Trans Lecture 9 Flashcards
(217 cards)
1
Q
What does DAT positive indicate?
A
Membrane modification DAT positive for IgG or Complement.
2
Q
When does DAT positivity usually occur after treatment begins?
A
7–10 days.
3
Q
How long can DAT stay positive after the drug is withdrawn?
A
Up to 2 years.
4
Q
What is the recommended treatment for hemolytic anemia caused by drugs?
A
Withdraw the drug.
5
Q
How do you differentiate sensitivity reaction to drug from hemolysis?
A
Rash/hypotension vs Jaundice/other signs of hemolysis.
6
Q
What is the treatment for severe cases of drug-induced hemolytic anemia?
A
Transfusion and steroids (Prednisone).
7
Q
Name some examples of drugs that can cause hemolytic anemia.
A
Penicillin family, Aldomet (α-methyldopa), Cephalosporin, Quinidine.
8
Q
What are the lab findings in hemolytic anemia caused by drugs?
A
Decreased Hb/Hct, normal or slightly elevated MCV, increased Bilirubin and LD, decreased Haptoglobin.
9
Q
What are the manifestations of intravascular hemolysis in transfusion reactions?
A
Hemoglobinemia, hemoglobinuria, and hemosiderinuria.
10
Q
What is the most common cause of transfusion reactions?
A
Human error in blood compatibility.
11
Q
What are the signs and symptoms of immediate transfusion reaction?
A
Chills, fever, hives, tachycardia, nausea/vomiting, chest and back pain, shock, anaphylaxis, pulmonary edema, congestive heart failure.
12
Q
What are the lab findings in immediate transfusion reaction?
A
Hemoglobinemia and/or hemoglobinuria, increased Bilirubin and LD, decreased haptoglobin.
13
Q
What are the morphological features seen in immediate transfusion reaction?
A
Spherocytes, increased polychromasia, and may have schistocytes.
14
Q
What is the treatment for immediate transfusion reaction?
A
Stop the transfusion immediately, treat for bleeding/shock, and maintain renal circulation.
15
Q
When do signs and symptoms of delayed transfusion reaction appear?
A
Days to weeks after blood transfusion.
16
Q
What can be the causes of delayed transfusion reaction?
A
ABO, Rh, Kell, Fya antibodies, or graft-vs-host reaction.
17
Q
What are the symptoms of delayed transfusion reaction?
A
Jaundice, mild fever and chills, slight anemia, hemoglobinuria, shock, and renal failure.
18
Q
What are the lab findings in delayed transfusion reaction?
A
Increased Bilirubin and LD, decreased haptoglobin.
19
Q
What are the morphological features seen in delayed transfusion reaction?
A
Spherocytes and increased polychromasia.
20
Q
What is the treatment for delayed transfusion reaction?
A
Support renal function, reduce possibility of hypertension, and may need blood products if coagulation issues arise (DIC).
21
Q
What is the most common antigen responsible for hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)?
A
Rh blood group antigen D.
22
Q
When can Rh HDN occur?
A
When the mother is Rh negative and the father is Rh positive.
23
Q
How does a mother become sensitized to Rh?
A
Through previous pregnancy or fetal-maternal bleed during delivery.
24
Q
What happens in the first pregnancy of an Rh-negative mother with an Rh-positive fetus?
A
The mother forms antibodies (anti-D/IgG) from exposure to Rh during the pregnancy.
25
What allows anti-D IgG antibodies to cross the placenta?
The size of IgG allows it to cross the placenta.
26
What can happen in subsequent pregnancies if the mother is sensitized to Rh?
Anti-D IgG antibodies can cross the placenta and attack an Rh-positive fetus.
27
What is another term for hemolytic disease of the newborn due to Rh incompatibility?
Erythroblastosis Fetalis.
28
What can be the severity of hemolytic disease of the newborn?
It can range from mild to severe.
29
What are the symptoms of hemolytic disease in neonates with Rh incompatibility?
Anemia, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, high bilirubin levels, low haptoglobin levels.
30
What is the primary cause of death in neonates with Rh incompatibility?
Hepatocellular damage and hepatic obstruction.
31
How can Rh incompatibility be monitored and prevented during pregnancy?
Maternal antibody screening, monitoring bilirubin levels in amniotic fluid, and administration of Rhogam (Rh immune globulin).
32
What is the treatment for hemolytic disease of the newborn due to Rh incompatibility?
