive interference.
D. the negative impact of aging on the central executive
2.209 Baddeley (1986) proposed that working memory consists of three components: a visuospatial sketchpad that maintains visual images, an auditory/phonological loop that maintains auditory/verbal information, and a central executive that directs attention and controls and coordinates the visuospatial and auditory/phonological subsystems. Being familiar with these three components would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
d. CORRECT Research by Baddeley and others has confirmed that tasks that depend on the central executive – i.e., tasks requiring the reorganization of information or the coordination of information in sensory and auditory channels – are the ones that are most adversely affected by increasing age. Additional information on Baddeley's model is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
2.210 Biologically-based phobias are to socially-based phobias as:
A. secondary reinforcers are to primary reinforcers.
B. response generalization is to stimulus generalization.
C. stimulus discrimination is to stimulus generalization.
D. unconditioned stimuli are to conditioned stimuli
2.210 Biologically-based phobias are generally viewed as unconditioned responses, while socially-based phobias are considered to be conditioned (learned) responses.
d. CORRECT Of the responses given, this one is best because it parallels the nature of the relationship between biologically- and socially-based phobias.
2.211 According to Holland’s RIASEC model, the social personality type is most dissimilar to which of the following types?
2.211 Holland’s RIASEC model distinguishes between six vocational personality types, and his hexagon depicts the relationship between the six types: Types that are located next to each other in the hexagon are most similar in terms of characteristics, while those opposite one another are most dissimilar.
a. Incorrect The conventional type is closer (and more similar) to the social type than is the realistic type.
b. Incorrect Reflective is not one of the vocational personality types identified by Holland.
c. CORRECT The relationship between the six types (and their position in the hexagon) is indicated by the acronym RIASEC – realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional. The social type is opposite the realistic type in the hexagon, which indicates that it is most dissimilar to that type.
d. Incorrect The enterprising type is adjacent to the social type in the hexagon, which indicates that the two types share some characteristics.
2.212 It is found that a selection test is a better predictor of job success for applicants from higher socioeconomic levels than for applicants from lower socioeconomic levels. In this situation, socioeconomic level is best described as a(n):
A. suppressor variable.
B. dependent variable.
C. moderator variable
D. organismic variable.
2.212 Any predictor that is more valid for one class or subset of examinees than it is for another is said to have differential validity.
a. Incorrect A suppressor variable is irrelevant to the criterion, but affects criterion scores and thus acts as a source of error and suppresses (reduces) the correlation between the predictor and the criterion.
b. Incorrect In a research study, the dependent variable is measured to see if it is affected by the independent variable. For example, in a study assessing the effects of marijuana on task performance, marijuana is the independent variable and task performance is the dependent variable.
c. CORRECT A moderator variable is a variable that "moderates" the validity of a test i.e., a variable that make a test a better (or worse) predictor for a particular class or subset of examinees. Socioeconomic status is, therefore, a moderator variable in this situation.
d. Incorrect An organismic variable (as opposed to a manipulated variable) is one that can be measured but cannot be manipulated or controlled by the researcher. For example, in a study assessing the relationship between gender and beer consumption, both variables are organismic since the researcher cannot control either the gender or the beer consumption of the subjects.
2.213 Goal-setting theory, equity theory, and expectancy theory share in common which of the following?
A. a focus on peer (co-worker) influences on job performance
B. the premise that behavior is motivated by its consequences
C. the belief that feedback is a necessary condition of effort
D. the assumption that human cognition affects behavior
2.213 The three theories are cognitive theories that view motivation and performance as directly linked to cognitive events.
d. CORRECT The cognitive event in goal-setting theory is the conscious acceptance of the goals; in equity theory it is self-other comparisons; and in expectancy theory it is beliefs related to effort/performance and performance/outcomes.
2.214 A Mexican-American client tells his psychologist that he wants to consult a curandero about the problems he is having. To be consistent with the requirements of the APA’s Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services to Ethnic, Linguistic, and Culturally Diverse Populations, the psychologist should:
A. explain any concerns she has about the incompatibility of her approach with the approach of a traditional folk healer.
B. find out as much about curanderos as possible and incorporate what she learns into her treatment of the client.
C. refer the client to a therapist who is more familiar with traditional Mexican culture.
D. support the client in his desire to work with a curandero and express her willingness to collaborate
2.214 This issue is addressed in Paragraph 5 of the Guidelines.
d. CORRECT Paragraph 5(b) states that "effective psychological intervention may be aided by consultation with and/or inclusion of religious/spiritual leaders/practitioners relevant to the client's cultural and belief systems." This response is most consistent with this provision.
2.215 With regard to the termination of professional services, the Ethics Code requires psychologists to:
A. offer to help the client locate alternative services.
B. take actions that protect the best interests of the client.
C. provide pretermination counseling and suggest alternative services
D. take action that is consistent with the reason(s) for the termination.
2.215 Standard 10.10(c) of the Ethics Code applies in this situation. It advises that certain steps be taken, regardless of the reason for the termination.
c. CORRECT None of the responses given is wrong but this one comes closest to the actual language of the Ethics Code and, therefore, is the best answer.
2.216 A psychologist should be aware that client records:
A. are protected by law and can never be disclosed without the client’s consent.
B. are the property of the psychologist and cannot be disclosed without his/her consent.
C. are the joint property of the psychologist and client and cannot be disclosed without the consent of both.
D. are not always free from disclosure, regardless of the wishes of the client or the psychologist
2.216 The physical record is ordinarily the property of the psychologist (or organization where the psychologist works), while the information contained in the record is the property of the client.
d. CORRECT There are situations that require a psychologist to disclose certain information contained in a client’s record (e.g., in cases of known or suspected child abuse), even without the client’s consent. Therefore, this answer is most consistent with ethical guidelines and legal requirements.
2.217 A school psychologist is contacted by the father of one of the school’s students. He informs the psychologist that the family is moving to another state and requests that she provide him with a copy of his child’s records. The psychologist should:
A. provide a copy of the records to the father as requested because he has a legal right to them.
B. provide a copy of the records to the father in a sealed envelope that is marked "confidential" and instruct him to give it to the school psychologist at the new school.
C. request the name and address of the new school and forward the records to the should psychologist once the family has moved
D. refuse to release a copy of the records because they are the property of the school.
2.217 Although parents do have a legal right to examine school records, this does not mean they should necessarily be given a copy of them.
c. CORRECT The action described in this answer is most consistent with Paragraph 2.3.7 of the APA's General Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services, requirements related to confidentiality provided in the Ethics Code, and the provisions of the Family Education Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA).
2.218 An advocate of client-centered therapy would most likely view diagnosis as:
A. the starting point of therapy.
B. an ongoing process.
C. a joint task of the therapist and client
D. unnecessary and possibly detrimental
2.218 Rogerian therapists tend to de-emphasize both diagnosis and assessment.
d. CORRECT Rogerian therapists usually reject diagnosis on the ground that it places the therapist in a superior, authoritarian role that can impede the development of autonomy and self-actualization in the client.
2.219 Research on the use of hypnosis to recover repressed memories suggests that:
A. memories recalled under hypnosis are both more accurate and more detailed than other memories.
B. memories recalled under hypnosis are about as reliable as other memories.
C. memories recalled under hypnosis are less reliable than other memories and may be more susceptible to distortion
D. memories recalled under hypnosis are almost always confabulated.
2.219 It has been difficult to check the accuracy of "repressed memories" that have been retrieved under hypnosis, and there is not a great deal of empirical research on this topic. However, the research on memory suggests that memories are often constructed (or reconstructed) to some degree rather than simply recalled and that hypnosis can exacerbate this process.
c. CORRECT This is the best conclusion that can be drawn about repressed memories retrieved under hypnosis. While some memories may be accurate, care must be taken in accepting memories retrieved under hypnosis since hypnosis seems to make people particularly susceptible to suggestion and to believing that false memories are, in fact, true.
2.220 From the perspective of traditional psychoanalysis, transference is:
A. an impediment to therapy progress.
B. a form of resistance
C. a form of catharsis.
D. an ego defense mechanism.
2.220 Transference is considered a key component of psychoanalysis, and the interpretation of a client's transference helps guide him/her toward insight.
b. CORRECT From the perspective of psychoanalysis, at the core of transference is resistance, or an unwillingness to relinquish one's fantasy that one's infantile wishes will be gratified.
2.221 The risk for Schizophrenia is higher for twins than for non-twin biological siblings. Moreover, if one twin is diagnosed with this disorder, the risk of the same diagnosis for a monozygotic (identical) twin is about _______ times the risk for a dizygotic (fraternal) twin.
2.221 As noted in the Abnormal Psychology chapter of the written study materials, the risk for a twin when his/her twin has been diagnosed with Schizophrenia is about 48% for monozygotic twins and 17% for dizygotic twins (I. Gottesman, Schizophrenia genesis,New York, W. H. Freeman, 1991).
b. CORRECT Forty-eight is closest to 2-1/2 times 17, so this is the best answer of those given.
2.222 As defined in the DSM-IV-TR, “tolerance” is characterized by:
A. the need to increase the amount of the drug to achieve desired effects or the development of withdrawal symptoms when the amount of the drug is not increased
B. the need to increase the amount of the drug to achieve desired effects accompanied by a persistent craving for the drug.
C. the need to increase the amount of drug to achieve desired effects or a markedly diminished effect of the drug with continued use of the same amount
D. the need to increase the amount of the drug to avoid withdrawal symptoms accompanied by a persistent craving for the drug.
2.222 Tolerance is one of the symptoms of Substance Dependence.
c. CORRECT This response accurately describes the DSM-IV-TR’s definition of tolerance.
2.223 Which one of the following is true regarding treatment for premature ejaculation?
A. Premature ejaculation is one of the more difficult sexual dysfunctions to treat.
B. Treatment usually involves temporary abstinence from sexual contact.
C. Treatment will involve helping the client maintain an erection for at least four minutes.
D. Treatment will probably include the use of the “stop start” or “squeeze” technique
2.223 Treatment for premature ejaculation usually involves either the stop-start or squeeze technique.
a. Incorrect Premature ejaculation is actually one of the easiest sexual dysfunctions to treat.
b. Incorrect This would more likely be part of the treatment for secondary impotence.
c. Incorrect The diagnosis of premature ejaculation is not based on the amount of time a man can sustain an erection, and maintaining an erection for a particular length of time would probably not be a goal in the treatment of this disorder.
d. CORRECT The start-stop and squeeze techniques are used to help the male gain control over ejaculation and thereby alleviate premature ejaculation.
2.224 Which of the following is true about hallucinations?
A. The sensory experience may or may not be perceived as real by the individual.
B. The sensory experience is always perceived as real by the individual.
C. The sensory experience is not perceived as real by the individual.
D. The sensory experience may or may not be related to an actual external stimulus.
2.224 DSM-IV-TR describes an hallucination as a "sensory perception that has the compelling sense of reality of a true perception but that occurs without external stimulation of the relevant sensory organ" (p. 823).
a. CORRECT The DSM notes that a person experiencing an hallucination may or may not be aware that the perceived stimulus is not real.
2.225 In terms of neurotransmitters, Bulimia Nervosa has been linked to:
A. lower-than-normal levels of serotonin and norepinephrine
B. a lower-than normal level of serotonin and a higher-than-normal level of norepinephrine.
C. a lower-than-normal level of norepinephrine and a higher-than normal level of serotonin.
D. higher-than-normal levels of serotonin and norepinephrine.
2.225 The role of neurotransmitter abnormalities in the Eating Disorders is complex and, for the exam, you want to be familiar with the information presented in the Abnormal Psychology chapter on the impact of serotonin on the etiology of both Anorexia and Bulimia.
a. CORRECT Bulimia has been linked to low levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine; and several recent studies have confirmed that serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (e.g., duloxetine) are useful for eliminating the binging and purging behaviors associated with this disorder.
