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Trigger 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

how many pairs of nerves are there?

A

31

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2
Q

name the 4 sections of the spine

A

cervical
thoracic
lumbar
sacral

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3
Q

what is neural tube closing also known as?

A

Neurulation

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4
Q

explain the process of neurulation

A

ectoderm cells differientate into neuro-ectoderm, which thicken to form a neural plate
plate bends dorsally, curving with the neural plate boarders meeting to form the neural tube
neural tube disconnects the neural crest from the epidermus
neural crest cells differientate -> peripheral NS
neuroepithelial cells -> neuroblast, grey matter

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5
Q

Dermatomes

A

area of skin innervated by 1 spinal cord

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6
Q

what neuro trasmitter is relasesed from the terminal bouton in the somatic NS

A

acetylcholine

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7
Q

what receptor is on the target organ in the somatic NS

A

nicotinic acetylcholine receptor

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8
Q

Describe the pre ganglionic neurone in the symapethic NS

A

short pre-ganglionic

always releases Ach

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9
Q

what neurotransmitter does the post ganglionic symathetic neurone release

A

noradrenaline

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10
Q

Describe the pre ganglionic neurone in the parasympathetic NS

A

long preganglinic

release Ach

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11
Q

Describe the post ganglionic neurone in the parasympathetic NS

A

short
releases Ach
Muscarinic acetylcholine receptor on target organ

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12
Q

which nervous system causes peeing

A

parasympathetic

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13
Q

what does the symathetic system do to the bladder

A

relaxs the bladder detrusor muscles

contracts the internal spincter

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14
Q

what is micurition

A

the act of passing urine

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15
Q

how is continence maintained

A

maintianed via the spincters of the bladdder and the abdominal pressure compressing the bladder neck

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16
Q

what type of muscle is the internal spincter

A

an oblique muscle, not well defined

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17
Q

what type of muscle is the urethral spincter

A

mixed smooth and skeletal muscle

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18
Q

what type of muscle is the external spincter

A

striated muscle under voluntray control

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19
Q

describe the inital phase of pressure

A

pressure rises rapidly to a small degree

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20
Q

descibe phase II of bladder pressure

A

rises slowly, receptice relaxation however most of the bladder fillls, no contractions occur until the bladders has been filled to 400ml

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21
Q

descibe phase III of bladder pressure

A

pressure rises steeply

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22
Q

which paprasympathetic nerves supply the bladder

A

pelvic S2-S4 nerves, mixed motor and sensory from the hypogastric and vesicle plexi

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23
Q

which sympathetic nerves supply the bladder

A

inferior mesenterric ganglia which pass via the hypogastric to the vesicle plexus

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24
Q

outline the steps of micturition

A

Bladder must be fill to 80% of its contents
the detrusor muscle relaxes which mechaninally opens the internal sphincter and reflexly inhibits the external spincter
flattens the floor of the bladder so the urethra is now open
fluid flows out as the detrusor contracts
flow through the urethra reinforces contracton via the pelvic plexus and spinal reflex
once the smooth muscle has maximally shortened the tension fails and the guard reflex is iniated as the bladder starts to refill