Injection of fetal compatible blood into the umbilical cord vein or exchange transfusion after delivery.
33
What is the most common cause of jaundice in the first day of life in newborns?
Hemolytic disease of the newborn due to ABO incompatibility.
34
What is ABO HDN and how common is it?
Hemolytic disease of the newborn due to ABO incompatibility. It occurs in about 25% of all pregnancies.
35
What antibodies are present in mothers with group "O" blood and what antigens can be present in their babies?
Mothers with group "O" blood have Anti-A and Anti-B antibodies, while their babies can have group "A", "B", or "AB" antigens.
36
What is the role of placenta in conjugating bilirubin in ABO HDN?
In utero, the placenta contributes to conjugating bilirubin.
37
What happens when the antibodies from a mother with group "O" blood attach to fetal tissues?
The severity of the hemolytic disease is reduced, leading to less hemolysis and less anemia.
38
What is the clinical presentation of hemolytic disease of the newborn due to ABO incompatibility?
Rare hepatosplenomegaly, possible jaundice.
39
What are the recommended treatments for ABO HDN based on severity?
No treatment for mild or no anemia/jaundice, phototherapy for jaundice, and exchange transfusion for severe cases.
40
What is the cause and mode of transmission of Malaria?
Malaria is caused by blood infection of tiny parasites originating from an infected Anopheles mosquito.
41
Where is Malaria typically seen?
Malaria is typically seen in subtropical countries.
42
How many people are infected with Malaria each year and how many die from the disease?
About 290 million people are infected with Malaria each year and 400,000 die from the disease.
43
Why is testing for Malaria typically done in triplicate at three different time periods?
Fever associated with Malaria is episodic, so multiple tests increase the chances of detection.
44
What can happen if Malaria species lie dormant in the body?
Some Malaria species can lie dormant in the body for years, leading to recurring infections.
45
In determining the species of Malaria in the blood, what information is useful to know?
Knowing where the patient has traveled can be helpful in determining the species of Malaria present in the blood.
46
What pH range is ideal for the appearance of pink in the presence of G?
pH 7.0-7.2
47
How are thin films made for malaria testing?
Like a regular peripheral blood film
48
How should the size of a thick film drop of blood be spread?
Spread out to about the size of a dime
49
What is the purpose of drying the smears completely before staining?
To prevent flaking off during staining
50
How are thin films fixed before staining?
In methanol
51
Which stain is considered ideal for malaria testing?
Giemsa
52
What is the recommended staining time for thick and thin slides?
45-60 minutes
53
What can be done for rapid staining of thick and thin slides?
Use a more concentrated preparation of Giemsa stain and stain for 10 minutes
54
What can a routine blood film stained with W-G provide?
Rapid presumptive identification
55
Why is fresh stain made for each patient processed?
To ensure no carry over or contamination from wash off
56
What quality control measures are recommended for thick and thin preparations?
Both positive and negative controls
57
What type of blood can be used as a negative control for thick and thin film preparations?
Random fresh blood with normal CBC results
58
How can a positive control slide be prepared for thick and thin films?
Make large batch slide preparations from previously identified positive patient sample
59
What is the recommended storage time for wrapped, unfrozen thick and thin slides?
Up to 6 months
60
How should a thawed slide be handled before examination?
Remain in the tinfoil until it reaches room temperature
61
Why is a test slide processed with each patient batch?
To ensure proper staining of the parasites
62
What is the reporting time requirement for identifying Malaria?
Preliminary report within 1 hour of received/prepared blood/smears
63
Why should 2 MLTs usually examine smears together?
For time efficiency and consistency in reporting
64
What is the purpose of 10X scan during examination of blood films?
To look for larger gametocyte forms, especially banana shaped gametocytes specific to p. Falciparium
65
What must not be skipped during the examination of thick films?
Scanning the entire thick film
66
What is the purpose of a 40X scan during examination of blood films?
To further examine the smears for parasites
67
What must be done if an agg is unable to clear completely the RBC, HCT and all indices?
TNP and a comment must be reported.
68
What must be done if the warm smear shows signs that agglutination is still present?
A warm plasma replacement must be performed.
69
What is used as an isotonic diluent on the Sysmex analyzer?
Prewarm Saline or Cell Pack.
70
How much sample should be removed into a fully labeled tube for incubation?
Approximately 2mLs.