3.1 In contrast to conventional antipsychotic drugs, the atypical drug, clozapine:
A. is more likely to alleviate symptoms of depression and hostility
B. is more likely to produce irreversible tardive dyskinesia.
C. increases both dopamine and serotonin activity.
D. is less likely to cause agranulocytosis.
3.1 Clozapine is classified as an atypical neuroleptic because it affects different receptors than traditional drugs, has somewhat different effects on symptoms, and causes different side effects.
a. CORRECT This is considered an advantage of clozapine over traditional neuroleptic drugs.
b. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true.
c. Incorrect Clozapine apparently blocks serotonin and certain dopamine receptors, thereby reducing the activity of these two neurotransmitters.
d. Incorrect A disadvantage of clozapine is that it may cause agranulocytosis.
3.2 Criterion _______ refers to the degree to which a supervisor’s evaluation of an employee’s job performance is biased by the supervisor’s knowledge of the employee’s score on the selection test used to hire the employee.
3.2 In this situation, the supervisor’s knowledge of the employee’s selection test score is “contaminating” his/her rating of the employee on a criterion (job performance) measure.
a. Incorrect Criterion deficiency refers to the degree to which a criterion measure does not measure all aspects of the “ultimate” criterion. The information provided in the question does not indicate that the measure of job performance is deficient in terms of being a thorough measure of performance. It only indicates that the measure is susceptible to criterion contamination.
b. CORRECT The situation described in this question illustrates criterion contamination.
c. Incorrect Criterion relevance refers to the extent to which a criterion measure evaluates the “ultimate” criterion.
d. Incorrect Criterion partiality is a “made up” term.
3.3 Which of the following Paraphillias is characterized by intense sexually arousing fantasies, sexual urges, or behaviors that involve touching or rubbing against a nonconsenting person?
3.3 The Paraphilias involve intense sexually arousing fantasies, sexual urges, or behaviors related to unusual objects, activities, or situations.
a. Incorrect Scoptophilia is not included in the DSM but refers to obtaining sexual pleasure by watching others having sex.
b. Incorrect Sitophilia is also not included in the DSM but refers to becoming sexually aroused by food.
c. Incorrect Fetishism is characterized by intense sexually arousing fantasies, sexual urges, or behaviors involving the use of nonliving objects (e.g., shoes, gloves)
d. CORRECT The information in the question accurately describes frotteurism.
3.4 Theories of career choices and development can be categorized in terms of four basic types. The theories of Tiedeman and O’Hara (1963) and Tiedman and Miller-Tiedeman (1984) are examples of the ________ approach.
3.4 S. H. Osipow distinguishes between the four types of theories listed in the responses to this questions (Convergence in theories of career choice and development, Journal of Vocational Behavior, 36, 122-131, 1990).
a. CORRECT The vocational identity theory proposed by Tiedeman and colleagues is classified as a developmental approach. (Super's theory also represents this approach.)
b. Incorrect Parson's (1939) and Holland's (1988) theories are trait-oriented approaches.
c. Incorrect Krumboltz's (1979) social learning theory is classified by Osipow as a reinforcement-based approach.
d. Incorrect Roe's (1984) theory emphasizes the role of personality.
3.5 Manuel is a 21 year old college student who moved to the United Stats from Mexico with his family when he was four years old. Manuel has many Anglo friends at school and usually dates Anglo women, but at home, he speaks Spanish and participates in the cultural traditions practiced by his family. When asked about his ethnic identity, Manuel says, ‘I’m American and Hispanic, but I guess I consider myself mostly Hispanic.” Manuel is best described as:
3.5 Different experts have labeled the different levels or categories of acculturation somewhat differently, but most distinguish between at least four levels – assimilated, integrated (bicultural), separated, and marginal.
a. Incorrect The term "fused" refers to the melting pot position in which the two separate cultures cannot be distinguished.
b. Incorrect Separation occurs when the individual is immersed in his/her own ethnic culture and is not part of the larger (dominant) culture.
c. Incorrect An assimilated individual has given up his/her own ethnic culture and identifies with the larger (dominant) culture.
d. CORRECT The bicultural individual has adopted both cultures. Biculturalism can be alternating (as in Manuel's case) or blended.
3.6 Tactile sensation and visuospatial functions are mediated primarily by the:
A. frontal lobe
B. occipital lobe
C. parietal lobe
D. temporal lobe
3.6 For the licensing exam, you want to be familiar with the primary functions of each lobe of the cerebral cortex. These are described in the Physiological Psychology and Pharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect The frontal lobe mediates motor functions, language production, personality, and executive cognitive functions.
b. Incorrect The occipital lobe is responsible for vision and visual perception.
c. CORRECT The parietal lobe receives tactile input and mediates visuospatial functions, reading, and calculation.
d. Incorrect The temporal lobe is responsible for audition, language comprehension, and memory.
3.7 An organization psychologist with a Ph.D. wants to become a clinical psychologist. According to the APA guidelines, he must:
A. complete appropriate coursework.
B. complete appropriate coursework and clinical supervision
C. obtain supervision from a licensed psychologist.
D. obtain a Ph.D. or Psy.D. in clinical psychology from an accredited school.
3.7 This issue is addressed in Section 1.7 of the APA's General Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services.
b. CORRECT Section 1.7 states that "psychologists who change or add a specialty meet the same requirements with respect to subject matter and professional skills that apply to doctoral education, training, and experience in the new specialty." In other words, the psychologist would have to complete relevant courses and requirements for supervised practice.
3.8 Adding a constant to every score in a distribution of scores will:
A. increase the distribution’s mean
B. increase the distribution's standard deviation.
C. increase the distribution's mean and standard deviation.
D. not increase the distribution's mean or standard deviation.
3.8 As noted in the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials, adding or subtracting a constant to each score changes the mean and multiplying or dividing by a constant changes both the mean and the standard deviation.
a. CORRECT Adding a constant only affects the mean and other measures of central tendency. It does not affect the variability (spread) of scores in the distribution.
3.9 During the course of a mental status exam, a 36 year old man takes a great deal of time to answer the examiner’s questions because he often focuses on unnecessary details and makes parenthetical remarks. When he is not interrupted, the man usually does not get around to answering the examiner’s question. The man’s speech illustrates which of the following?
B. loosening of associations
3.9 The important thing to note in the description of the man’s speech is that he does eventually get back to the point.
a. CORRECT Circumstantiality refers to speech that is indirect and delayed in reaching the point because of unnecessary, tedious details and parenthetical remarks.
b. Incorrect Loosening of associations involves a complete lack of connectedness between utterances and the loss of the original point.
c. Incorrect Confabulation involves a fabrication of facts or events to compensate for memory loss.
d. Incorrect Derailment is another term for loosening of associations.
3.10 The three components of a needs assessment are:
A. microsystem, macrosystem, and exosystem.
B. unfreezing, changing, refreezing.
C. worker satisfaction, worker performance, and organizational effectiveness.
D. organization analysis, task analysis, and person analysis
3.10 A needs assessment is conducted in organizations to determine training needs.
a. Incorrect These are systems in Bronfenbrenner’s ecological model.
b. Incorrect These are the stages in Lewin’s model of planned change.
c. Incorrect These are not the components of a needs assessment.
d. CORRECT The systems approach to needs assessment involves three types of analysis – organization, task/job, and person.
3.11 Members of an outpatient therapy group are likely to rank which of the Yalom’s therapeutic factors as most important?
A. interpersonal input, catharsis, cohesiveness, and self-understanding
B. self-understanding, universality, identification, and instillation of hope
C. family re-enactment, catharsis, altruism, and interpersonal input
D. interpersonal input, interpersonal output, universality, and identification
3.11 In his book, The Theory and Practice of Group Therapy, Yalom (1970) distinguishes between 12 therapeutic (curative) factors and discusses the results of research examining the importance of these factors for group therapists and for group therapy members.
a. CORRECT Although the results vary somewhat from study to study, these four factors are usually the most highly rated ones by group therapy members.
b. Incorrect Identification is usually among the factors that are rated least important.
c. Incorrect Family re-enactment is also rated as less important by group members.
d. Incorrect As noted above, identification is not rated as being particularly important by group members.
3.12 The use of a screening test to identify high-risk individuals in order to determine who is likely to benefit from intervention is an example of ___________ prevention?
3.12 For the exam, you want to be able to distinguish between primary, secondary, and tertiary preventions so that you can answer questions like this one. Additional information about these approaches is provided in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect As defined by most experts, primary preventions are offered to groups of individuals rather than to specific individuals who have been identified as being at high-risk for a disorder.
b. CORRECT Secondary preventions are offered to specific individuals who have been identified as being at high risk by some type of screening procedure.
c. Incorrect Tertiary preventions are for people who have already developed a disorder and are aimed at reducing relapse and other negative consequences.
d. Incorrect This is not a type of prevention.
3.13 Research investigating the relationship between unemployment and mental health has generally found that:
A. the rates of depression and other neurotic disorders are substantially higher among the unemployed than the employed
B. the rates of depression and other neurotic disorders are about the same among the unemployed and the employed.
C. mental health problems are likely to occur only when symptoms were evident prior to unemployment.
D. paradoxically, about 20 to 25% of unemployed individuals report an improvement in mental health after job loss.
3.13 Most of the research has reported a relationship between job loss and mental and physical health problems.
a. CORRECT Several studies have found rates of depression and other neurotic disorders to be about twice as high among the unemployed.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect This is not always true and, therefore, not the best response.
d. Incorrect A small percentage of people report an improvement in mental health following job loss (less than 10%) and it is often only transitory.
3.14 The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) has been implicated in the control of circadian rhythms. The SCN is located in the:
D. caudate nucleus
3.14 Mention of the SCN may have "thrown" you, but what you need to know to answer this question is which region of the brain controls circadian rhythms.
b. CORRECT A good rule of thumb is, "when in doubt, go with the hypothalamus." Although very small in size, the hypothalamus is involved in a variety of important functions including control of circadian rhythms.
3.15 The beneficial effects of a phenothiazine would most likely be apparent first for which of the following symptoms?
B. social withdrawal
D. thought disorder
3.15 To answer this question, you need to know that phenothiazines are "typical" antipsychotic drugs, which are better at alleviating the positive (versus the negative) symptoms of Schizophrenia.
a. CORRECT The positive symptoms include delusions, hallucinations, and agitation.
b. Incorrect Social withdrawal is a negative symptom.
c. Incorrect Anergia is a negative symptom and refers to reduced activity.
d. Incorrect Since the term thought disorder includes both positive and negative symptoms, this is not the best response.
3.16 A social psychologist tells his male and female subjects the following story about Jack and Jane: On Saturday, Jack fixes his car’s transmission and Jane sews. Both complete their tasks successfully. On Sunday, Jack decorates his apartment and Jane cuts down a tree in her front yard. Again, both complete their tasks successfully. Which of the following statements best describes the likely results of this research?
A. Males and females will attribute Jack's success in fixing the transmission and Jane's success in sewing to ability, but will attribute Jack's success in decorating and Jane's success in cutting down a tree to luck.
B. Males will attribute Jack's success on both tasks and Jane's success in sewing to ability, but females will attribute Jack's success in fixing the transmission and Jane's success in sewing to ability and Jack's success in decorating and Jane's success in cutting down a tree to luck.
C. Males and females will both attribute Jack's success in both tasks to ability and Jane's success in both tasks to luck.
D. Males and females will both attribute Jack’s success in both tasks and Jane’s success in sewing to ability, but will attribute Jane’s success in cutting down a tree to luck.
3.16 Deaux and Emswiller (1974) found that attributions related to achievement vary, depending on the sex of the achiever. Specifically, they found that (1) both males and females viewed ability as the cause of success for males on traditionally masculine tasks, (2) both males and females viewed luck as the cause of success for females on traditionally masculine tasks, (3) both males and females viewed ability as the cause of success for males and females on traditionally feminine tasks.
d. CORRECT This response is in line with the research mentioned above. Jack's success in both fixing a transmission (a traditionally masculine task) and decorating (a traditionally feminine task) will be attributed to ability; Jane's success in sewing (a traditionally feminine task) will be attributed to ability, but her success in cutting down a tree (a traditionally masculine task) will be attributed to luck.
