Training Management Module

Question 1

What are the 3 Training Domains?

Answer 1

1. Institutional Training Domain (Education/PME, instills Army Profession, Ethics, Character)
2. Operational Training Domain (Training - leaders undergo the bulk of their development)
3. Self Development Training Domain (experience - structured, guided, personal, bridges the gap between operational and institutional domains)

Question 2

What are the 4 steps of the Training Management Cycle?

Answer 2

1. Prioritize Training
2. Planning and Preparation
3. Execution
4. Evaluation and Assessment of Training

Question 3

Units train to which 3 proficienies?

Answer 3

1. MET Proficiency
2. Weapons Proficiency
3. Collective Live-Fire Proficiency

Question 4

What is a training objective?

Answer 4

a statement that describes a desired outcome of a training event

Question 5

Senior Leader’s guidance and vision is based on a comprehensive understanding of the what considerations?

Answer 5

1. Require subordinates to understand and perform their roles in training
2. Train one echelon down, evaluate two echelons down
3. Resource and protect approved training
4. Develop subordinates
5. Train to standard
6. Top-down, bottom-up approach to training

Question 6

What are the 9 principles of training?

Answer 6

1. Commanders are the primary trainers
2. NCOs train individuals, crews, and small teams; advise commanders on all aspects of training
3. Train using multi-echelon techniques to maximize time and resource effeciency
4. Train as a combined arms team
5. Train to standard using appropriate doctrine
6. Train as you fight
7. Sustain levels of training proficiency over time
8. Train to maintain
9. Fight to train

Question 7

In the Leader’s role in execution, Commanders and leaders must what?

Answer 7

1. Be present and actively engaged in training
2. Demonstrate tactical and technical proficiency
3. Ensure training is conducted to standard as prescribed in Army training and evaluation outlines (T&EOs) and applicable weapon system publications
4. Ensure training is led by trained and certified officers and NCOs
5. Protect training by eliminating distractions
6. Effectively manage risk by continuously reviewing risk assessment and managing mitigation and control measures

Question 8

What is the purpose of the Battlefield Focus Analysis program?

Answer 8

BFA ensures CSU’s training focuses on the requirements of the warfighting GCCs. Commanders at each level must be involved in this process

Question 9

What are the 4 phases of the BFA program?

Answer 9

1. Mission Analyss, METL Development, Validation (End-state is prioritized METs from standard METL, approved 1 level up)
2. Training Plan Development (take approved METL, training assessment from METL and CDR Guidance, develop 24 month training plan)
3. POI/Mission Profile Update
4. Area Study

Question 10

What are the OBJs of the Battlefield Focus Analysis program?

Answer 10

1. Integration of units, staff, and commanders into the war planning process
2. Familiarize operational elements w/ mission requirements and assigned AORs
3. Conduct deliberate mission analysis and planning
4. Periodic analysis and prioritization of METL
5. Identify, document, request, and obtain special equipment and training
6. Develop and update a 24 month training plan
7. Update war and support plans
8. Development of initial plans prior to contingency operations
9. Maintain and update until load-out and deployment requirements

Question 11

What is a Mission-Essential Task (MET)?

Answer 11

A collective task on which an organization trains to be proficient in its designed capabilities or assigned mission

Question 12

What is a Mission-Essential Task List (METL)?

Answer 12

METL is a tailored group of mission-essential tasks. A standard METL reflects the unit’s designed capabilities

Question 13

What is a Battle Task (BT)?

Answer 13

A platoon or lower echelon collective task that is crucial to the successful accomplishment of CO, BN, or GRP METs

Question 14

What inputs are used to create an ODA’s BTL?

Answer 14

1. War Plans
   —Most critical Wartime Mission
   —GCC OPLANS & CONPLANS
2. External Directives
   —Higher CDR’s training guidance, training requirements, higher echelon METL/AMETL

LEADS TO

MA and Planning –> ODB METL –> BTL

Question 15

What are the 3 task proficiencies?

Answer 15

1. T (Fully Trained): complete task proficiency
2. P (Practiced): basic task proficiency
3. U (Untrained): cannot perform the task

Question 16

What is the Training and Evaluation Outline (T&EO)?

Answer 16

Summary document that provides performance and proficiency standards for individual and collective tasks
—Describes performance required of a unit under the conditions of the training envirnoment
—T&EO consists of the major procedures (steps or actions) an individual or unit must accomplisj to perform a task to standard

Question 17

Who uses the Objective Task Evaluation Criteria Matrix and for what?

Answer 17

1. Trainers use it prepare and practice task execution
2. Evaluators use it to observe and evaluate task performance
3. Commanders use it to help assess collective task proficiency as part of the feedback

Question 18

What are 3 parts of the Objective Task Evaluation Criteria Matrix?

Answer 18

1. Plan and Prepare
2. Execute
3. Evaluate

Question 19

What is Command Training Guidance?

