Traumatic brain injury Flashcards

(77 cards)

1
Q

what are 3 early medical management for TBI

A
  • establish open airway
    -vital signs , fluid replacement
  • neuro checks q 15 to 30 mins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the 3 things Glasgow coma scale is used for

A

 Used at the scene of accident, ER, and throughout
acute care
 Used as a predictor of outcome
 Used in research

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

does the GLasgow coma sacle have low or high inter rather reliability

A

high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is range of scores u can see for the Glasgow Coma Sclae

A

3-15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what do the Glasgow coma scale scores mean

A

3 to 8 - severe injury (defines coma in 90% of cases)
9 to 12 - mod injury (15%)
13 to 15 - mild injury (41%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the 4 limitations of GCS

A

 Pre-existing conditions (language)
 Aphasia
 Alcohol or medications
 Other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is local brain injury

A

localized to the site of impact on the skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is a diffuse brain injury

A

widely scattered shearing of axons (DAI: diffuse axonal injury)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

is raised intracranial pressure a secondary or primary insult

A

secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the normal intracranial pressure while lying down

A

0-10 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what intracranial pressure is definitely abnormal and what is a definite contraindication for P/.T

A

20 mmHg is definitelyabnormal.
Above 20 is definite contraindication for P.T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what intracranial pressure casues neurologic dysfunctions

A

20-40 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what intracranial pressure almost always results in death

A

60 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is cerebral arterial vasospasm measured by

A

transcranial doppler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Brain’s ___ properties allow it to move
away from the mass lesion

A

viscoelastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Brain’s viscoelastic properties allow it to move
away from the mass lesion causing what 3 things

A

 Distortion
 Midline shift
 Herniation through foramen magnum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

hypoxia and ischemic brain damage is most commonly seen in what 4 things

A

hippocampus, basal ganglia,
scattered sites of cerebral cortex, and cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the difference between hypoxia and ischemia

A

hypoxia is absence in O2 from problems with breathing. system and ischemia is blood loss to area bc it is blocked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the 2 what u can evacuate the hematoma

A

craniotomy or craniectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is done to minimize infection of compound wounds

A

debridement and lavage of compound wounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is a Ventriculostomy

A

measures and drains CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what does a Bolt do

A

measures CSF only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

for the EVD the pressure transducer is at the same horizontal level as ____ and what is the landmark

A

ventricles and external auditory meatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