3.17 Research by Howard and his colleagues (1986) found that about ______% of therapy clients show “marked improvement” by the 26th therapy session.
3.17 Howard et al. (1986) found that the positive relationship between therapy duration and therapy outcome “levels off” at about the 26th therapy session.
c. CORRECT These investigators report that about 75% of therapy clients show “measurable improvement” by 26 sessions; and, at 52 sessions, this number increases to only about 85%.
3.18 Dr. E. Dict has been seeing Jay Bird, a prisoner at the local jail, in therapy for the past five months. The parole board contacts Dr. Dict to request that he evaluate Bird for an upcoming parole hearing. Dr. Dict should:
A. agree to evaluate Bird since he is best qualified to evaluate him fairly.
B. agree to evaluate Bird only if Bird agrees to the arrangement.
C. agree to evaluate Bird only if he feels that Bird is eligible for parole.
D. refuse to evaluate Bird for the parole hearing
3.18 The APA's guidelines require psychologists to avoid dual (multiple) relationships.
d. CORRECT This type of situation is addressed in the Guidelines for Forensic Psychologists and the Ethics Code, which require psychologists to avoid dual relationships whenever objectivity, exploitation, and other issues related to effectiveness are of concern, which would be the case in this situation. The two roles -- therapist and forensic evaluator -- clearly conflict and should be avoided.
3.19 If an unconditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented just prior to a conditioned stimulus in order to replace an undesirable response with a more desirable one, which of the following will most likely occur?
A. The target response will eventually be eliminated.
B. The target response will be suppressed (but not eliminated).
C. The target response will paradoxically increase.
D. The target behavior will not change in frequency.
3.19 A careful reading of this question reveals that it is describing "backwards conditioning."
d. CORRECT Backwards conditioning rarely works: For classical conditioning to be effective, the conditioned stimulus must be presented before the unconditioned stimulus.
3.20 Research has confirmed that, when making attributions about our own behavior, we ordinarily attribute behaviors that have positive outcomes to dispositional factors but behaviors that have negative outcomes to situational factors. This tendency is referred to as the:
A. self-verification effect.
B. self-serving bias
C. confirmation bias.
D. self-fulfilling prophecy.
3.20 For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the phenomena listed in the answers to this question. Additional information on them is provided in the Social Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect According to self-verification theory, people are motivated to maintain a stable self-concept and do so by seeking information that confirms the self-concept, even when that information is negative.
b. CORRECT As its name implies, the self-serving bias is the tendency to take responsibility for our actions when the actions have positive outcomes (i.e., to make dispositional attributions) but to blame external events for our actions when they have negative outcomes (i.e., to make situational attributions).
c. Incorrect The confirmation bias is the tendency to pay attention only to information that confirms our current beliefs.
d. Incorrect The self-fulfilling prophecy effect occurs when expectations about our own behavior or the behavior of others increases the likelihood that the behavior will actually occur.
3.21 Which of the following is true about people who have received a diagnosis of Mild Mental Retardation?
A. With adequate training and education, they can attain academic achievement up to approximately a 2nd grade level.
B. They develop communication skills during the preschool years and have only minimal deficits in sensorimotor functioning.
C. Even with adequate training and education, they will need to live in a structured environment
D. They can be expected to attend to their own self-care needs as long as they are consistently supervised.
3.21 For the exam, you want to be familiar with the characteristics of the four levels of Mental Retardation.
a. Incorrect This is a better description of Moderate Mental Retardation.
b. CORRECT This is an accurate description of individuals with Mild Mental Retardation whose IQs are between approximately 50 and 70.
c. Incorrect This is true about people with Profound Mental Retardation.
d. Incorrect This is more characteristic of people who have received a diagnosis of Moderate or Severe Mental Retardation.
3.22 Which of the following performance appraisal techniques would be most useful when a primarily goal of appraisal is to provide employees with specific feedback that will help them improve their job performance?
3.22 The performance appraisal techniques used in organizations differ not only in terms of the ways in which they are developed and executed but also in the amount and type of feedback they provide to employees.
a. Incorrect The forced-choice technique requires the rater to pick the statements from several statements that are most and least descriptive of the employee. Although this technique helps reduce certain rater biases, it is less useful than BARS for providing employees with feedback about their job performance.
b. Incorrect The forced-distribution technique requires the rater to assign a certain percentage of employees to one of several predetermined categories (e.g., highest 10%, next highest 20%, middle 40%, and so on). It does not generate the kind of information that is useful for feedback purposes.
c. CORRECT BARS (behaviorally-anchored rating scale) is a graphic rating scale in which an employee's performance on several dimensions is rated in terms of specific behaviors. This format facilitates providing the employee with feedback about acceptable and unacceptable work-related behaviors.
d. Incorrect A BIB (biographical information blank) is not a performance appraisal technique but, instead, a method for collecting biographical data from job applicants.
3.23 When assessing the reliability and validity of a job selection test, your sample includes current employees who are all doing fairly well on the job. The nature of your sample will most likely have which of the following effects?
A. It will inflate the reliability and validity coefficients.
B. It will deflate the reliability and validity coefficients
C. It will inflate the reliability coefficient but deflate the validity coefficient.
D. It will deflate the reliability coefficient but inflate the validity coefficient.
3.23 As discussed in the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials, restriction in the range of scores has the effect of lowering a correlation coefficient.
b. CORRECT Since the reliability and validity coefficients are correlation coefficients, their magnitude will be adversely affected (i.e., will be lowered) by a restriction in range of scores.
3.24 Colder, Lochman, and Wells (1997) investigated the relationship between child temperament, parenting style, and child aggression and found that:
A. temperamentally fearful boys whose parents used withdrawal of love and affection as a means of discipline were most aggressive at school.
B. temperamentally fearful boys whose parents used hard discipline were most aggressive at school
C. temperamentally fearful boys whose parents were extremely overinvolved were most aggressive at school.
D. temperamentally fearful and nonfearful boys whose parents were rejecting were most aggressive at school.
3.24 This is a difficult question because it requires you to be familiar with a specific research study. However, even if you're not familiar with the Colder et al. study, you may have been able to identify the correct answer since it makes sense that parents who provide harsh discipline are modeling harsh (aggressive) behaviors that their children are likely to imitate. If you encounter a question on unfamiliar research on the exam, keep in mind that most psychological research produces results that are consistent with "common sense."
b. CORRECT C. Colder, J. E. Lochman, and K. C. Wells found that two groups of boys were at greater risk for aggressive behavior – those who were fearful and had parents who provided high levels of harsh discipline and those who were highly active and had parents who provided low levels of monitoring (The moderating effects of children's fear and activity level on relations between parenting practices and childhood symptomatology, Journal of Abnormal Child Psychology, 25, 251-263, 1997).
A. signals the end of a sleep attack.
B. involves maintaining the same body position over an extended period of time.
C. is accompanied by a simultaneous loss of consciousness.
D. is usually triggered by strong emotion
3.25 Cataplexy is a symptom of Narcolepsy.
a. Incorrect Cataplexy occurs alone or at the onset of a sleep attack.
b. Incorrect This answer describes catalepsy (waxy flexibility), not cataplexy.
c. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true. Full consciousness is preserved during an episode of cataplexy.
d. CORRECT In most cases, an episode of cataplexy is triggered by anger, surprise, laughter, or other strong emotion.
3.26 People recalling childhood memories of a trauma for the first time while under hypnosis will usually:
A. believe the accuracy of the memories while under hypnosis but, if the memories are untrue, will recognize that fact when no longer hypnotized.
B. believe the accuracy of the memories while under hypnosis but will be skeptical of those memories when no longer hypnotized whether or not the memories are true.
C. believe the accuracy of the memories while under hypnosis and will likely continue to believe them when no longer hypnotized whether or not the memories are true
D. be able to distinguish between true and false memories both while hypnotized and when no longer hypnotized.
3.26 One of the problems with memories recalled under hypnosis is that people tend to be more certain about the accuracy of those memories, whether they are true or false.
c. CORRECT The research has shown that people are often more willing to accept false memories when those memories have been retrieved under hypnosis.
3.27 A graduate student designed and conducted a research project for her dissertation and subsequently wrote a journal article describing the study and its results. The original idea for the study was derived from the work of the student’s faculty advisor who also provided the facilities for the student’s research and provided the student with some guidance while she conducted her study. The faculty advisor wants to be listed as first author on the article. In this situation:
A. the student should be listed as the sole author.
B. the student should be listed as the first author and the advisor as the second author
C. it is up to the advisor to determine authorship credit.
D. it is up to the journal to determine authorship credit.
3.27 Publication credit is addressed in Standard 8.12 of the Ethics Code.
b. CORRECT Standard 8.12 states that publication credits "accurately reflect the relative scientific or professional contributions of the individuals involved, regardless of their relative status.... Except under exceptional circumstances, a student is listed as principal author on any multiple-authored article that is substantially based on the student's doctoral dissertation." While the student should be listed as first author, the advisor's contribution appears to be sufficient to warrant being listed as the second author.
3.28 A married couple’s insurance provides reimbursement for individual therapy but not for marital therapy. The psychologist determined, however, that marital therapy is the appropriate form of treatment for the couple. The psychologist should:
A. treat them in individual therapy since it is covered by the insurance.
B. bill for individual therapy while treating them as a couple.
C. appeal to the insurance company for coverage for marital therapy
D. none of the above.
3.28 The psychologist should not mislead the insurance company about the appropriate form of treatment for the couple since doing so would constitute insurance fraud.
a. Incorrect This would not be appropriate because individual therapy is not indicated.
b. Incorrect Standard 6.06 of the Ethics Code states: "In their reports to payors for services or sources of research funding, psychologists take reasonable steps to ensure the accurate reporting of the nature of the service provided or research conducted, the fees, charges, or payments, and where applicable, the identity of the provider, the findings, and the diagnosis."
c. CORRECT The psychologist should make a request to the insurance company for marital therapy.
3.29 Although stuttering in children is often difficult to treat, there is some evidence that _______ is the most effective approach.
A. stress inoculation
B. covert sensitization
C. regulated breathing
D. dialectical behavior therapy
3.29 Several studies have found regulated breathing to be effective for people who stutter.
c. CORRECT Regulated breathing involves instructing the person to stop speaking when a stuttering episode occurs and to take a deep breath before continuing. It is often combined with awareness training and social support and, in this format, is referred to as "habit reversal."
3.30 The primary target of “advocacy consultation” is best described as:
A. worker well-being.
B. the child's best interests.
C. interpersonal conflicts.
D. social change
3.30 Advocacy consultation, unlike other consultation modes, focuses on social systems rather than individuals or small groups.
d. CORRECT As noted by J. C. Conoley (Consultation in schools: Theory, research, procedures, Academic Press, New York, 1981), a distinctive characteristic of advocacy consultation is that it is based on an "explicit value orientation that targets social change in the direction of power equalization" (p. 162).
3.31 Dr. R. E. Medy compares the effectiveness of three different treatments for Generalized Anxiety Disorder by randomly assigning individuals who have received this diagnosis to one of the three treatments and then measuring their symptoms before treatment and one week, one month, and six months following treatment. The research design used by Dr. Medy is an example of which of the following?
A. between groups
B. within subjects
3.31 The research study described in this question has two independent variables – type of treatment and time.
c. CORRECT Treatment is a between-groups variable in this study – participants are assigned to one of the three treatments. Time is a within-subjects variable – all participants are evaluated on the dependent variable at four different times. When a study includes both between-groups and within-subjects variables, it is referred to as a mixed design.
d. Incorrect A counterbalanced design is a type of within-subjects design.
