Topic 3 completed Flashcards

(115 cards)

1
Q

what are the 12 organelles found in an animal cell?

A

rough endoplasmic reticulum, smooth endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, ribosomes, nucleus, nucleolus, centriole, plasma membrane, lysosome, nuclear envelope, cytoplasm, mitochondrion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the 4 features that all living cells have?

A

cell surface membrane, cytoplasm, ribosomes, DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what type of cell are animal cells?

A

eukaryotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

describe the nucleus

A

large organelle surrounded with nuclear envelope (double membrane), contains chromatin and the nucleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the function of the nucleus?

A

controls cells activities by controlling transcription, nucleolus makes ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

describe the lysosome

A

round organelle, surrounded with a membrane, has no clear internal structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the function of a lysosome?

A

contains digestive enzymes, used to digest invading cells or break down worn out components of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what happens to the lysosome after its contents has been digested?

A

lysosome fuses with cell membrane
contents of lysosome released from the cell via exocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

describe a ribosome

A

small organelle, can float free or be attached to RER, made up of proteins and RNA, no membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the function of a ribosome?

A

site of translation (where proteins are made)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

describe a rough endoplasmic reticulum

A

system of membranes enclosing a fluid- filled space, surface covered with ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the function the rough endoplasmic reticulum?

A

folds and processes proteins which have been made at the ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

describe the smooth endoplasmic reticulum

A

a system of fluid filled membranes enclosing a fluid filled space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

A

synthesises and processes lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

describe the golgi apparatus

A

a group of fluid filled, membrane bound, flattened sacs, vesicles seen at edges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the function of the golgi apparatus?

A

modifies and packages new lipids and proteins, and makes lysosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

describe the structure of the mitochondrion

A

oval shaped, double membrane, inner membrane folds into the matrix to form cristae, matrix contains enzymes for respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the function of a mitochondria?

A

site of aerobic respiration, where ATP is produced, large numbers are found in very active cells that require lots of energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which types of cell have mitochondria?

A

plant and animal- not bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

describe a centriole

A

small, hollow structures, made of microtubules, found in animals, produce spindle fibre network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the secretory pathway?

A

ribosomes produced in nucleolus
proteins made at a ribosome
proteins produced at rough ER are folded and processed (e.g. sugar chains added) in the rough ER
transported from the rER to the Golgi apparatus in vesicles
Golgi modifies protein (carbohydrates added to form glycoprotein)
Golgi packages protein into vesicle to leave the cell
vesicle fuses with cell membrane and proteins leaves cell via exocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If a protein is made on a ribosome on the RER, where does it go?

A

out of the cell or into cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If a protein is made on a free ribosome, where does it go?

A

it stays in the cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the 9 features of a prokaryotic cell?