prior to moving someone with w EVD what needs to be clamped

A

EVD must be clamored by nurse or by pt/ot w nerve permisson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
if you have a EVD what must happen every time the patient moves
EVD must be releveled
26
-osmotic therapy -sedative/hyponotic drug therapy -vasoreductive therapy -skeletal mm paralytics and/or relaxants - core temperature/therapeutic hypothermia - these are treatments of for what
ICP
27
what is the metabolic care for ICP
 In-dwelling catheter with strict intake/output  Serum electrolytes  Artificial feedings once bowel sounds return
28
what is neurogenic pulmonary edema associated with
associated with increased pulmonary microvascular permeability
29
what are pulmonary complications that could arise from a tBI
 Fat embolism in lung  Respiratory acidosis from artificial ventilation  Pneumonia - neurogenic pulmonary edema
30
fever can be a sign of infection most commonly of what
respiratory and urinary tracts
31
fever can be caused by damage to ___ and called what
hypothalamus “neurogenic fever”
32
what 2 things do fevers cause
increased caloric demand and metabolic demands of the brain
33
a fever can be a sing of what
irritation with brain herniation
34
what can **systemic arterial hypertension** result in
blood- brain barrier disruption, causing more brain edema.
35
what can systemic arterial hypertension be caused by
noxious stimuli
36
loss of autoregualtion of cerebral blood flow does what
increases blood brain volume leading to intracranial hypertension
37
what is HR controlled by
various regions in diencephalon caudally to myelencephalon (medulla)
38
what HR problem is most common is TBI
tachycardia
39
 Disability Rating Scale (DRS)  Craig Handicap Assessment and Reporting Technique (CHART) and Short Form  Participation Objective/Participation Subjective (POPS)  Supervision Rating Scale  Discharge placement  Employment these are all examples of what ICF level outcome
participation
40
 Universal Data System-Functional Independence Measure (UDS- FIM)  UDS-FIM + FAM (Functional Assessment Measure) these are all apart of what ICF level outcome
activity
41
 Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)  Rancho Levels of Cognitive Function  JFK Coma Recovery Scale Revised  Agitated Behavior Scale  Moss Attention Rating Scale these are all apart of what ICF level outcome
body structure/functionn
42
what is the disability rating scale used to track
ppl from coma to community
43
what are the 6 things that the craig handicap assessment and reporting technique go over
1. physcial indepence 2. mobility 3. occupation 4. social integration 5. economic self sufficiency 6. cognitive independence
44
___ of individuals require some level of supervision at 1 year post injury.
37%
45
__ % require some supervision 2 years post injury.
31
46
what is a Reliable and valid scale designed to assess high-level motor performance in patients with TBI
Hi - level mobility assessment tool
47
what is the minimum mobility requirement for the Hi level mobility assessment toll
independent walking 20 meter without gait aids
48
there are 13 items of teh HI level mobility assessment tool what are the the 5 things they are assessing
 Walking, running  Jumping, balance  Stairs  Hopping  Skipping
49
what the 8 levels of the ranchos los amigos for cognitive functioning scale
1 No response 2 Generalized response. 3 Localized response 4 Confused, agitated. 5 Confused, inappropriate, non-agitated. 6 Confused, appropriate 7. Automatic, appropriate 8. purposeful , appropriate
50
if a patient is Unresponsive to any stimulus what rancho levle would u give them
1. no response
51
if a patient is Limited, inconsistent, non-purposeful responses, often to pain only. what rancho levle would u give them
2. Generalized response.
52
if a patient has Purposeful responses; may follow simple commands; may focus on presented object. what rancho levle would u give them
3. localized response
53
if a patient has Heightened state of activity; confusion, disorientation; aggressive behavior; unable to do self-care; unaware of present events; agitation appears related to internal confusion. what rancho levle would u give them
4. confused , agitated
54
if a patient has Appears alert; responds to commands; distractible; does not concentrate on task; verbally inappropriate, does not learn new information. what rancho levle would u give them
5. Confused, inappropriate, non-agitated
55
if a patient is Good directed behavior, needs cueing; can relearn old skills (ADL); serious memory problems; some awareness of self and others what rancho levle would u give them
6. confused , appropriate
56
if a patient has Robot-like appropriate behavior with minimal confusion; shallow recall; poor insight into condition; initiates tasks but needs structure; poor judgment, problem-solving and planning skills what rancho levle would u give them
7. automatic , appropriate
57
if a patient is Alert, oriented; recalls and integrates past events; learns new activities and can continue without supervision; cognitively independent in living skills; capable of driving; defects in stress tolerance, judgment, abstract reasoning persist; many function at reduced levels in society. what rancho levle would u give them
8. purposeful , appropriate
58
A patient in ___ appears asleep. There is no eye opening, even spontaneously, nor movements or vocalization. Usually no longer than 2 weeks.
coma
59
A patient in ___ can have eyes open, move spontaneously, but is unable to follow commands or speak. This patient has sleep-wake cycles. Can last indefinitely.
persistent vegetative state
60
what Scale is used to monitor levels of alertness for patients in coma/persistent vegetative state
JFK coma/near coma scale
61
Shows emergence from coma/persistent vegetative state into which ranchos level
minimally conscious state” … level 3
62
what scale is a huge implications from DC placements from acute care
JFK coma/ near coma scale
63
what is the period of time from the accident to the time that the patient starts to have on- going short-term memory.
post traumatic amnesia
64
what will happen when the pateint wakes up from a coma
often not remember the accident or evens immediately after it
65
what is Used to determine when a patient is progressing out of PTA (post traumatic amnesia)
GALVESTON ORIENTATION AND AMNESIA TEST (GOAT
66
on the GALVESTON ORIENTATION AND AMNESIA TEST (GOAT) the pateint must have what scored to be out of PTA
3 consecutive scores of > 75
67
injury to the front ortbial , anterior temporal lobes and slyivan fissues causes what
agitation
68
what do temporal lobe seizures casues
aggression
69
what are environments casues of agitation
sensory overload and deprivation
70
what are the cut off scores for agitated behavior 21 or less: 22-28: 39-25: >35:
 21 or less: within normal limits  22-28: mild agitation  29-35: moderate agitation  >35: severe agitation
71
what is an Observational tool to measure attention-related behaviors after TBI
moss attention rating scale
72
the higher the score on the moss attention rating scale means what
better then attention
73
what is Defined by a traumatically induced disruption of brain function, as manifested by at least one of these:  Any period of loss of consciousness  Any loss of memory for events immediately pre- or post- accident  Any change in mental state at the time of the accident  Focal neuro deficits (transient or lasting)
mild TBIq
74
severity of injury for a mild TBI does not exceed a loss of consciousness for ____ mins , after 30 mins an initial GCS of ____ and PTA not greater than ___ hours
30 13-15 24
75
what are the most common things reported with a mild TBI
headaches
76
when do activity and participation levels tend to plateau for TBI
1-2 years post injury
77
for a TBI , importovemtns continues to be seen at ___ post injury and is considered period of “rapid recovery”
1 year