3.32 When a “leaderless group discussion” is used alone or as a component of an assessment center, it is most helpful for:
A. providing training to supervisors and their supervisees in problem-solving and communication skills.
B. identifying ways for improving the ability of the team to achieve its production goals.
C. assessing or developing the leadership abilities of applicants for managerial level positions
D. identifying the barriers faced by team leaders when they attempt to solve a work-related problem.
3.32 A leaderless group discussion is a simulation technique that is often used as part of an assessment center. Leaderless group discussions and other simulations are frequently included in management development programs.
c. CORRECT Knowing that assessment centers are used for the hiring, promotion, and training of managerial-level employees would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. A leaderless group discussion (as part of an assessment center or alone) provides information about an individual's communication, decision-making, and leadership skills to determine his/her potential as a manager.
3.33 According to the Publications Manual of the American Psychological Association, which of the following statements is an acceptable description of a research participant?
A. non-white participant
B. disabled participant
C. participant diagnosed with Borderline Personality Disorder
D. participant suffering from multiple sclerosis
3.33 Ways to reduce bias in language are addressed in the APA's Publication Manual.
a. Incorrect Non-white is improper. The actual race/ethnicity is preferable.
b. Incorrect "Participant with a disability" would be more appropriate.
c. CORRECT This is an acceptable way to describe an individual who has a mental disorder.
d. Incorrect The word "suffering" is inappropriate. "A person with (or who has) multiple sclerosis" would be better.
3.34 In organizations, _____ involves training workers to perform different tasks and activities.
A. vestibule training
D. frame-of-reference training
3.34 For the exam, you want to be familiar with the off-the-job and on-the-job training techniques that are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials so that you can answer questions like this one.
b. CORRECT As its name suggests, cross-training involves training an employee to perform other tasks (usually tasks related to his/her current job). Cross-training benefits the employer by increasing the flexibility of employees and the employees by increasing their interest and motivation.
3.35 Tolman used the notion of “cognitive maps” as support for which of the following?
A. the law of effect
B. insight learning
C. latent learning
D. observational learning
3.35 For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the phenomena listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
c. CORRECT Tolman's notion of cognitive maps was derived from his research in which rats were allowed to explore a maze without being reinforced for doing so. The results indicated that the animals had learned something about the maze -- i.e., they had formed cognitive maps. This led Tolman to conclude that learning can occur without apparent changes or improvements in behavior and he referred to this as latent learning.
3.36 The best way to maximize a research study’s external validity is to:
A. use a parametric (versus nonparametric) statistical test.
B. set alpha at .01 rather than .05.
C. select participants who are homogeneous with regard to the target characteristic.
D. randomly select research participants from the target population
3.36 External validity refers to the generalizability of the results of a research study.
a. Incorrect A parametric test increases statistical power, but it doesn’t increase the generalizability of the research results.
b. Incorrect A smaller alpha will reduce the probability of making a Type I error, but it will not increase the generalizability of the study’s results.
c. Incorrect Narrowing the range of participants in terms of the target characteristic would limit the generalizability of the results. For example, if the target characteristic is self-esteem and the study includes only people with average self-esteem, it would not be possible to generalize the study’s results to people with high and low self-esteem.
d. CORRECT The best way to maximize the generalizability of a study’s results is to randomly select participants from the population so that the sample of participants is representative of the population in terms of all relevant characteristics.
3.37 Which of the following psychiatric symptoms are most associated with Huntington’s disease?
A. depression and irritability
B. hallucinations and delusions
C. anorexia and anxiety
D. sleep and sexual disturbances
3.37 Mood symptoms, especially dysthymia and depression, are early symptoms in about 40% of cases of Huntington"s disease.
a. CORRECT Early reports linked Huntington's disease to psychotic symptoms, but more recent, better-controlled studies have found that affective symptoms are more common and are often the first signs of the disorder.
3.38 Which of the following is not true of mediation?
A. a mediator can impose a settlement
B. A mediator does not serve as an advocate for either party.
C. Participation in mediation is voluntary.
D. Arbitration provides a more final resolution than mediation.
3.38 Mediation is the most used third-party option. A neutral third party (mediator) uses various tactics to facilitate voluntary agreement between the disputants. Remember you are looking for a statement that is not true.
a. CORRECT Because the mediator has no formal powers, he or she cannot impose a settlement.
b. Incorrect A mediator serves as a neutral facilitator, and thus does not advocate for either participant.
c. Incorrect Mediation is voluntary.
d. Incorrect Arbitration is the final and most formal settlement technique.
3.39 A child is most likely to exhibit behavioral and psychological problems following the divorce of his parents if:
A. he lives with his father rather than his mother.
B. his parents have joint custody.
C. his parents frequently argue in front of him
D. his mother adopts an authoritative parenting style.
3.39 A child's adjustment to the divorce of his/her parents has been linked to a number of factors. Additional information on this topic is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
c. CORRECT One of the more consistent findings of the research is that children have fewer problems when their parents are able to control their anger and keep fights in front of the children to a minimum.
3.40 Continued substance use despite knowing that persistent or recurrent problems are likely to have been caused or exacerbated by that use is characteristic of:
A. Substance Dependence.
B. Substance Abuse.
C. Substance Dependence and Substance Abuse
D. neither Substance Dependence nor Substance Abuse.
3.40 Continued use of a substance despite recurrent problems due to that use is characteristic of both Substance Abuse and Substance Dependence.
c. CORRECT This is listed in the DSM as a symptom for both Substance Dependence and Substance Abuse. More specifically, the existence of physiological or psychological problems caused or exacerbated by use is characteristic of Substance Dependence, while social or interpersonal problems caused or exacerbated by use are characteristic of Substance Abuse.
3.41 When his mother’s car doesn’t start 4 year old Freddie says, “the car is sick.” As described by Piaget, Freddie’s statement illustrates which of the following?
B. symbolic thought
3.41 For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the terms listed in the answers to this question.
a. Incorrect Scaffolding is a term you want to have linked with Vygotsky, who described it as the support that is given to a child by teachers, parents, and others within the child’s zone of proximal development.
b. Incorrect Symbolic thought develops at the end of the sensorimotor stage and is the ability to form internal representations of absent objects and past events. It provides the basis for the preoperational child’s ability to learn through the use of language, mental images, and other symbols.
c. CORRECT Animism is characteristic of the preoperational stage and is the belief that inanimate objects have lifelike characteristics.
d. Incorrect Decentration is one of the abilities that makes it possible for concrete operational children to conserve and occurs when the child is able to consider more than one characteristic of an object at a time.
3.42 The mother of a 35 year old man says that, for the past five weeks, he has been acting very uncharacteristically. He seems perplexed and nervous much of the time, his tone of voice varies between flat and shrill, and his speech is sometimes like “word salad.” The mother says that sometimes it seems like he is listening to voices or sounds that she cannot hear. Based on this information, the best diagnosis is:
A. Schizophrenia, Disorganized Type.
B. Schizoid Personality Disorder.
C. Schizoaffective Disorder.
D. Schizophreniform Disorder
3.42 As noted in the Abnormal Psychology chapter of the written study maerials, Schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders share a number of characteristics. However, one distinguishing feature is the duration of symptoms.
a. Incorrect A diagnosis of Schizophrenia requires a duration of symptoms for at least six months.
b. Incorrect Schizoid Personality Disorder, like other personality disorders, is characterized by a persistent (long-term) pattern of dysfunctional behaviors. This man has had symptoms for only five weeks.
c. Incorrect The name "Schizoaffective" tells you that this disorder combines symptoms of schizophrenia and the affective (mood) disorders. The symptoms given in this question do not suggest a mood disturbance.
d. CORRECT Symptoms of Schizophreniform Disorder are similar to those associated with Schizophrenia but have a duration of less than six months.
3.43 Tiedeman and O’Hara’s (1963) theory of career development was most influenced by the work of:
3.43 Knowing that Tiedeman and O’Hara emphasize the role of the ego in career development would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. CORRECT Tiedeman and O’Hara’s theory is classified as a cognitive-developmental theory that is consistent with the work of Erikson, Bruner, Piaget, and Allport. It views career development as being an aspect of ego identity development and as a process that continues throughout the lifespan.
3.44 The research has confirmed that there are several pathways to delinquency in adolescence. For example, a disadvantaged environment during childhood has been found to be a primary contributor to delinquency for some adolescents while, for others, delinquency is the result of association with delinquent peers. These findings are most consistent with which of the following concepts?
C. negative feedback
D. positive feedback
3.44 For the exam, you want to be familiar with the difference between equifinality and multifinality which are concepts that are derived from general systems theory and have been used to explain the development of psychopathology, certain physical illnesses, and other phenomena.
a. Incorrect Multifinality predicts that the same initial circumstance or condition may lead to different outcomes.
b. CORRECT Equifinality predicts that different circumstances or conditions may lead to the same outcome.
c. Incorrect In the context of systems theory, negative feedback reduces deviation and helps a system maintain the status quo.
d. Incorrect Positive feedback is the opposite of negative feedback and disrupts a system by amplifying deviation or change.
3.45 Research by K.W. Schaie (1983) on age and intelligence provided support for which of the following theories of intelligence?
A. Guilford’s convergent and divergent thinking
B. Spearman’s “g” factor
C. Thurstone’s primary mental abilities
D. Luria’s simultaneous and successive processing
3.45 Knowing that Schaie conducted research on the effects of age on six mental abilities may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
c. CORRECT Schaie used a cross-sequential research design to examine the effects of age on six primary mental abilities (verbal ability, inductive reasoning, verbal memory, spatial orientation, numeric ability, and perceptual speed). Schaie's research found that the effects of increasing age differed for each ability, thereby confirming Thurstone's theory that intelligence consists of several broad factors rather than a single "g" factor.
3.46 A licensed psychologist who is working in an isolated rural community finds that some of his clients have problems that are beyond his training and expertise. The psychologist should:
A. continue seeing the clients only if there is no other psychologist available.
B. use only those interventions he feels competent to use in treating the clients.
C. obtain appropriate consultation by phone
D. refuse to see the clients until he receives adequate training.
3.46 The Ethics Code requires psychologists to provide only services that are within "the boundaries of their competence." However, it is acceptable to provide new services when certain conditions are met (Standard 2.01). Note that none of the responses to this question is optimal, so you have to pick the best one of those given.
a. Incorrect The lack of another psychologist is certainly a consideration in this situation, but, even in the absence of another psychologist, seeing the clients without getting necessary supervision or consultation would not be acceptable.
b. Incorrect This would not be acceptable if more effective treatments for the clients' problems were available.
c. CORRECT It is perfectly acceptable for psychologists to acquire new skills during the course of their practice as long as they obtain adequate training, supervision, or consultation. Of course, consultation might not be sufficient in certain situations, but, of the responses given, this is the best choice. Note that nothing in the Code suggests that consultation must be in-person.
d. Incorrect Not providing services at all would not be the best course of action in most situations if the clients had no other professional they could see.
3.47 In training, providing “identical elements” is most useful for:
A. maximizing overlearning.
B. reducing the probability of proactive and retroactive interference.
C. ensuring transfer of training
D. providing opportunities for active practice.
3.47 The term "identical elements" refers to similarities in the learning and performance environments.
c. CORRECT Transfer of training is maximized when learning conditions are similar to performance conditions (i.e., when they are similar in terms of task, equipment, environment, etc.).
3.48 An evaluation of a defendant’s competence in a criminal court case is conducted to determine his/her mental status?
A. at the time of the evaluation
B. at the time the crime was committed.
C. at the time of the arrest.
D. prior to committing the crime.
3.48 This question is apparently asking about competence to stand trial.
a. CORRECT A psychologist may be asked to evaluate a person's current mental status to determine if he/she is competent to stand trial (i.e., is able to understand court procedures and the charge against him/her).
b. Incorrect A psychologist would determine the person's status at the time of the crime in order to support the insanity defense.