A

70s ribosomes, flagella, circular DNA, plasmids, mesosomes, cell walls (peptidoglycan for bacteria), slime capsule, pili, plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
does the cytoplasm of a prokaryote have membrane bound organelles?
no
26
what is the function of flagella?
rotate to make the cell move some cells have multiple and some will have none
27
describe the DNA in a prokaryotic cell
free floating circular DNA (one long coiled-up strand) not attached to any histone proteins
28
what are plasmids?
small, circular loops of DNA which contain genes for things such as antibiotic resistance and can be passed easily between prokaryotes
29
what are mesosomes?
inward folds of plasma membrane- unsure of function but may have a role in cellular processes such as respiration
30
what is the function of a slime capsule?
helps to protect bacteria from immune system cells
31
what are pili?
short hair-like structures which help stick prokaryotes to other cells and used in gene transfer between cells
32
what are the advantages of light microscopes?
uses light so sample can be living cheaper smaller
33
what are the advantages of an electron microscope?
higher resolution- gives a more detailed image high max magnification- can see small organelles such as lysosomes
34
what are the 2 types of electron microscope?
transmission electron microscope- denser parts absorb more electrons and look darker, give high resolution images, thin samples only scanning electron microscope- can give 3D images, thick specimens, lower resolution
35
define a tissue
a group of one type of cell that are specially adapted to work together to carry out a particular function
36
give an example of a plant tissue
xylem tissue
37
define organ
a group of different tissues that work together to perform a particular function
38
give an example of a plant organ
the leaf
39
what are the layers in a leaf cross section?
waxy cuticle upper epidermis palisade mesophyll spongy mesophyll lower epidermis
40
define organ system
a group of organs with related functions working together to perform body functions within the body
41
give an example of an organ system
the circulatory system- made up of the heart, arteries, veins and capillaries to supply the body with blood
42
what does mitosis produce?
2 genetically identical diploid daughter cells needed for growth, repair and asexual reproduction
43
what are the stages of the cell cycle?
interphase and mitosis
44
what are the stages of interphase?
gap phase 1, synthesis, gap phase 2
45
what happens in gap phase 1?
cell grows and new organelles and proteins made
46
what happens in synthesis?
cell replicates its DNA, ready to divide by mitosis
47
what happens in gap phase 2?
cell keeps growing, new organelles and proteins needed for cell division are made, cell prepares to divide
48
what are the stages of mitosis?
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
49
what happens during prophase?
chromosomes condense, centrioles move to poles of cell and form a network of spindle fibres, nuclear envelope breaks down
50
what happens in metaphase?
chromosomes line up along middle of cell and spindle fibres attach to their centromere
51
what happens during anaphase?
centromeres divide- separating sister chromatids, spindle fibres contract pull chromatids to poles centromere first (V-shape)
52
what would happen if the spindle fibres couldn't shorten?
chromatids cannot be separated, anaphase cannot occur, mitosis will not be completed
53
what happens during telophase?
chromatids uncoil in poles, now called chromosomes, nuclear envelopes form around the 2 groups, cytoplasm divides (cytokinesis)
54
which chemical signals are used to move from one stage of mitosis to the next?
cyclins
55
what are spindle fibres made from?
microtubules
56
why is HCl used in the mitosis core practical?
to break down middle lamella, to allow cells to be separated, to allow light to pass through
57
why is a stain used in the mitosis core practical?
makes chromosomes visible, so stages of mitosis can be identified
58
how many chromosomes does a human gamete have?
23
59
how is an egg cell adapted for its function?
zona pellucida- protective glycoprotein layer that sperm have to penetrate, hardens once they have entered, prevents polyspermy haploid nucleus- containing 23 chromosomes follicle cells- protective layer cortical granules- release substances which cause the zona pellucida to harden cytoplasm- contains nutrients and provides energy for the zygote after fertilisation
60
how is a sperm cell adapted for its function?
mid piece contains may mitochondria to provide flagellum lots of energy to rotate and move the cell (through respiration) acrosome contains digestive enzymes which breakdown the zona pellucida and allow the sperm to fertilise the cell haploid nucleus- contains 23 chromosomes flagellum for movement
61
what are the stages of fertilisation?
sperm makes contact with the zona pellucida (in the oviduct) and the acrosome reaction occurs (acrosome fuses with sperm cell membrane, digestive enzymes are released, enzymes breakdown zona pellucida) sperm head fuses with the cell membrane which triggers the cortical reaction (egg cell releases cortical granules from vesicles into the space between the cell membrane and the zona pellucida) the cortical granules cause the zona pellucida to thicken and harden, preventing polyspermy the sperm nucleus enters the cell and fuses with the nucleus of the egg cell a zygote forms
62
what does meiosis produce?
4 genetically different haploid daughter cells
63
what are the stages of meiosis?
1- DNA replicates so there's 2 identical copies of each chromosome 2- DNA condenses into double armed chromosomes 3- chromosomes arrange into homologous pairs 4- first division homologous pairs separated, halving chromosome number 5- second division sister chromatids separated
64
what 2 processes make gametes genetically different?
crossing over of chromatids and independent assortment of chromosomes
65
what is the point where the non-sister chromatids crossover?
chiasmata
66
how does crossing over of chromatids create genetic variation?
before the first division the homologous pairs pair up two of the chromatids in each homologous pair twist around each other the twisted bits break off their original chromatid and rejoin onto the other, recombining their genetic material the chromatids have the same genes but a different combination of alleles
67
what is the key point of crossing over?
exchange of alleles between non-sister chromatids to create different combinations of alleles
68
how does independent assortment create genetic variation?
the chromosomes are randomly sorted into each cell so different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes, with different alleles go into each cell
69
what is the key point of independent assortment?
random arrangement of paternal and maternal chromosomes so different combinations of paternal and maternal DNA is inherited
70
what is meant by the term linked in genetics?
genes with loci on the same chromosomes are linked because they will stay together during independent assortment and are more likely to stay together through crossing over so the alleles are likely to be inherited together
71
define locus
the position of a gene on a chromosome
72
what is meant by the term sex-linked?
when the locus of the allele that codes for the characteristic is on a sex chromosome expression of trait is affected by gender-males only receive 1 copy but females 2
