Topic 1 Flashcards

(60 cards)

1
Q

Articulating shoulder bones

A

Scapula, Humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Articulating elbow bones

A

Humerus, Radius, Ulna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Articulating wrist bones

A

Radius, Ulna, Carpals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Articulating hip bones

A

Pelvis, Femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Articulating knee bones

A

Femur, Tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Articulating ankle bones

A

Fibula, Tibia, Tarsals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Ball and socket joint

A

A ball shaped head of one bone articulate with a cup like socket of another
Movement occurs on three planes
Allows greatest range of movements
E.g - Shoulder, Hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hinge joint

A

Movement occurs on one plane (sagittal)
Bending and straightening only
E.g - Elbow, Knee, Ankle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define fixator

A

A muscle which stabilises the origin of the agonist so the agonist can pull against the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a motor unit

A

A motor unit is made up of a motor neurone (nerve) and the muscle fibres it activates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a motor neuron

A

A nerve cell that conducts the nerve impulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the action potential

A

A positive electric charge that stimulates muscle fibres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the synaptic cleft

A

The gap between the motor end plate and the muscle fibres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the neurotransmitter and what is it’s role

A

Acetylcholine - chemical to transmit across the synaptic cleft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe resting potential

A

When the neurone is not conducting an impulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe Repolarisation

A

When sodium ions stop entering the neurone, and also potassium Ions (K+) diffuse into the neurone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe depolarisation

A

When sufficient Sodium ions (Na+) diffuse into the neurone so the charge within the neurone changes which generates the action potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Explain the stages of the nervous stimulation of the motor unit

A

1 - A stimuli is received from the CNS by the dendrites
2 - A positive electrical charge inside the neurone conducts the impulse down the neurone
3 - The impulse is passed down the axon from one node of Ranvier to the next
4 - This is know as saltatory conduction
5 - The action potential reaches the synaptic cleft
6 - Acetylcholine is secreted into the synaptic cleft
7 - Conducting the impulse across the gap
8 - If the electrical charge is above the threshold, the muscle fibre will contract
9 - This happens in an all or none fashion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe the stages of electrical conduction

A

1 - The SA node indicates the impulse
2 - The impulse spreads along the atria causing atrioventricular systole
3 - The impulse is picked up by the AV node
4 - Impulse then travels down the bundle of His
5 - Then along the purkinje fibres causing ventricular systole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the 3 types of cardiac control

A

Neural control

Normal - adrenaline

Intrinsic control - Temperature etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the 3 receptors in the CCC

A

Baro receptors - detect increase in blood pressure

Proprio receptors - detect increase in movement

Chemo receptors - detect increase in CO2, decrease in pH, decrease in O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define heart rate (HR)

A

Beats per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define stroke volume (SV)

A

Amount of blood ejected per beat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Define cardiac output (Q)