71
How long should the sample be centrifuged for?
10 minutes at 2500 rpm.
72
How much plasma should be removed from the sample at a time?
Between 100uL and 200uL.
73
What must be done to avoid disturbing the buffy coat when aspirating the plasma?
Care must be taken to not disturb the buffy coat.
74
How much plasma should be aspirated without going too close to the buffy coat?
As much as possible.
75
What should be done after aspirating all the plasma?
Replace with the warmed saline/cell pack and mix well.
76
How long should the blood be incubated after replacing with warmed saline/cell pack?
At least 10 minutes.
77
What should be done after returning the blood to the incubator?
Mix well and remake a new blood film and label it as 'warm PR'.
78
What should be done if there is no evidence of agglutination in the warm plasma replacement blood film?
Complete the blood film review as normal and add the messages 'Agglutination present' and 'Agglutination dispersed following warm plasma replacement' to the RBC morphology.
79
What should be included in the first CBC parameter on the final report if warm plasma replacement was done?
The message 'CBC parameters corrected for the presence of Cold Agglutination' and 'CBC parameter obtained following plasma replacement at 37oC'.
80
What parameter can be used as an accuracy control for the plasma replacement?
Platelet count.
81
What may be seen in the morphology if significant numbers of spherocytes are present?
MCHC may stay between 360-370 g/L after warm correction.
82
What may accompany the presence of spherocytes?
An increase in polychromasia.
83
What should be done if Paroxysmal Cold hemoglobinuria is suspected?
Supportive care and avoid cold.
84
What is the most common cause of Paroxysmal Cold hemoglobinuria?
Viral infections.
85
What treatment options are usually ineffective for Paroxysmal Cold hemoglobinuria?
Corticosteroids and splenectomy.
86
What is the mechanism of drug-induced immune hemolytic anemia?
Drug invokes antibody reaction to the drug through complement fixation.
87
What can some drugs do to the red cell membrane?
Alter it, allowing IgG and complement attachment.
88
What can some drugs elicit?
An autoimmune antibody reaction to self-antigens.
89
What are the complications associated with Pure Red Cell Aplasia (PRCA)?
AML, MDS, Squamous cell carcinoma, Diamond-Blackfan anemia (DBA)
90
What does PRCA primarily affect?
Differentiated stem cell precursors, specifically proerythroblasts
91
What are the symptoms of PRCA?
All symptoms of anemia
92
What are the possible causes of secondary PRCA?
Autoimmune disease, Thymoma, Viral infection, Lymphoproliferative disorders, Idiopathic, Drugs
93
What is Diamond-Blackfan Anemia (DBA) also known as?
Congenital Hypoplastic Anemia
94
What type of inheritance does DBA exhibit?
Autosomal inheritance, both recessively and dominantly
95
What areas of the body does DBA affect primarily?
Bone marrow
96
At what age is DBA typically diagnosed?
Infancy, with most cases by 6 months
97
What are some physical features associated with DBA?
Short stature, altered or missing thumb, low birth weight, head and facial abnormalities, eye complications, delayed puberty, kidney abnormalities
98
What are the laboratory results for DBA?
Anemia but no pancytopenia, increased MCV, decreased retic count, thrombocytopenia or thrombocytosis, lack of RBC precursors in bone marrow
99
What is the treatment for DBA?
Transfusion for anemia, small doses of steroids after 1 year, lifelong transfusion if steroids are not effective, bone marrow transplant (if no iron overload)
100
What is anemia of renal disease characterized by?
Hypoproliferative anemia due to decreased Erythropoietin (EPO)
101
What are some diseases or conditions associated with anemia of renal disease?
Malignant hypertension, glomerulonephritis, acute renal cortical necrosis, amyloidosis, diabetic nephropathy, secondary to hyperparathyroidism, dialysis
102
What are the laboratory results for anemia of renal disease?
Decreased Hb/Hct, normal MCV/MCH/MCHC, increased reticulocytes (if EPO is unaffected), may have thrombocytopenia, presence of burr cells, acanthocytes, and schistocytes in morphology, erythroid hypoplasia in bone marrow
103
How is anemia of renal disease treated?
Treating underlying conditions, improving renal function to increase RBC production, supplementing with recombinant EPO, potentially treating with iron, close monitoring of Hb levels, monitoring iron stores
104
What can happen if Hb levels are above 120 g/L in anemia of renal disease?