73
why are most genes on the X chromosomes only found on the x and not the Y as well?
the X chromosome is much bigger (the Y chromosome doesn't have enough room)
74
why are males more likely than females to shown recessive genotypes for genes that are sex-linked?
males only have one X chromosome and so only have one allele for sex linked genes. Males have 50% chance of being recessive but females 25%
75
what are stem cells?
unspecialised cells that can develop into other types of cell with unlimited divisions
76
define totipotency
the ability to differentiate into all cell types including extra-embryonic cells
77
define pluripotency
the ability of a stem cell to produce all the specialised cells in an organism but not extraembryonic cells
78
what is the source of pluripotent stem cells?
blastocyst
79
what are the 2 main differences between benign and malignant tumours?
malignant are cancerous and can spread (metastasize) but benign aren't cancerous and don't spread
80
what type of stem cells can give rise to a whole organism?
totipotent, not pluripotent
81
which type of stem cell has some inactivated genes?
pluripotent
82
which type of stem cell has no inactivated genes?
totipotent
83
how do stem cells become specialised?
stem cells all contain the same genes but not all are active (and expressed) under different conditions, some genes are activated and some are inactivated mRNA is only transcribed from active genes the mRNA is then translated into proteins the proteins modify the cell changes caused by the proteins make the cell specialised and the changes are difficult to reverse so a cell has to stay specialised
84
what are transcription factors?
proteins that bind to operator regions on DNA and activate or deactivate genes
85
what causes transcription factors to bind to promoter regions?
stimuli (hormones) or changes in external or internal environment (blood pH, temperature)
86
what are the 2 types of transcription factors? And what do they do?
activators- increase the rate of transcription by encouraging RNA polymerase bind to the DNA repressors- decrease the rate of transcription by preventing RNA polymerase from binding and so stopping transcription
87
how does gene expression differ between eukaryotes and prokaryotes?
in eukaryotes transcription factors bind to specific DNA sites near the start of their target genes in prokaryotes transcription factors bind to operons
88
what is an operon?
a section of DNA that contains a cluster of structural genes, that are transcribed together as well as control elements and sometimes a regulatory gene
89
what does RNA polymerase bind to on an operon?
the promoter region
90
where does the repressor protein bind on the lac operon?
the operator region
91
what do structural genes code for?
useful proteins such as an enzyme
92
what are the 2 types of control element in an operon and what do they do?
promoter- a DNA sequence located before the structural genes, where RNA polymerase binds to operator- a DNA sequence that transcription factors bind to
93
what do regulatory genes code for?
an activator or repressor
94
what happens at the lac operon in E.coli when lactose is not present?
the regulatory gene (lacI) is transcribed to produce lac repressor protein repressor protein binds to operator this blocks RNA polymerase from transcribing the rest of the operon as RNA polymerase cannot bind the the promotor so no enzyme is produced
95
what happens at the lac operon in E.coli when lactose is present?
the regulatory gene (lacI) is transcribed to produce lac repressor protein lactose binds to the repressor protein and changes its shape, this prevents the repressor protein binding to the operator site RNA polymerase binds to promotor region and transcribes structural genes to produce B-galactosidase
96
how are/will stem cells be used in medicine?
leukaemia- bone marrow transplants mean damaged/dead stem cells can be replaced spinal cord injuries- stem cells could be used to repair damaged nerve tissue heart disease- stem cells could be used to replace damaged heart tissue
97
what are the 2 types of human stem cells?
adult and embryonic
98
describe adult stem cells
found in bone marrow obtained by inserting a needle into the centre of a bone- low risk but painful aren't as flexible as embryonic as can only differentiate into a limited range of cells less risk of rejection if using stem cells from the same person (different area)
99
describe embryonic stem cells
obtained from early embryos 4-5 days old embryos created in a lab using IVF the rest of the embryo is destroyed can develop into all types of cell
100
what are the ethical issues of embryonic stem cells?
mean destruction of a viable embryo some people believe right to life starts at fertilisation
101
regulatory bodies have been stablished for embryonic stem cell research, what do they do?
look at proposals of research to make sure the embryos are being used for a good reason and make sure research isn't unnecessarily repeated licensing and monitoring centres- to ensure only fully trained staff have access to the embryos
102
what is continuous variation?
when the individuals in a population vary within a range- there are no distinct categories
103
give 3 examples of continuous variation
mass, height, skin colour
104
what is discontinuous variation?
where there are two or more distinct categories and each individual falls into one category
105
give an example of discontinuous variation
blood group
106
what is monogenic?
when a characteristic is controlled by one gene- usually show discontinuous variation
107
what is polygenic?
when a characteristic is controlled by a number of genes at different loci- usually show continuous variation and is more common
108
what is variation in phenotype influenced by?
genotype and the environment
109
give 4 ways in which the environment affects the phenotype
nutrition- can increase height Monoamine Oxidase (MAOA)- enzyme which breaks down monoamines, low MAOA levels are linked to mental health issues, levels can be reduced by smoking diet- can increase the risk of some cancers temperature- changes in temperature lead to some artic animals having darker hair in the summer and lighter hair in the winter
110
what is epigenetic control?
controls which genes are expressed by adding or removing chemical groups from the DNA - altering the phenotype
111
what is methylation?
adds a methyl group to the DNA always added to a CpG site (where cytosine and guanine are next to each other in the DNA) increased methylation prevents RNA polymerase binding to the DNA and so prevents transcription- gene is repressed/inactivated
112
what are histones?
proteins which DNA wrap around to form chromatin (which makes up chromosomes) if the chromatin is highly condensed the enzymes cannot bind and transcription does not occur
113
what is acetylation?
when the histones are acetylated the chromatin is less condensed, RNA polymerase can bind, transcription occurs, genes are activated when the acetyl groups are removed the chromatin becomes highly condensed, RNA polymerase cannot bind, transcription doesn't occur, gene repressed/ inactivated
114
can epigenetic changes be passed on through cell division?
sometimes it can be- this would mean the certain genes are activated or deactivated and the daughter cell will be equipped to deal with the changed environment in the same as the original cell
115
what are the 2 types of epigenetic changes?
DNA methylation and histone modification/acetylation