3.49 In their research on terrorist groups, McCauley and Segal (1987) found that, when people come together because of a shared grievance, their views often become increasingly extreme as they continue to interact in isolation from possible moderating influences. The finding supports which of the following:
B. social trap
C. group polarization
D. group contagion
3.49 This question is asking about a situation in which the views of group members become increasingly extreme due to their participation in the group.
a. Incorrect Individuation occurs when a person feels "anonymous" as a member of a group.
b. Incorrect A social trap is a conflict that occurs when behavior has positive short-term consequences but negative long-term consequences.
c. CORRECT Group polarization refers to the tendency of people to make more extreme decisions when acting as members of a group than they would have made as individuals.
d. Incorrect Group contagion refers to the transmission of emotion through a crowd or group.
3.50 As adults, we are rarely able to recall events that we experienced prior to ______________ months of age.
3.50 This question is asking about infantile amnesia, which is described in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
d. CORRECT Babies begin forming long-term memories for past events by the time they are several months of age. However, adults are usually unable to recall events that occurred prior to three or four years of age.
3.51 Most infants take their first steps while holding onto furniture at about:
A. 6 to 7 months of age
B. 9 to 10 months of age
C. 12 to 13 months of age
D. 15 to 16 months of age
3.51 Although children vary considerably in motor and other aspects of development, some generalizations can be made.
b. CORRECT At about 9 to 10 months, most babies are able to take a few steps while holding onto furniture. This is followed, at about 12 to 13 months, by the ability to walk without help or support.
3.52 Research on the outcomes of parental divorce for children has identified as “sleeper effect,” which refers to the tendency of:
A. boys to show a decrease in negative outcomes as they reach adolescence.
B. girls to show an increase in negative outcomes as they reach adolescence
C. boys and girls to show a decrease in negative oucomes as they reach early adulthood.
D. boys and girls who show the most severe outcomes immediately after the divorce to show an increase in negative outcomes over time and vice versa.
3.52 Research on the outcomes of divorce for boys and girls have found that, in some cases, the outcomes change over time.
b. CORRECT In the context of the effects of divorce on children, the term "sleeper effect" refers to the tendency of girls who do not initially show significant negative effects of the divorce to develop a number of problems in adolescence, including increased noncompliance and conflict with their mothers, antisocial behaviors, decreased self-esteem, and difficulties related to sexual behavior.
3.53 Studies examining language acquisition in children have shown that the fastest rate of increase in vocabulary typically occurs between the ages of:
A. 12 and 18 months
B. 20 and 26 months
C. 30 and 36 months
D. 36 and 42 months
3.53 The fastest rate of vocabulary increase occurs between the ages of 30 and 36 months. During this period, the child's vocabulary increases from 300-400 words to about 1000 words.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect At 27 months, the child's vocabulary consists of about 300-400 words.
c. CORRECT As noted above, the child's vocabulary more than doubles during this period.
d. Incorrect Between the ages of 36 to 42 months, the child's grammatical accuracy and sentence complexity increases. His/her vocabulary also increases but the rate of increase is not as great as between 30 and 36 months
3.54 Feelings of emotional exhaustion, depersonalization, and low personal accomplishment are symptomatic of:
A. chronic boredom.
B. low morale.
C. repeated role conflicts.
D. job burnout
3.54 The three symptoms listed have been identified as the core features of job burnout.
a. Incorrect Chronic boredom ("underload") might induce symptoms similar to these, but this triad of symptoms has been specifically linked to burnout.
b. Incorrect The research has not linked these symptoms to low morale, which may or may not be associated with burnout.
c. Incorrect Role conflicts are a source of stress and are likely to produce unpleasant symptoms but these three have not been linked to role conflicts.
d. CORRECT These are the three components of job burnout identified by S. E. Jackson, R. L. Schwab, and R. S. Schuler (Toward an understanding of the burnout phenomenon,Journal of Applied Psychology, 71, 630-540, 1986).
3.55 A client you have ben seeing for eight months says he wants to quit therapy. He feels that the original problems he came to therapy for have all been resolves. You disagree and feel that there is good reason for the man to continue seeing you. You should:
A. get the client to agree to a few more sessions.
B. discuss his reasons for wanting to terminate.
C. discuss his reason for wanting to terminate and your reasons for thinking he should continue
D. let him terminate but let him know he can come back if he desires.
3.55 Obviously you can't force a client to continue seeing you, but you should discuss your reservations about his termination.
c. CORRECT If you believe it would not be good for the client to quit at this time, you should discuss this with him. If he still wants to leave, then you'd want to assure him that he can come back and/or give him appropriate referrals.
3.56 According to Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s (1993) Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model, the final stage of identity development is characterized by:
A. assimilating into the dominant culture.
B. developing a self-identity that is consistent with one's racial/cultural background.
C. adopting an identity that is independent of the minority and majority cultures.
D. adopting a multicultural perspective
3.56 Atkinson et al.'s (1993) model distinguishes between five stages: conformity, dissonance, resistance-immersion, introspection, and integrative awareness.
a. Incorrect Atkinson et al. do not view assimilation as the outcome of successful identity development.
b. Incorrect Although successful identity development does involve developing an ethnic identity, that identity is not necessarily reflective of the individual's cultural/racial background in all ways. Instead, the individual chooses which elements he/she wants to incorporate into his/her identity.
c. Incorrect Atkinson's model does not propose that being "culture-free" is an optimal state.
d. CORRECT Like most cultural/racial identity development models, the Atkinson et al. model describes the final stage as one of integration – i.e., of accepting one's own minority culture while also recognizing and incorporating the positive contributions of the majority culture. They refer to this as adopting a multicultural perspective.
3.57 The optimal item difficulty (p) for a true-false test is:
3.57 As described in the Test Construction chapter of the written study materials, the optimal item difficulty depends on several factors, including the likelihood that an examinee can choose the correct answer by guessing.
c. CORRECT The optimal item difficulty is helfway between 100% of examinees answering the item correctly and the likelihood of answering the item correctly by chance alone. For true-false items, the probability of choosing the correct answer by chance is .50, so the optimal difficulty level is .75.
3.58 Sandy S. is considering filing a claim of sexual harassment against her boss, Bertrand B., because he frequently comments on her physical appearance by telling her how “great she looks” and often tells her that, “if I weren’t your boss, I’d be chasing after you.” Sandy decides to tell Bertrand that she finds his comments offensive and, when she does so, he apologizes and says he’ll stop if that’s what she wants. This situation:
A. does not represent a legal claim for sexual harassment because Bertrand's comments are not sufficiently severe to be considered abusive.
B. does not represent a legal claim for sexual harassment as long as Bertrand actually stops making offensive comments
C. represents a legal claim for sexual harassment because Sandy found Bertrand's behavior to be offensive.
D. represents a legal claim for sexual harassment because a "reasonable woman" would find Bertrand's behavior to be offensive.
3.58 Sexual harassment laws and policies vary somewhat from jurisdiction to jurisdiction but Bertrand's comments are likely to be grounds for a sexual harassment suit if he continues to make them.
a. Incorrect Sexual comments do not have to be "sufficiently severe to be considered abusive" for a claim of sexual harassment.
b. CORRECT If the comments are not severe and the harasser stops when asked to do so, it is unlikely that they would be found sufficient for a legal claim of sexual harassment. For additional information, see the discussion on sexual harassment in the Ethics and Professional Issues chapter of the written study materials.
c. Incorrect Although Bertrand's comments are likely to be considered offensive, it is unlikely that Sandy would have grounds for a legal claim against him if he stops making those comments when asked to do so.
d. Incorrect If Bertrand does not stop making offensive comments when asked to do so, the court might use the "reasonable woman" standard to determine if the comments represent sexual harassment.
3.59 Research on working women suggests that combining work and family roles is most associated with:
A. stress-related illness
B. reduced involvement in family roles
C. enhanced self-esteem
D. low job commitment
3.59 This topic was addressed in a review of the research on women and work (S. D. Phillips and A. R. Imhoff, Women and career development: A decade of research, Annual Review of Psychology, 48, 31-59, 1997).
c. CORRECT Empirical research suggests that, overall, dual roles for women have positive effects on self-esteem and other aspects of well-being.
3.60 Which of the following tests would be most useful for assessing the intelligence of a 12 year old child with limited English language proficiency?
A. Raven’s Standard Progressive Matrices
B. Slosson Intelligence Test
C. Bayley Scales
D. Cognitive Abilities Test
3.60 For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the tests listed in the answers to this question. Additional information about them is provided in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT Raven's Standard Progressive Matrices can be administered without the use of language, and it doesn't require language to respond to test items. It is appropriate for individuals age six and older.
b. Incorrect The Slosson Intelligence Test is a screening test of intelligence and is not appropriate for individuals with limited language proficiency.
c. Incorrect The Bayley Scales are used to assess infant development.
d. Incorrect The Cognitive Abilities Test (CogAT) is measure of reasoning ability that is often used to determine a student's eligibility for placement in a gifted/talented program.
3.61 A diagnosis of Panic Disorder with or without Agoraphobia requires the presence of recurrent _________ panic attacks with one or more attacks being followed by persistent concern about having additional attacks, worry about the consequences of an attack, and/or a significant change in behavior related to the attacks for a duration of at least ________.
A. unexpected; one month
B. situationally bound; one month
C. unexpected; three months
D. unexpected or situationally bound; three months
3.61 This is a straightforward question that requires you to be familiar with the diagnostic criteria for Panic Disorder.
a. CORRECT For a diagnosis of Panic Disorder, the individual must have had at least one unexpected (uncued) panic attack, with at least one attack being followed by characteristic symptoms for a duration of one month or more. The diagnosis of Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia also requires the presence of the characteristic symptoms of Agoraphobia.
3.62 The Bonferroni test helps control the experimentwise error rate by:
A. controlling the total number of comparisons that can be made.
B. reducing the level of significance for each comparison
C. permitting individual comparisons only after the omnibus test has produced significant results
D. requiring that all comparisons be conducted as two-tailed tests.
3.62 For the exam, you want to have the Bonferroni test associated with planned (a priori) comparisons.
b. CORRECT The greater the number of planned comparisons, the greater the likelihood that a Type I error will be made. The Bonferroni test controls this possibility by reducing the level of alpha for each comparison.
c. Incorrect The Bonferroni test takes the place of the omnibus test (ANOVA) and post-hoc comparisons.
3.63 Our peripheral vision is mediated by the:
A. anterior occipital lobe
B. posterior occipital lobe
C. anterior temporal lobe
D. posterior temporal lobe
3.63 Knowing that vision is mediated by the occipital lobe would have helped you narrow the choices to responses a and b.
a. CORRECT Peripheral vision is mediated by the anterior occipital lobe, while central vision is mediated by the posterior occipital lobe.
3.64 The purpose of a ________ is to guide the development of a program so that its final version maximizes the likelihood that the program will achieve its goals.
A. summative evaluation
B. formative evaluation
C. needs assessment
D. functional assessment
3.64 For the exam, you want to be familiar with the difference between formative and summative evaluations so that you can answer questions like this one.
a. Incorrect A summative evaluation is conducted after a training program has been developed and administered to trainees in order to assess the program's outcomes.
b. CORRECT Formative evaluations are conducted while a training program is being developed ("formed") to obtain the information needed to determine what modifications are required.
c. Incorrect A needs assessment is conducted to determine if performance problems can be alleviated by providing training and, if so, to identify the content of a training program.
d. Incorrect A functional assessment (also known as a functional behavioral assessment) is conducted to identify the functions that a behavior serves in order to identify ways of modifying that behavior.
3.65 A female client says she frequently misperceives things and this has made her anxious about leaving home. For example, she often thinks she sees small animals at work when, in fact, the “animals” are actually inanimate objects such as books, coffee mugs, and office supplies. The woman’s misperceptions are best described as:
3.65 For the licensing exam, you want to be familiar with the definitions of the terms listed in the responses to this question.
a. CORRECT An illusion is a misperception of reality (e.g., misperceiving a coffee mug as a rodent).
b. Incorrect A delusion is a false belief about reality that is firmly held regardless of evidence to the contrary.
c. Incorrect While an illusion is elicited by an actual stimulus, an hallucination is a sensory perception in the absence of an external stimulus. Since this women is "misperceiving things," this suggests she is experiencing illusions rather than hallucinations.
d. Incorrect Derealization is an alteration in the sense of self -- i.e., the sense that one is detached from one's mind or body.