Venous thrombosis and myocardial infarction (MI), potentially leading to death
105
What must also be monitored in anemia of renal disease treatment?
Iron stores to ensure availability for matching EPO levels
106
What is the occurrence rate of spontaneous remission in DBA?
25% of cases, reason unknown
107
What is the most common area to see tsetse flies?
Sub-Saharan Africa
108
Which two species of Trypanosoma are most concerning for human infections?
Trypanosoma Brucei vs cruzi
109
What are the three types of filaria infections?
Lymphatic filaria, subcutaneous filaria, or serous filaria
110
Which mosquito species can transmit Loa loa?
Anopheles (Malaria) and Aedes (Dengue and Zika)
111
What are the distinguishing features of Wuchereria bancrofti?
Sheath, no nuclei in the tip of the tail
112
What are the distinguishing features of Brugia malayi?
Sheath, 2 distinct nuclei in the tip of the tail
113
What are the distinguishing features of Loa loa?
Sheath, nuclei extending to the tip of the tail
114
What are the distinguishing features of Onchocerca volvulus?
No sheath, no nuclei in the tip of the tail
115
What are the distinguishing features of Mansonella perstans?
No sheath, nuclei extending to the tip of the tail
116
What are the distinguishing features of Mansonella ozzardi?
No sheath, no nuclei in the tip of the tail
117
What are the distinguishing features of Mansonella streptocerca?
No sheath, nuclei extending to the tip of the hooked tail
118
What type of bacteria is Clostridium perfringens?
Gram positive rods
119
What is a complication resulting from Clostridium perfringens infection?
Acute hemolysis
120
What is the median survival time from onset of symptoms in Clostridium perfringens infection?
6 hours
121
What is the delayed TAT of Hb in Clostridium perfringens infection due to?
Correction for hemolysis
122
What are the symptoms of Bartonella bacilliformis infection?
Fever, headache, muscle and joint pain, enlarged lymph nodes, and severe anemia
123
What stain is used to demonstrate Bartonella bacilliformis in a blood film?
Gram stain
124
What is the incubation period of Bartonella bacilliformis infection?
About 20 days
125
How is Bartonella bacilliformis infection diagnosed?
PCR or serology
126
How does Bartonella bacilliformis adhere to red blood cells?
To the outside of the red blood cells
127
What are the three reasons for hemolytic anemia?
Spleen overwork, hepatomegaly, skeletal changes
128
What are the characteristics of intravascular hemolysis?
Free hemoglobin in serum, marked increase in LD and bilirubin
129
What are the characteristics of extravascular hemolysis?
No free hemoglobin in serum, Hb reading on automated instruments must be corrected for free hemoglobin
130
What are the different types of immune hemolytic anemia?
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia, Drug-induced Immune Hemolytic Anemia, Alloimmune Hemolytic Anemia
131
What are the characteristics of autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)?
Production of antibodies against self antigens, can be caused by IgG or IgM
132
What are the causes of warm antibody AIHA?
Most commonly caused by IgG, more common in middle-aged women
133
What are the characteristics of extravascular hemolysis in AIHA?
RBC coated with IgG, macrophages in the spleen remove the antibody from the cell membrane
134
What are the causes of warm antibody AIHA?
Idiopathic, malignancies, autoimmune conditions, medications, viral infections
135
What are the characteristics of cold antibody AIHA?
Typically anti-i or anti-I, dependent on complement activation, optimal at about 40C
136
What are the most common causes of cold antibody AIHA?
Idiopathic, viral infections, B-cell lymphoma
137
What are the characteristics of cold agglutination?
Low grade intravascular hemolytic anemia, may have increased bilirubin and LD, acrocyanosis
138
What are the CBC findings in autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
Decreased RBC, increased MCV and MCH/MCHC
139
What is the characteristic finding on blood smear in AIHA?
Agglutination that can be resolved by warming the blood sample
140
How can you differentiate warm and cold antibody AIHA on blood smear?
Spherocytes on warm smear for warm antibody AIHA
141
What are the characteristics of complement-mediated AIHA?
Extravascular: RBC coated with C3b, Intravascular: RBC coated with a lot of complement C5-C9
142
What is the osmotic environment of the RBC in complement-mediated intravascular hemolysis?
Osmotic environment of the RBC is affected
143
How long does it take for recombinant EPO to take effect?