Answer 19

Commanders provide clear and concise guidance on WHAT is trained, WHEN it is trained, WHO is trained, and WHY (task and purpose). Prioritizing training acknowledges that units cannot achieve or sustain trained proficiency on every task simultaneously

Question 20

What are the 3 phases of the ARSOF Readiness Model (ARM)?

Answer 20

1. Phase I Reset: individual Readiness/Taskings
2. Phase II Trained/Ready: Collecive Training
3. Phase III Available: Employment

Question 21

What is the purpose of Phase I of the ARM?

Answer 21

Phase I, Reset: primary to recovery, conduct individual readiness, and be available for tasking

Question 22

What is the purpose of Phase II of the ARM?

Answer 22

Phase II, Trained/Ready: conduct collective training events resulting in certification and validation

Question 23

What is the purpose of Phase III of the ARM?

Answer 23

Phase III, Available: when units are ready, validated, and available for operational missions

Question 24

What is the CV2 program?

Answer 24

Certification, Verification, Validation

Question 25

Define Certification from the CV2 program

Answer 25

certified that the unit has trained to standard on their core and assinged METL by the unit commander (1 LEVEL UP). Commander will confirm that unit training, individual and collective, was conducted to standard and unit is mission capable

Question 26

Define Verification from the CV2 program

Answer 26

verified by the commander (2 LEVELS UP). Commander confirms units mission readiness IAW METL and theater specific training requirements

Question 27

Define Validation from the CV2 program

Answer 27

validated through a formal external evaluation (EXEVAL). Validation will be endorsed by the commander 3 LEVELS UP. Commander endorses that the unit is fully mission capable for the directed mission

Question 28

Who certifies, verifies, and validates the ODA under the CV2 program? According to USASOC training guidance)

Answer 28

1. Certification: ODA Commander 2. Verification: CO Commander 3. Validation: BN Commander

Question 29

What is the Directed Training Alignment (DTA)?

Answer 29

DTA is a mutually beneficial training alignment that facilitates the need of Active components and national gaurd to meet mission and training requirements. DTA establishes a dedicated, year round, training relationship between AC and ARNG units

Question 30

Who is the approval authority for a majority of CONUS training?

Answer 30

GRP CDR (with lower 48)

Question 31

What concepts require 1st SFC (A) approval?

Answer 31

1. Extreme High Risk Assessment level 2. All SLJM when training US personnel, regardless of location 3. Foreign Military Paramilitary Personnel/Units 4. Non-SOF Participants learning SOF TTPs 5. LTT off military reservations 6. All training support to Civilian Law Enforcement Agency (CLEA) and mutually beneficial interactions with CLEA 7. Unfunded Training Requirements (UFRs)

Question 32

What are the 3 categories of RMT?

Answer 32

1. Category III, Major Risk 2. Category II, Moderate Risk 3. Category I, Minor Risk

Question 33

Who is the Approval Authority for RMTs?

Answer 33

1. Category III, Major Risk: CDR USSOCOM 2. Category II, Moderate Risk: CG, 1st SFC 3. Category I, Minor Risk: CSU 0-6 w/ Command Authority

Question 34

What is RMT (Realistic Military Training)?

Answer 34

1. Any military training events occuring off real federal property 2. Real Federal property is defined as U.S. military instillations only

Question 35

What is DIRLAUTH (Direct Liaison Authority)?

Answer 35

1. Authority granted by a commander (any level) to subordinate to directly consult or coordinate an action with a command or agency within or outside of the granting command 2. Coordination relationship, not an authroity through whcih command may be exercised

Question 36

What are the common roles in an Embassy?

Answer 36

1. Chief of Mission 2. Deputy Chief of Mission 3. Chief of Station (COS) - CIA 4. Regional Security Office (RSO) 5. Defense Attache (DATT) 6. Office Management Specialist 7. Political Section 8. Consular Section 9. Public Affairs Section 10. Management Section 11. Marine Security Guard 12. Medical Section

Question 37

What positions in the embassy should we have an understanding of?

Answer 37

1. Chief of Mission 2. Deputy Chief of Mission 3. Chief of Station 4. Regional Security Office 5. Defense Attache

Question 38

Describe/define Chief of Mission

Answer 38

1. The Chief of Mission -- with the title of Ambassador, reports through his/her regional bureau to the Secretary of State. 2. Chief of Mission has authority over all Executive Branch employees in the host nation except those under the authority of a U.S. military commander, another chief of mission, or those on the staff of an international organization. 3. Cooperating with the U.S. legislative and judicial branches so that U.S. foreign policy goals are advanced; security is maintained; and executive, legislative, and judicial responsibilities are carried out. 4. Reshaping the mission to serve American interests

Question 39

Describe/define Deputy Chief of Mission

Answer 39

1. The Deputy Chief of Mission (DCM) is usually considered the second-in-command to the head of mission. DCMs serve as acting Chief of Mission when head of mission is outside the host country or when the post is vacant. 2. Acts as the primary crisis manager before, during, and after a crisis.