3.66 Hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and frequent cigarette smoking are high risk factors for:
A. Alzheimer's Dementia.
B. Parkinson's Disease.
C. Vascular Dementia
D. Pick’s Disease
3.66 Vascular Dementia is a preventable disorder in many cases because it is preceded by a number of known treatable factors.
a. Incorrect The cause of Alzheimer's remains unclear.
b. Incorrect Parkinson's Disease is due to a degeneration of cells in the substantia nigra. The cause of this degeneration is unknown.
c. CORRECT Hypertension, diabetes, and cigarette smoking are high risk factors for Vascular Dementia. Interventions aimed at these factors can successfully prevent this form of dementia.
d. Incorrect The cause of Pick's Disease is also unknown at this time.
3.67 As described by Gottman (1994), when couples report a ratio of positive-to-negative exchanges of about 5:1, they usually have:
A. an unhappy but stable marriage.
B. an unhappy, unstable marriage and are about to get divorced.
C. a conflictual marriage but want to work out their problems and stay together.
D. a happy, stable marriage
3.67 J. M. Gottman has conducted research on couples for over 30 years with the goal of developing an empirical basis for identifying interventions for couples experiencing conflict. His research has identified factors that are associated with satisfactory and unsatisfactory relationships (What predicts divorce?, Hillsdale, NJ, Erlbaum, 1994).
d. CORRECT Gottman has concluded that couples in happy, stable relationships have about a 5:1 ratio of positive-to-negative exchanges, while couples in unstable, unhappy relationships have positivity ratios that are lower than 1:1. He also found that the risk for divorce for unhappy couples is increased when they exhibit four behaviors: criticism, defensiveness, contempt, and stonewalling.
3.68 A strategic family therapist is most likely to use which of the following therapeutic techniques in dealing with a husband and wife who complain that they are constantly arguing with each other?
A. obtain a detailed family history from each partner
B. ask the couple to identify the benefits they obtain from arguing
C. tell the couple to argue for at least two hours each evening
D. work individually with the partner who is most "differentiated"
3.68 Strategic family therapy is most associated with Jay Haley, who was strongly influenced by the communication school of family therapy and by the work of Milton Erickson.
a. Incorrect Haley focuses more on the present, especially communication patterns occurring in the present.
b. Incorrect This is not characteristic of strategic family therapy.
c. CORRECT Haley relies heavily on paradoxical techniques (like the one described in this response), which are also employed by communication family therapists and Milton Erickson.
d. Incorrect This sounds more like Bowenian family therapy.
3.69 Ho (1987) and others have recommended the use of a(n) ______ approach when working with African American therapy clients.
3.69 Ho, Boyd-Franklin, and others recommend that interventions with African-American clients (especially those from low-income backgrounds) incorporate multiple systems including the immediate family, extended family, social service agencies, and church.
a. CORRECT While Boyd-Franklin refers to this approach as a "multisystems model," Ho uses the term "ecostructural." See, e.g., M. K. Ho, Family therapy with ethnic minorities, Newbury Park, Sage, 1987.
3.70 There is now evidence that nicotine enhances alertness and memory by mimicking _______ at nicotine receptor sites.
3.70 Knowing that nicotinic receptors are a type of acetylcholine receptor would have helped you choose the correct response to this question.
d. CORRECT There is evidence that the nicotine in tobacco exerts its effects on physiology and behavior by binding to nicotinic receptors in the brain.
3.71 The aspect of memory that is capable of storing a very large amount of information for a very brief period of time is referred to as _______ memory.
3.71 According to the multistore model of memory, memory has three components -- sensory, short-term, and long-term. Additional information about these components is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect Short-term memory has a limited capacity and a limited duration.
b. CORRECT Sensory memory contains information collected from all senses but retains that information for a very brief period (probably .5 second).
c. Incorrect Some authors use the term primary memory as a name for short-term memory.
d. Incorrect The term secondary memory refers to long-term memory which has a very large capacity and a very long duration.
3.72 The clients in advocacy consultation are:
B. people who have been declared legally incompetent.
C. members of a disenfranchised group
D. people in a legal proceeding.
3.72 As its name implies, advocacy consultation involves acting as an advocate. It is a political form of consultation that has, as its primary goal, social change.
c. CORRECT The individuals listed in responses a, b, and d might be the clients in advocacy consultation, but this answer is best because it includes these individuals as well as others who may be disenfranchised.
3.73 Sedation (drowsiness) is most likely to be a side effect of which of the following antidepressants?
3.73 In general, the tricyclic antidepressants are more sedating than the SSRIs and certain other newer antidepressants.
a. Incorrect Prozac (fluoxetine) is an SSRI and is less likely than Pamelor to produce sedation.
b. Incorrect Wellbutrin (bupropion) is an NDRI and is less likely than Pamelor to produce sedation.
c. Incorrect Zoloft (sertraline) is an SSRI and is less likely than Pamelor to produce sedation.
d. CORRECT Pamelor (nortriptyline) is a tricyclic antidepressant and, of the antidepressants listed in the answers, is most likely to produce sedation.
3.74 The collection of data as part of an organizational development process ordinarily involves the use of one or more of four techniques. Of these, which is most useful in large organizations composed of many employees?
D. secondary (archival) sources
3.74 D. A. Nadler (Feedback and Organizational Development: Using Data-Based Methods, Reading, MA, Addison-Wesley, 1977) identifies four commonly used data collection methods in organizational development: interviews, questionnaires, observations, and secondary (archival) sources. A description of these methods is provided in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
b. CORRECT Nadler recommends using multiple methods to ensure that the collected data is complete and unbiased. However, of the four techniques, questionnaires are most useful for collecting quantitative data from a large number of individuals.
3.75 The standard error of the mean, an index of sampling error, increases as:
A. the population standard deviation increases
B. the population standard deviation decreases.
C. the sample size increases.
D. the number of samples decreases.
3.75 The standard error of the mean is the standard deviation of the sampling distribution of means and serves as an index of sampling error.
a. CORRECT As the population standard deviation increases, the chance of sampling error also increases. Knowing the formula for the standard error of the mean would have helped you choose the correct answer to this question – the standard error equals the population standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size. Thus, the standard error increases as the numerator increases or the denominator decreases.
3.76 A psychologist develops a parent mentoring program for parents who have a history of abusing or neglecting their children. Participants will have access to nonabusive parents who will act as role models as well as support during times of crisis. This is an example of:
A. primary prevention
B. secondary prevention
C. tertiary prevention
D. ancillary prevention
3.76 Methods of prevention are often categorized as primary, secondary, or tertiary. Additional information on the three methods of prevention is provided in the Clinical Psychology chapter.
a. Incorrect Primary preventions are designed to keep a problem from developing.
b. Incorrect Secondary preventions are aimed at early identification and intervention.
c. CORRECT The goal of tertiary preventions is to prevent a problem from becoming chronic or to prevent relapse.
3.77 The Parent-Teacher Association (PTA) votes to keep a certain book out of the high school library because of its controversial nature. When students find out about the PTA’s decision, many of them immediately buy the book at local bookstore. This is an illustration of:
C. psychological reactance
3.77 In this situation, the students are reacting to a restriction placed on their access to a particular book.
c. CORRECT The tendency to act in ways opposite of what is required or requested (especially when one feels that one's freedom is being threatened) is referred to as psychological reactance.
3.78 Which of the following is NOT true about the effect of crowding?
A. Men are more negatively affected than women by crowded conditions.
B. Increasing age is associated with an increasing negative impact of crowding.
C. People are more willing to discuss intimate details in crowded (versus uncrowded) conditions
D. Crowded (versus uncrowded) conditions are associated with a higher risk for health-related problems.
3.78 The outcomes of crowding have been linked to a number of individual and environmental characteristics.
a. Incorrect Men do tend to be more adversely affected by crowding.
b. Incorrect Children are less affected by crowding than adults.
c. CORRECT This is the opposite of what is true -- people are less willing to discuss intimate topics and to seek social support in crowded situations. See, e.g., G. W. Evans et al., Residential density and psychological health: The mediation effects of social support, Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 57, 994-999, 1989.
d. Incorrect Living and working in crowded conditions is associated with more health problems.
3.79 During the alarm stage of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS), the release of _______ results in an increase in heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration rate?
3.79 During the initial alarm stage of the GAS, the hypothalamus activates the adrenal medulla to increase its release of epinephrine.
a. Incorrect Thyroxine is secreted by the thyroid gland and controls the rate of metabolism and plays a role in protein synthesis.
b. Incorrect Melatonin is secreted by the pineal gland and plays a role in the sleep-wake cycle.
c. CORRECT Epinephrine (which is also referred to as adrenaline) is a hormone and neurotransmitter. It is released by the adrenal medulla during the alarm stage of the GAS and is responsible for the body’s "fight-or-flight" response.
d. Incorrect Insulin is secreted by the pancreas and is responsible for the uptake and use of glucose.
3.80 Administering Ritalin to a child to confirm or rule out a diagnosis of ADHD is:
A. contraindicated since Ritalin increases activity levels and reduces attention in normal children.
B. not useful because only a minority of children with ADHD respond to Ritalin.
C. not useful since the effects of Ritalin are similar for children with or without ADHD
D. useful, especially in cases where the child's symptoms are highly variable.
3.80 Ritalin, a CNS stimulant, has been found to have a "paradoxical effect" in children and adults with and without ADHD.
c. CORRECT Using a drug is usually not the best strategy for confirming or ruling out a diagnosis. It is not useful in ADHD because, as noted above, individuals with or without the disorder have a similar response to the drug.
3.81 Research suggests that the underutilization of mental health services by Asian Americans results from:
A. cultural values that encourage resolution of problems within the family
B. a lower incidence of mental health problems.
C. cultural values that stress personal independence.
D. a distaste for the formality involved in therapy relationships.
3.81 The research has generally found that Asian Americans underutilize traditional mental health services.
a. CORRECT Asian Americans often adhere to traditional cultural values that encourage the resolution of problems within the family. Reasons for preferring assistance from family members include the stigma associated with mental illness and seeking outside help and a lack of culturally competent mental health services.
3.82 A family therapist using Minuchin’s structural approach is most likely to be interested in which of the following?
A. communication styles
B. transgenerational processes
3.82 As its name implies, Minuchin's structural family therapy focuses on the structural characteristics of the family.
a. Incorrect Although communication patterns provide clues about family structure, this is not the best response of those given.
b. Incorrect This sounds more like Bowenian family therapy.
c. CORRECT Minuchin considered maladaptive behavior to be the result of overly rigid or permeable boundaries between family members.
d. Incorrect Exceptions are of interest to solution-focused therapists.
3.83 The police arrive at your office with an arrest warrant for one of your clients. They tell you that they need the client’s most recent address and telephone number. You should:
A. provide them with the information they request.
B. make a copy of the warrant for your files before providing them with the information they request.
C. tell them you will have to get a signed waiver from the client before you can release the information.
D. not give them any information about the client
3.83 An arrest warrant does not constitute an exception to the therapist-client privilege.
d. CORRECT In order to provide any information about the client (including the fact that he/she is a client) would require either a signed release from the client or a court-order.