8-12 weeks
144
What are the two types of anemia categorized as normochromic normocytic anemia?
Aplastic Anemia and Anemia of Renal Disease
145
What is the normal value for the Reticulocyte Production Index (RPI) in underproduction anemia?
RPI<2.5
146
What are the causes of extrinsic hemolytic anemia?
Antibodies (warm and cold reacting), hemolytic disease of the newborn, infectious agents (microorganisms or parasitic), mechanical damage
147
Name three infectious agents that can cause extrinsic hemolytic anemia.
Malaria, Babesiosis, Clostridial Sepsis
148
What are the causes of intrinsic hemolytic anemia?
Cell shape abnormalities, erythrocyte enzyme deficiencies, hemoglobinopathies, abnormal porphyrin metabolism, paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
149
What is the definition of hemolysis?
Premature destruction of RBCs with a shortened life span (<120 days)
150
How does the bone marrow respond to hemolysis?
Marrow response cannot compensate for the increased loss of RBCs, leading to uncompensated anemia
151
What is the difference between intrinsic and extrinsic causes of hemolysis?
Intrinsic causes are from factors inside the RBCs, while extrinsic causes are from factors outside the RBCs
152
What is the difference between intravascular and extravascular hemolysis?
Intravascular hemolysis happens within the blood vessels, while extravascular hemolysis happens in the liver, spleen, lymph nodes, or bone marrow
153
List three causes of intravascular hemolysis.
Complement, enzyme macroangiopathic hemolytic anemia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
154
What are the common symptoms of hemolytic anemia?
Symptoms of anemia, jaundice, splenomegaly, pulmonary hypertension, thrombosis
155
What lab features indicate hemolytic anemia?
Increased bilirubin, increased urobilinogen, increased LD, decreased haptoglobin, increased reticulocytes, hemoglobinuria
156
What is the common morphology seen in hemolytic anemia?
Spherocytes, increased polychromasia, schistocytes in intravascular hemolysis
157
What are the clinical features of extravascular hemolysis?
Pale/tired, fatigue, dizziness, exercise intolerance, jaundice, splenomegaly
158
What are the two types of normocytic normochromic anemia?
Aplastic anemia and anemia of renal disease, ACD
159
What is the Reticulocyte Production Index (RPI) value for underproduction type normocytic normochromic anemia?
RPI<2.5
160
What is the Reticulocyte Production Index (RPI) value for increased destruction type normocytic normochromic anemia?
RPI>2.5
161
What are the two types of macrocytic anemia?
Disruption in proliferation and/or differentiation of stem cells and renal disease with reduced EPO production
162
What are the symptoms of aplastic anemia?
Pale, fatigue, headache, angina or heart mummer, shortness of breath on exertion
163
What is pancytopenia?
Depression of all three cell lines (RBCs, WBCs, and platelets)
164
What causes leukocytopenia (agranulocytosis) in aplastic anemia?
Infection
165
What are the symptoms of thrombocytopenia in aplastic anemia?
Spontaneous or mucosal bleeding (petichae, purpura, echymoses)
166
What can cause aplastic anemia?
Inherited factors, radiation, drugs/toxins/chemo, viruses (HIV, EBV parvo B19), immunological factors, PNH, pregnancy
167
What are the laboratory results for aplastic anemia?
Decreased RBCs, decreased Hb/Hct, normal/ increased MCV, decreased reticulocytes
168
What is the treatment for aplastic anemia?
Stop drug/chemical, hematopoietic stem cell transplant, immunosuppression, androgens, synthetic EPO/G-CSF, packed red blood cells
169
What is Fanconi's anemia?
Autosomal recessive disorder affecting marrow development, most common cause of inherited aplastic anemia
170
What are the physical features associated with Fanconi's anemia?
Short stature, deafness and low set ears, radial bone abnormalities, hyperpigmentation on trunk and neck, microcephaly, broad nose, structural kidney abnormalities, testicular atrophy
171
What are the laboratory results for Fanconi's anemia?
Pancytopenia, macrocytic, increased HbF levels
172
What are the four species of malaria?
P. falciparum, P. vivax, P. malariae, P. ovale
173
Which regions are included in Oceania?
Papua New Guinea, Samoa, Tonga, Fiji, French Polynesia
174
Which regions are included in the Americas?
Central and South America
175
How can malaria be transmitted?
Through blood transfusion, sharing of needles, and from mother to unborn child
176
What are the symptoms of malaria?