Question 40

Describe/define Chief of Station

Answer 40

1. The Station Chief, also called Chief of Station, is the top U.S. Central Intelligence Agency official stationed in a foreign country who manages all CIA operations in that country. The station chief is often represents the Office of the Director of National Intelligence (ODNI) in his or her respective foreign government 2. CIA works closely with the other organizations in the “intelligence community” to ensure the best intelligence possible. 3. CIA officers are sent overseas to collect human intelligence in furtherance of the Agency’s mission.

Question 41

Describe/define Regional Security Office

Answer 41

1. Regional security officers (RSOs) are Diplomatic Security Service (DSS) special agents who manage all security programs and services at U.S. embassies and consulates abroad. 2. responsible for investigating transnational crimes and for protecting State Department facilities, people, and information. 3. Serves as the U.S. embassy’s law enforcement liaison to the host nation. 4. Works with foreign police and security organizations to coordinate U.S. law enforcement initiatives, investigations and training. 5. Coordinates training programs through the International Law Enforcement Academy 6. The RSO's responsibility for security relates to personnel, information, physical security of embassy buildings and residences, as well as the conduct of criminal investigations.

Question 42

Desribe/define the Defense Attache (DATT)

Answer 42

1. Principal DoD official in a U.S. embassy, as designated by the Secretary of Defense. DATT is the Chief of Mission's principal military advisor on defense and national security issues, the senior diplomatically accredited DoD military officer assigned to a diplomatic mission, and the single point of contact for all DoD matters involving the embassy or DoD elements assigned to or working from the embassy. 2. Consolidated under the DIA to provide a more efficient system for the collection of intelligence information for DoD components and to preserve a channel for Service-to-Service and DoD representational matters of common interest. 3. A Military Defense Attaché is a high-ranking military official who is sent overseas to assist and advise U.S. Ambassadors in different regions of the world. This is a diplomatic position and is critical to the intelligence community in the U.S., as it is in constant communications with relevant actors within the Host Nation Military. (FORMICA)

Question 43

Describe/Define a Special Operations Liaison Officer (SOLO)

Answer 43

1. The SOLO is a SOF officer with language, cultural, military, and civilian training, in addition to SOF staff experience. (SOCOM entity) 2. Operating under COM authority, SOLOs serve as CDRUSSOCOM’s direct representative and primary SOF advisor to the senior defense official/defense attaché (SDO/DATT), country team, and to HN SOF leadership.

Question 44

Describe/define a Special Operations Forces Liaison Element (SOFLE)

Answer 44

1. A SOFLE is a task organized rotational SOF element deployed within a specific nation or embedded within CF to conduct liaison activities. 2. The SOFLE can coordinate, assess, and recommend training, equipping, and coordinating opportunities with HN forces or provide connectivity and synchronization of expeditionary forces. TSOCs may establish a SOFLE on a temporary basis in a country that does not have a SOLO or SOF representative assigned.

Question 45

What is a PDSS?

Answer 45

A Pre-Deployment Site Survey (PDSS) is a temporary duty (TDY) activity designed to ensure all logistics and administrative requirements are in place for a scheduled event.

Question 46

What coordination w/ Embassy personnel would you discuss during a PDSS?

Answer 46

1. Terms of Reference (TOR) / Initial Terms of Reference (ITOR) 2. Training Concept 3. Training Calendar 4. Transportation 5. Customs 6. Medical 7. RSO/Security 8. Mission Command 9. Human Rights Vetting 10. DATT 11. Station 12. Funding 13. Country Clearance 14. PAO 15. MILGRP/SOC FWD/SOLO

Question 47

What coordination with Host Nation personnel would you discuss during a PDSS?

Answer 47

1. Memorandum of Agreement/ Understanding 2. Training Calendar 3. Logistics 4. Survey Facilities and Training Areas 5. List of personnel attending the training 6. Types of weapons 7. Last time unit was trained 8. Training is protected

Question 48

What are title 10, 22, 32, 50? Who do they govern?

Answer 48

1. Title 10: Armed Forces/DOD 2. Title 22: Foreign Relations / State Department 3. Title 32: National Guard 4. Title 50: War & National Defense (DOD & CIA)

Question 49

Describe a JCET

Answer 49

Funding: 322, authority + funding, single year Activity: train (no advise or equip) Who can you train: MOD MOI Leahy Vetting: required No equipment purchases allowed No MILCON permitted Must benefit US SOF - UW/FID Capabilities gained (language, fam, teaching skills, etc)

Question 50

Describe Foreign Security Forces, Build Capacity

Answer 50

Funding: 333, authority _ funding, multi-year Activity: train and equip Who can you train: MOD, MOI, other security forces Leahy vetting and subject to security assistance rules Can purchase equipment, slow acquire Minor MILCON permitted Intended for: FID, CT, CWMD, etc (Activities that contribute to existing coalition OPS SECDEF determines; DOD has lead)