A

Amount of blood ejected per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the equation for cardiac outpu
HEART RATE X STROKE VOLUME = CARDIAC OUTPUT
26
Heart rate values
Resting value - 72 Trained athlete - 60 Maximum value - 220 minus age
27
Stroke volume values
Resting value - 70ml Trained athlete - 83ml Maximum value - 100ml Trained athlete - 200ml
28
Cardiac output values
Resting value - 5L Trained athlete - 5L Maximum value - 20L/min Trained athlete - 40L/min
29
What 2 factors affect SV
Venous Return Starling’s Law
30
What is Starling’s law
As venous return increases, end diastolic volume(EDV) increases therefore the cardiac muscle is stretched and contract with greater force - like an elastic band
31
What is Venous Return
If VR increases, SV increases Blood returning to the heart increases (specifically via the vena cava)
32
What are the mechanisms of Venous Return
Pocket valves in veins Skeletal muscle pump Respiratory pump Gravity
33
Arteries
- Away from the heart - Muscular wall - Elastic - Small Lumen
34
Capillaries
- One cell thick | - Where gaseous exchange takes place
35
Veins
- Return to the heart - Large lumen - Pocket valves
36
What is the vascular shunt mechanism
The redistribution of blood flow, during exercise and recovery During rest (5L) - 20% of blood flow goes to the muscles, 80% of blood flow goes to the organs During exercise (30L) - 80% of blood flow goes to the muscles, 20% of blood flow goes to the organs
37
What is responsible for vascular shunt
Vasomotor control centre Receptors send information to the VCC which send an impulse through the sympathetic nervous system to the arteries and pre capillary sphincters to vasodilator or vasoconstrict to control blood flow
38
Where are the pre capillary sphincters
At each end of the muscles
39
Describe the pathway of air
nasal cavity - oral pharynx + larynx - trachea - primary bronchi - bronchioles - respiratory bronchioles - alveolar duct - alveoli - pulmonary capillary - red blood cells
40
Define tidal volume
The normal amount of air you breathe in and out during inhalation and exhalation
41
Define inspiratory reserve volume
The addition air you can breathe in after a normal inhalation
42
Define expiratory reserve volume
The additional air you can breathe out after a normal exhalation
43
Define residual volume
The amount of air that always stays in your lungs to keep them from collapsing - about 1.2L
44
Define vital capacity
The maximum amount of air a person can expel from the lungs after a maximum inhalation
45
What is the equation for minute ventilation
TIDAL VOLUME X FREQUENCY OF BREATHES = MINUTE VENTILATION
46
Inspiration at rest
The external inter-costal muscles contract Causing the ribs to move up and out The diaphragm contracts and flattens This increases lung volume (thoracic capacity) Thus causes the pressure in the lungs to decrease Creating a pressure gradient So air rushes into the lungs
47
Expiration at rest
``` Internal inter-costal muscles relax Causing the ribs to move down and in The diaphragm relaxes and moves up (dome shaped) This causes lung volume to decrease So pressure in the lungs increase Causing air to move out of the lungs ```
48
Inspiration during exercise
External inter-costals contract with GREATER force Sternocleidomastoid, scalenes, pectoralis major also contract This causes the ribs to move out FURTHER Diaphragm contracts with GREATER force and pulls down FURTHER Causing a GREATER lung volume with LOWER pressure This creates a LARGER pressure gradient so MORE air moves in quicker
49
Expiration during exercise | Only active process
Internal inter-costals contract with GREATER force Pushing the ribs down and in FURTHER Abdominals contract pushing the diaphragm up FURTHER This makes lung volume SMALLER making the pressure HIGHER Creating a LARGER pressure gradient So MORE air moves out quicker
50
What is ATP
Adenosine triphosphate - It’s the only energy our muscles can use Lasts only 2 seconds so must be resynthesised This is done by the 3 energy systems
51
The PC system
``` Type of reaction - Anaerobic Time - 10 seconds Fuelled by - Phosphocreatine Site of reaction - Sarcoplasm Enzyme - Creatine kinase Yield - 1:1 By products - none Activity - 100m sprint ```
52
Stage of the pc system
PC is broken down by creatine kinase to form creatine, phosphorus and ENERGY
53
Advantages of the PC system
- Quick and fast - PC is readily available - Good for high intensity
54
Disadvantages of the PC system
- Produces a low yield - Runs out very quickly - Low duration
55
Glycolytic (Lactic acid) system
``` Type of reaction - Anaerobic Time - 10s to 3 minutes (peaks at 1 minute) Fuelled by - Glycogen Site of reaction - Sarcoplasm Enzyme - GPP, PFK, LDH Yield - 2 ATP By products - Lactic acid Activity - 400m ```
56
Stages of the glycolytic system
Glycogen is broken down by GPP to glucose Glucose is broken down by PFK to pyruvic acid Pyruvic avid is broken down by LDH to lactic acid (PFK DOESN’T WORK IN ACIDIC CONDITIONS SO THE REACTION STOPS ITSELF)
57
Advantages of the glycolytic system
- Quick energy release (not as quick as PC) | - Glycogen is readily available
58
Disadvantages of the glycolytic system
- It’s time limited (10s - 3 min) | - Acidity from LA stops system from working
59
The aerobic system
``` Type of reaction - Aerobic Time - 3 minutes+ Fuelled by - Carbohydrates and fats Site of reaction - Sarcoplasm and mitochondria Enzyme - GPP, PFK Yield - 38 ATP (carbs) 131 (fats - less complex, quicker to break down) By products - CO2, water Activity - Marathon runner ```
60
Stages of the aerobic system
Glycolysis produce 2 ATP in the sarcoplasm I V Krebs cycle produces 2 ATP in the mitochondria I V Electron transport system produces 34 ATP in the mitochondria