3.84 When working with an African American family, it is important to keep in mind that:
A. African American families are typically matriarchal.
B. African American husbands are usually less tolerant of the career efforts of their wives than White husbands are.
C. African American males and females do not adhere as rigidly to gender stereotypes as White males and females do.
D. African American wives are more willing than White wives to let their husbands make domestic decisions.
3.84 Research on African American families has generally found that African American men and women are less concerned about sex-role stereotypes than White men and women. However, the power structure of the African American family is not substantially different from that found in many White families.
a. Incorrect A number of investigators have pointed out that African American and White husbands exercise the same degree of family decision-making power and that the matriarchal African American family is, in fact, a myth.
b. Incorrect If anything, the opposite is true because of their de-emphasis on sex-role stereotypes and social conditions that have made it easier for African American women to succeed educationally and economically than African American men.
c. CORRECT According to Billingsley, an important aspect of the cultural heritage of African American families is a de-emphasis on rigid sex-linked stereotypes (Black Families in White America, Englewood Cliffs: Prentice-Hall, 1969).
d. Incorrect In terms of decision-making, there does not seem to be much difference between African American and White families.
3.85 Which of the following best describes the symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)?
A. Symptoms can be alleviated by a proper nutrition in the first few months following birth.
B. Symptoms gradually recede during the first few years of life, although some behavioral symptoms may persist into adulthood.
C. Behavioral symptoms are no longer apparent by adolescence, but physical signs persist into adulthood.
D. Most symptoms are irreversible and persist into adulthood.
3.85 As its name implies, fetal alcohol syndrome is caused by prenatal exposure to alcohol and affects multiple areas of development.
d. CORRECT The severity of the symptoms of FAS depends on the degree of prenatal exposure to alcohol. However, regardless of their severity, most symptoms are irreversible.
3.86 “Criterion contamination” is most likely to be a problem when the measure of job performance.
A. is subjectively scored
B. is objectively scored.
C. has limited "floor" or "ceiling."
D. is susceptible to "practice effects."
3.86 Criterion contamination occurs when a rater’s knowledge of a ratee’s performance on the predictor biases how the rater scores the ratee on the criterion.
a. CORRECT A subjectively scored measure of job performance (criterion measure) is susceptible to a variety of rater biases, including the bias that produces criterion contamination.
3.87 A person is exhibiting a __________ when she tends to pay more attention to messages and experiences that support her view on a controversial issue while ignoring those that discredit her view.
A. cognitive consistency bias
B. confirmation bias
C. halo bias
D. self-serving bias
3.87 A number of biases have been identified by investigators interested in decision-making and memory.
a. Incorrect Cognitive consistency theory predicts that behaviors that are inconsistent with an established attitude are susceptible to change.
b. CORRECT A confirmation bias (Silverman, 1992) is the tendency to believe and pay attention to experiences that support our views and ignore experiences that discredit them.
c. Incorrect The halo bias occurs when a person's status or performance on one dimension affects how a rater rates him/her on all other dimensions.
d. Incorrect A self-serving bias occurs when a person attributes positive outcomes to internal (dispositional) factors and negative outcomes to external (situational) factors.
3.88 The gradual decline in the intensity, frequency, or duration of a response to the repeated presentation of the same punishment or other stimulus is referred to as:
3.88 This question describes a situation in which an individual is no longer responding to a punishment or other stimulus because of repeated exposure to it.
d. CORRECT This is the definition of habituation.
3.89 When using aversion therapy to eliminate a client’s shoe fetish, an electric shock or other unpleasant stimulus acta as a(n):
A. negative punishment.
B. negative reinforcement.
C. conditioned stimulus.
D. unconditioned stimulus
3.89 To answer this question, you need to know that aversion therapy is a type of counterconditioning that is used to eliminate undesirable behaviors by pairing the stimulus associated with the undesirable behavior with a stimulus that produces an unpleasant reaction.
a. Incorrect Knowing that aversion therapy is a type of classical conditioning (counterconditioning) would have helped you eliminate answers a and b since punishment and reinforcement are associated with operant conditioning.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect When using aversion therapy to eliminate a shoe fetish, the shoe is the conditioned stimulus (CS).
d. CORRECT The shoe is the conditioned stimulus and is paired with electric shock or other stimulus that naturally produces an unpleasant reaction so that, eventually, the shoe also produces the unpleasant reaction. The electric shock or other stimulus that naturally produces an unpleasant reaction is the unconditioned stimulus (US).
3.90 A Bowenian therapist would use a genogram to:
A. examine family relationships over several generations
B. identify genetic (biological) contributions to maladaptive behavior
C. examine interactions between a family and its environment.
D. evaluate the progress and outcome of therapy.
3.90 Being familiar with the major concerns and assumptions of Bowen’s extended family systems therapy would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question even if you’re unfamiliar with a genogram.
a. CORRECT As originally described by Bowen, a genogram is a schematic diagram of a family’s relationships and usually includes at least three generations. A primary purpose of a genogram is to identify behavior patterns that recur in the family.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect This describes an ecomap. Although some authors use the terms ecomap and genogram interchangeably, this question is asking specifically about the use of a genogram by a Bowenian therapist, so response a is the best answer.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
3.91 People who are depressed often complain of cognitive deficits, which contribute to the difficulty in distinguishing between depression and dementia in older adults. One factor that can help differentiate the two disorders is:
A. for depressed people, recognition memory is more impaired; for individuals with dementia, recall memory shows greater deficits.
B. for depressed people, recall memory is more impaired; for individuals with dementia, recall and recognition memory both show deficits
C. for depressed people, recall and recognition memory show little or no impairment; for individuals with dementia, recall memory shows greater deficits than recognition memory.
D. for depressed people, recognition memory is more impaired than recall memory; for individuals with dementia, recall memory is more impaired than recognition memory.
3.91 For people who are depressed, cognitive tasks requiring greater effort (e.g., recall tasks) are most likely to be impaired; while, for people with dementia, cognitive deficits are apparent on both effortful and automatic tasks. Additional information on the characteristics that distinguish dementia and depression (pseudodementia) is provided in the Abnormal Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
b. CORRECT Recognition tasks require less effort than recall tasks and are less likely to be affected by depression. However, dementia is associated with impaired performance on recall and recognition tasks.
3.92 A person is exhibiting the actor-observer effect when he/she tends to:
A. view the behavior of others as due to dispositional factors and his/her own behaviors as due to situational factors.
B. view the behavior of others as due to situational factors and his/her own behaviors as due to dispositional factors.
C. overestimates his/her own ability to succeed and underestimates the ability of others to succeed.
D. underestimates his/her own ability to succeed and overestimates the ability of others to succeed.
3.92 Knowing that the actor-observer effect refers to the types of attributions that people make (i.e., dispositional versus situational attributions) would have allowed you to eliminate answers c and d.
a. CORRECT Research on attribution of cause has found that we tend to attribute the behaviors of others to dispositional factors (which is referred to as the fundamental attribution bias). However, when making attributions about our own behaviors, we tend to attribute them to situational factors. The difference when making attributions about our own behaviors and the behaviors of others is referred to as the actor-observer effect.
3.93 When using a __________, the rater is provided with a list of behavioral examples and asked to indicate whether the ratee’s performance is equal to, worse than, or better than the performance described in each example.
A. critical incident technique
B. behavioral observation scale
C. forced-choice method
D. mixed standard scale
3.93 The mixed standard scale (Blanz and Ghiselli, 1971) was originally designed to reduce rater biases. Note that, if you're unfamiliar with this technique, you may have been able to identify it as the correct answer to this question using the process of elimination.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. (Although the mixed standard scale uses critical incidents, it is not the same as the "critical incident technique.")
d. CORRECT When using the mixed standard scale, three critical incidents representing good, average, and poor performance for several dimensions of job performance are identified. They are then listed in the rating scale in a random order, and the rater indicates, for each incident, whether the rater’s performance is equal to, worse than, or better than the described behavior.
3.94 Which of the following symptoms would be most useful for distinguishing between delirium and dementia?
A. impaired memory
C. reduced consciousness
D. depressed mood
3.94 Dementia and delirium share a number of features including impairments in memory, hallucinations, delusions, and depression.
a. Incorrect Impaired memory is characteristic of both disorders and, therefore, would not be useful for distinguishing between them.
b. Incorrect Hallucinations may be present in both dementia and delirium.
c. CORRECT Disturbances in consciousness (typically a reduced level of consciousness) is the key feature of delirium but is not characteristic of dementia. In dementia, the patient is alert. Reduced consciousness, therefore, would indicate delirium but not dementia.
d. Incorrect Depression may be present in both disorders.
3.95 A practitioner of Beck’s cognitive therapy uses _________ questions to help clients identify and correct their logical errors and biases.
3.95 Socratic questioning (dialogue) involves asking questions designed to help the client identify and replace maladaptive beliefs.
a. CORRECT Examples of Socratic questions include "Is there any evidence for this belief?" and "What are the advantages and disadvantages of thinking this way?"
b. Incorrect Exception questions are used by solution-focused therapies to help identify times in a client's life that were not problematic.
c. Incorrect Circular questions are used by Milan systemic therapists to help family members recognize similiarities and differences in their perceptions.
d. Incorrect Scaling questions are used by solution-focused therapists to measure changes in attitude, motivation, feelings, etc.
3.96 The effects of teratogens on the developing organism vary with the type of teratogen and the organ system. However, in general, these agents are most likely to cause severe structural damage:
A. during the first eight weeks of development
B. during the 9th through 18th weeks of development.
C. during the second trimester.
D. during the third trimester.
3.96 The effects of teratogens on fetal development depend on several factors including the type and amount of the substance, the duration of exposure, the time of exposure, and the mother's physiological condition.
a. CORRECT Teratogens can have a negative effect on fetal development during the entire pregnancy, but their consequences are much more severe during critical periods of development when the organ system is growing most rapidly. The critical period varies from organ to organ, but generally occurs within the first eight weeks of development. (An exception is the central nervous system, which has a critical period that extends into the 16th week of development.)
3.97 Anosognosia is best described as an impairment in:
D. visual perception
3.97 Anosognosia is most often caused by brain trauma that affects the right hemisphere of the brain. It involves a lack of awareness of symptoms on the left side of one's body.
c. CORRECT Anosognosia is defined as a deficit in self-awareness and, more specifically, awareness of one's own symptoms.
3.98 A researcher uses a factorial ANOVA to statistically analyze the effects of four types of training strategies and three levels of self-efficacy on a measure of job performance. The results indicate that there are significant main effects of each independent variable and a significant interaction. The researcher will conclude that:
A. training is effective regardless of level of self-efficacy.
B. each type of training is equally effective for each level of self-efficacy.
C. the most effective type of training depends on level of self-efficacy
D. overall, training is effective only for people with a certain level of self-efficacy.
3.98 To answer this question correctly, you need to know that an interaction occurs when the effects of one independent variable differ for different levels of another independent variable.
c. CORRECT Because the interaction is significant, this means that the effects of training type may differ for different levels of self-efficacy --e.g., training method #1 might be most effective for people with low self-efficacy, while training method #2 might be most effective for people with high self-efficacy.
3.99 Tyrone and Tyree are 9 year old twins. Their mother has worked as a bank teller since they were two years old. In comparison to children whose mothers do not work outside the home, you would expect Tyrone and Tyree to:
A. be less securely attached to their mother.
B. have higher levels of performance on cognitive tests.
C. exhibit delays in the development of gender constancy.
D. have fewer gender-role stereotypes
3.99 The impact of maternal employment on child development has been found to be affected by several factors including the gender of the child and the family's socioeconomic status.
b. Incorrect Maternal employment has been associated with positive outcomes for cognitive development for boys from low-SES families but possibly negative oucomes for boys from higher-SES families.
d. CORRECT One of the more consistent findings about maternal employment is that the children of working mothers have more flexible ideas about what behaviors are acceptable for males and females.
3.100 The Buckley Amendment:
A. establishes the right of the school psychologist to determine who should have access to information included in school records.
B. establishes the right of parents to inspect the school records of their children
C. establishes the right of patients or their legal representatives to have access to their hospital records.
D. requires that parental consent be obtained before a student can be subjected to a psychological or psychiatric examination.
3.100 The Buckley Amendment is another name for the Family Education Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA).
b. CORRECT Among other things, the Buckley Amendment states that any school district may be denied federal funds if parents of students (or other legal guardians) or students who have reached the age of majority are not given access to their school records. It also prohibits disclosure of school records to unauthorized individuals without parental consent. See the chapter on ethics and professional issues in the written study materials for additional information on the Buckley Amendment.