Fever, chills, general feeling of discomfort, headache, nausea and vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, muscle or joint pain, fatigue, rapid breathing, rapid heart rate, cough
177
Who is at higher risk of serious disease from malaria?
Young children and older adults
178
Where do more than 90% of malaria deaths occur?
Africa
179
What are the critical symptoms of malaria?
Seizures, brain damage, trouble breathing, organ failure, hemolytic crisis
180
What can happen if malaria is not treated?
It can lead to severe complications and be fatal
181
What is the recommended treatment for malaria?
ASAP at first sign of fever and use of antimalarial drugs
182
What are some preventive measures for malaria?
Taking antimalarial medications, avoiding outdoor activities during high mosquito activity, using repellents with DEET, wearing treated clothing with long sleeves and pants, and using netting
183
What is the first-ever vaccine for malaria prevention?
A vaccine that targets P. falciparum and has 75% efficacy
184
How is the malaria vaccine administered?
It requires four injections
185
What can rapid tests detect for malaria identification?
Plasmodium histidine-rich protein antigens present in infected RBCs
186
What are the advantages of lateral flow immunochromatographic assay for malaria identification?
Quick screening test, can be used in areas without trained laboratory professionals, and mostly reliable with minimal false negatives
187
What is required for laboratories to perform thick and thin film examinations to identify malaria?
A licensing code
188
Which stain is better for identifying malaria on routine smears?
Wrights Giemsa
189
What is the pH of the phosphate buffer solution used in Giemsa stain for malaria staining?
pH 6.8
190
What may cause color variation of the parasites in different stains during malaria staining?
The difference in pH between stains
191
What is the treatment for Cold reacting AIHA and PCHU?
Supportive treatment and avoiding the cold.
192
What are the treatment options for Warm reacting AIHA?
Immunosuppression (steroids), splenectomy, and other drugs.
193
What does the Direct Coombs test detect?
Antibodies and/or complement on the RBC cell surface.
194
What is the purpose of the Indirect Coombs test?
To detect antibodies in the serum.
195
When is the Direct Coombs test used?
For autoimmune hemolysis (warm or cold), drug-induced hemolysis, and alloimmune hemolysis.
196
How is Pseudo Macrocytosis identified in the lab?
By observing agglutination and an MCV usually >125 fL.
197
What MCHC value indicates intravascular hemolysis?
MCHC >360 g/L.
198
How should blood samples with strong agglutination be handled in the lab?
Do not run them on the analyzer, make a blood film, warm the blood to 37oC, and stain the smear.
199
What should be done when MCHC >360 g/L in the lab?
Examine the PBF immediately for spherocytes/hemolysis and then prioritize accordingly.
200
What should be done if agglutination is observed with no spherocytes?
Drop priority to routine and correct the sample by warming it to 37oC.
201
What is the message for RBC morphology in the lab when agglutination is present?
"Agglutination present" and "Agglutination disperses at 37oC".
202
What should be done if there is no sign of agglutination on the warm smear?
Accept the analyzer results and report the morphology from the warm slide.
203
What objective is used for quick scanning of the entire thick film?
10X
204
At what power can intermediate stages be easier to find on the film?
10X
205
What is the purpose of using a 50X OI objective?
To improve the efficiency of scanning
206
At what power are the entire readable area of thin films and the entire smear of thick films examined?
100X OI
207
What is the main focus initially when examining a routine smear or a Giemsa smear for malaria?
Identifying any positive malaria - is it falciparium or non falciparium
208
Which species of malaria is the most aggressive and infectious?
Plasmodium falciparium
209
What confirms the presence of Plasmodium falciparium?
Banana gametocytes
210
What are some symptoms of babesia infection?
Fever, chills, muscle aches, low blood pressure, severe headache, liver problems, abdominal pain, nausea, kidney failure
211
What is the cause of Lyme disease?
Four species of Borrelia sp. bacterium
212
What is the vector for anaplasmosis?
Black-legged tick
213
What type of blood cells does Anaplasma phagocytophilum target?
Neutrophils
214
What organism causes Chaga's disease?
Trypanosoma cruzi
215
What is the most common route of transmission for Trypanosoma cruzi?
Insect vector
216
Which continent is Sleeping Sickness prevalent?
Africa
217
What is the mode of transmission for Trypanosoma brucei?
Animal to human