3.101 Anna A., age 48, is referred to you by a physician who can find no physical explanation for her complaints, which include headaches, fatigue, loss of appetite, and impaired concentration. When you interview Anna, she tells you that her symptoms began about three weeks ago. Anna is afraid she has cancer despite the physician’s lack of findings, and she says she’s having trouble sleeping and working because she’s so worried about her health. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis for Anna is which of the following?
A. Major Depressive Disorder
B. Conversion Disorder
C. Cyclothymic Disorder
D. Somatization Disorder
3.101 This question is typical of the differential diagnosis questions you're likely to encounter on the exam.
a. CORRECT Sleep and appetite disturbances, physical complaints, and concern about one's physical health in the absence of a physical explanation for one’s symptoms are most suggestive of Major Depressive Disorder.
b. Incorrect Conversion Disorder involves symptoms suggestive of a neurological disorder or general medical condition but that are believed to be due to or maintained by psychological factors (i.e., to primary and secondary gain). An individual with Conversion Disorder is often indifferent to his/her symptoms.
c. Incorrect Cyclothymic Disorder involves depressive and hypomanic episodes that have persisted for at least 2 years.
d. Incorrect Somatization Disorder has an onset prior to age 30 and involves the presence of multiple somatic symptoms that have persisted for several years and cannot be explained by physical factors. The onset and duration of Anna’s symptoms do not support a diagnosis of Somatization Disorder.
3.102 Helms’s (1995) White Racial Identity Development Model distinguishes between six statuses. The first status is:
B. integrative awareness
3.102 Helms’s six identity statuses are contact, disintegration, reintegration, pseudo-independence, immersion/emersion, and autonomy. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the order and characteristics of the six statuses, and this information is provided in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
d. CORRECT Contact is the first status in Helms’s model. It is characterized by a lack of awareness of racial identity and often by racist attitudes and beliefs.
3.103 The phenomena known as retroactive and proactive interference are most useful for understanding which of the following?
A. habituation versus sensitization
B. anterograde amnesia
C. memory consolidation
D. forgetting (loss of memory)
3.103 Retroactive and proactive interference provide an alternative explanation to trace decay theory for the inability to recall previously acquired information.
d. CORRECT Proactive interference occurs when previously learned information hinders the ability to recall information learned more recently; while retroactive interference occurs when information acquired more recently hinders the ability to recall previously acquired information.
3.104 The minimum and maximum values of the standard error of estimate are:
A. -1 and +1
B. 0 and 1
C. 0 and standard deviation of the criterion
D. 0 and the standard deviation of the predictor.
3.104 Knowing the formula for the standard error of estimate may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. The formula is given in the Test Construction chapter of the written study materials.
c. CORRECT The standard error of estimate equals the standard deviation of Y (the criterion) times the square root of 1 minus the validity coefficient squared. When the validity coefficient is 1, the standard error equals 0 (there is no error), and when the validity coefficient is 0, the standard error equals the standard deviation of the criterion scores.
3.105 A grade of “A” is assigned to examinees who score between 90 and 100 on a test, “B” to examinees who score between 80 and 89, “C” to examinees who score between 70 and 79, “D” to examinees who score between 60 and 69, and “F” to examinees who score below 60. This method of assigning letter grades is most similar to which of the following?
A. score banding
B. score profiling
C. subgroup norming
D. within-group norming
3.105 The method of assigning letter grades described in this question involves treating examinees who obtain scores within certain limits ("bands") as being equivalent in terms of test performance.
a. CORRECT Banding is one way to reduce the impact of score differences that are due to fluctuations in scores that do not provide meaningful information about differences between examinees.
3.106 Data from the National Health Care Survey indicate that, in general, central nervous system medications are most often prescribed for patients in which of the following ambulatory care settings?
A. primary care offices
B. medical specialty offices
C. hospital outpatient departments
D. hospital emergency departments
3.106 Data on ambulatory medical care visits in the United States is collected yearly by the National Center on Health Statistics and released in several reports [S. Raofi and S. M. Schappert, Medication therapy in ambulatory medical care: United States, 2003-04,Vital Health Stat, 13(163), 2006].
a. CORRECT The surveys have consistently shown that, overall, central nervous system medications are most frequently provided, prescribed, or continued at ambulatory care visits in primary care offices, followed by medical specialty offices. There are a few exceptions to this general conclusion for specific types of CNS medications, however – e.g., antipsychotics and antimanics are more often provided or prescribed in medical specialty offices, which include the offices of psychiatrists and neurologists.
3.107 Sexual activity among older adults is most related to:
A. sexual activity earlier in life
B. attitudes toward sex and sexuality.
C. interest in sex.
D. overall life satisfaction.
3.107 The research has found that several factors are determinants of sexual activity in old age. These factors include physical health, the availability of a partner, and past sexual activity.
a. CORRECT Once again, past behavior is a good predictor of future behavior: The research indicates that sexual activity in mid-life and earlier is a good predictor of activity in old age, especially for males.
b. Incorrect This is not as good a predictor as past activity, especially for males.
c. Incorrect Interest often exceeds activity.
d. Incorrect This is not as good a predictor as past activity.
3.108 As defined by Horn and Cattell (1966), fluid intelligence refers to:
A. school-acquired knowledge.
B. the ability to solve novel problems
C. narrow (versus broad) cognitive abilities.
D. social intelligence.
3.108 Horn and Cattell distinguished between crystallized and fluid intelligence.
a. Incorrect This describes crystallized intelligence.
b. CORRECT As defined by Horn and Cattell, fluid intelligence refers to the ability to solve novel problems that do not reflect formal schooling. Note that, more recently, the term fluid intelligence has been narrowed by some experts to mean reasoning ability.
c. Incorrect This is not consistent with Horn and Cattell's definition of fluid intelligence.
d. Incorrect This also does not define fluid intelligence.
3.109 The various approaches to behavior family therapy differ with regard to goals and strategies but most share a focus on which of the following?
A. helping family members develop new meanings for problematic behaviors.
B. using resistance and paradox to alter maladaptive behaviors.
C. altering transactional patterns as a means of fostering insight.
D. enhancing problem-solving and communication skills
3.109 Behavioral approaches to family therapy combine principles of operant conditioning, social learning theory, and social exchange theory.
d. CORRECT Behavioral family therapies focus on observable behaviors and use contingent reinforcement and other behavioral techniques to modify behaviors, especially those related to problem-solving and communication.
3.110 A predictors ________ is calculated by dividing the number of tree positives by the number of true positives plus false negatives.
A. positive predictive value
B. negative predictive value
3.110 The accuracy of a predictor can be described in terms of its sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, and negative predictive value.
a. Incorrect A predictor’s positive predictive value indicates the probability that an individual identified as a positive is a true positive. It is calculated by dividing the number of true positives by the number of true and false positives.
b. Incorrect A predictor’s negative predictive value indicates the probability that an individual identified as a negative is a true negative. It is calculated by dividing the number of true negatives by the number of true and false negatives.
c. CORRECT A predictor’s sensitivity refers to the proportion of individuals in the validation sample who have the characteristic measured by the predictor and were accurately identified by the predictor as having that characteristic. It provides an index of the predictor’s ability to identify true positives. Sensitivity is calculated by dividing the number of true positives by the number of true positives plus false negatives.
d. Incorrect A predictor’s specificity refers to the proportion of individuals in the validation sample without the characteristic measured by the predictor who were correctly identified by the predictor as not having that characteristic. It provides an index of the predictor’s ability to identify true negatives. Specificity is calculated by dividing the number of true negatives by the number of true negatives plus false positives.
3.111 As defined by the DSM-IV-TR, “primary gain” is a goal of which of the following disorders?
A. Conversion Disorder
B. Factitious Disorder
3.111 A person achieves primary gain by keeping an internal conflict or need out of awareness.
a. CORRECT The DSM identifies two mechanisms that may be related to Conversion Disorder: primary gain and secondary gain. Primary gain is achieved through the symbolic expression of an underlying conflict in a physical symptom such as paralysis or blindness.
3.112 Fritz Perls and Laura Posner Perls were co-founders of:
A. Gestalt therapy
B. reality therapy
C. solution-focused brief therapy
D. transactional analysis
3.112 The exam may include a couple of questions that simply require you to have a name linked to a theory or therapeutic approach. Like this one, these questions will ask about a well-known person.
a. CORRECT For the exam, you want to have the name Perls associated with Gestalt therapy.
b. Incorrect William Glasser was the founder of reality therapy.
c. Incorrect Steve de Shazer and Insoo Kim Berg were co-founders of solution-focused brief therapy.
d. Incorrect Eric Berne was the founder of transactional analysis.
3.113 Research with the mice suggests that the pleasurable effects of cocaine are mediated by ______ and serotonin?
3.113 As long as you are familiar with the major functions of the various neurotransmitters, you wouldn't have to be familiar with research using mice to have identified the correct response to this question.
c. CORRECT Research by B. A. Rocha et al. [Cocaine self-administration in dopamine-transporter knockout mice, Nature, 1(2), 132-137, 1998] confirmed that dopamine plays an important role in cocaine addiction. It also found that other neurotransmitters--especially serotonin--are involved.
3.114 The tendency to seek or pay attention only to information that confirms our beliefs is referred to as:
A. functional fixedness.
B. belief perseverance.
C. the self-serving bias.
D. the confirmation bias
3.114 Research has identified a number of biases that impact our judgments and decisions.
a. Incorrect Functional fixedness refers to the tendency to think of objects only in terms of their usual functions.
b. Incorrect Belief perseverance is the tendency to continue adhering to a belief even when the belief has been discredited.
c. Incorrect The self-serving bias is the tendency to make attributions about oneself that maintain one’s self-esteem – e.g., to attribute positive outcomes to dispositional factors but negative outcomes to situational factors.
d. CORRECT The confirmation bias occurs when we commit ourselves to one explanation or hypothesis about a phenomenon without adequately considering or testing other possibilities.
3.115 Social comparison theory’s predictions about behavior are particularly applicable to:
A. situations involving uncertainty
B. inequitable situations.
C. people who are working on a difficult task.
D. people who belong to a cohesive group.
3.115 According to social comparison theory, people evaluate their own attitudes, abilities, and emotions by comparing themselves with similar others.
a. CORRECT Social comparison theory applies to a variety of situations but, as noted in the Social Psychology chapter of the written study materials, seems to be particularly applicable to situations that lack objective standards (i.e., to uncertain situations).
3.116 When a test has high sensitivity, this means that there is a:
A. low chance of false negatives and high chance of false positives
B. low chance of false negatives and low chance of false positives.
C. high chance of false negatives and high chance of false positives.
D. high chance of false negatives and low chance of false positives.
3.116 Drawing a scattergram (like the one in the Test Construction chapter) would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. CORRECT Sensitivity refers to the proportion of people with the condition who are correctly identified by the test and is calculated by dividing the true positives by the true positives plus false negatives. When the sensitivity is high, this means that most of the people with the disorder will be identified as having the disorder by the test (i.e., there will be few false negatives) but that there will be some people without the disorder who will also be identified as having the disorder (i.e., there will be some false positives).
d. Incorrect Specificity refers to the proportion of people who do not have the condition who are correctly identified by the test. When a test has high specificity, there is a high chance of false negatives and low chance of false positives.
3.117 In general, peer pressure reaches its peak in intensity during:
A. preadolescence (ages 10 to 13).
B. early adolescence (ages 13 to 15)
C. middle adolescence (ages 15 to 17).
D. late adolescence (ages 17 to 19).
3.117 The age at which conformity to peer pressure peaks varies somewhat for different types of behavior but, for most behaviors, it is most intense at around age 14 or 15.
b. CORRECT Peer pressure increases during preadolescence, peaks during early adolescence (ages 13 to 15), and then gradually declines.