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25
what is the sarcolemma
plasma membrane surronding the muscle
26
what are t-tubles
between muscle fibres, transmit electrical potential
27
what is the I band
actin only
28
what is the H band
myosin only
29
what is the A band
myosin and actin
30
describe the excitiation phase of excitation contraction coupling
AP travels to pre-synaptic knob, influx of Ca2+ Ach released from vesicles via SNARE proteins Ach binds to nicotinic recpetor on the motor end plate influx of Na+ AP travels along scarolemma and T-tubule depolaristaion of dihydropyridine receptor casing transformatonal change of L type channel causes ryanodine receptor to open CA2+ unbinds from calsequestin and pours into intracellular space binds to troponin C
31
outline the contraction phase of excitation contraction coupling
starts in the coked state ADP+Pi bound to myosin head Ca2+ enters, binds to troponin C, induces the release of Troponin I allows troponin-tropomyosin complex to move, exposing myosin binding site on actin filament myosin cross bridges form and the power stroke occurs Pi released during ADP released after stroke ATPase site is free and binds another ATP molecule binding of ATP reduces affintiy of myosin head for actin cross bridges detach CA2+ returned to lateral sacs via SERCA
32
What is CSF
a clear liquid that fills the subarachnoid space and ventricles
33
where is CSF formed
choroid plexuses
34
what are the choroid plexuses
capillary networks surronded by cuboidal epithelium
35
how much CSF is produced daily
500ml a day
36
how much glucose does the csf contain
3.3 mmol/L | 60% of the blood
37
mechanical functions of the CSF
dampen forces volume of the CSF compartment can undergo minor changes to reduce the changes in intracranical pressure due to alterations in cerebral blood flow reduces the weight of the brain
38
metabolic functions of the CSF
maintain constant environment for the brain cells acts as a lympathic system, draining unwanted metabolities into the venous blood via the arachnoid provides some nutirents
39
what are biomarkers
compounds or measurments that show normal functioning of the body, disease process or whether a individual has responded to treatment
40
what are the properties of good biomarkers
easily obtainable usually endogenous sensitive and specific detection method cost effective quick results reproducable and consistent across population concentration or presence correlates with disease progression or in response to thearpy
41
what can pass thorugh the blood brain barrier
anything that is a gas or lipophilic
42
if glucose in the CSF decreses whats could this show?
cells within the CSF are metabolising glucose e.g white blood cells or bacteria
43
if protein in the CSF increases what could this show?
mengingtis, tumor or white blood cells present normal level >1%
44
if IgG in the CSF increases what could this show?
mulitple sclerosis
45
if WBC in the CSF increases what could this show?
bleeding in the brain | tumor
46
if neutrophils in the CSF increases what could this show?
bacterial infection
47
if lymphocytes in the CSF increases what could this show?
viral/myobacterical
48
what is spina bifida
when a babys spine doesnt develop proplerly causing a gap in the spine
49
symptoms of spina bifida
weakness/paralysis of the legs bowel incontience loss of skin sensations around the legs and bottom
50
What is hydrocephalus
disturbance of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) formation, flow, or absorption, leading to an increase in volume occupied by this fluid in the central nervous system (CNS)
51
What is congential hydrocephalus
change in CSF and volume presnt from birth casued by conditions such as spina bifida most babies have pernament brain damage
52
what is the sarcomere made up of
composed of long, fibrous proteins as filaments that slide past each other when a muscle contracts or relaxes. Two of the important proteins are myosin, which forms the thick filament, and actin, which forms the thin filament
53
what is a myotome
the group of muscles that a single spinal nerve innervates. Motor neurones transmit signals to the myotomes, which allows for movement. Each nerve pair in the spine in linked to one myotome causing the group of muscles to be innervated
54
what is an odds ratio
An odds ratio is a measure of association between the exposure and the outcome. The OR represents the odds that an outcome will occur given a particular exposure, compared to the odds of the outcome occurring in the absence of that exposure
55
what is relative risk?
Ratio of the probability of an event occuring in an exposed group to the probability of the event occuring, non-exposed group.
56
what happens in phase I of clincal trails?
studies assess the safety of the drug or device. | Small sample group, couple months
57
what happens in phase II of clincal trails?
studies test the efficacy of the drug or device | Large sample group, months to years
58
what happens in phase III of clincal trails?
studies involved randomized and blind testing | Very large sample group, several years
59
How do incontinence drugs work
They stop the impulses that tell the bladder to contract by blocking the receptors that receive the impulses. As the drugs can’t specifically target the receptors for the bladder the drugs block all receptors in the body which can lead to side effects.
60
What nurones form from the alar plate
sensory neurones
61
Function of Gas
activates adenylate cyclase, increases cAMP | activates PKA =, phosphorylates downstream target proteins
62
Function of Gai
inhibits adenylate cyclase
63
Function of Gq
Activates phospholipase C --> increase IP3 DAG + Ca2+ = PKC activation (smooth muscle contraction)
64
Funtion of Go
Activates K+ channels | Inhibits Ca2+ channels
65
How is the Gq subtype targeted in the parasympathetic system to treat incontinence
Gq Muscarinic 3 antagonist (smooth muscle) viseral SM contraction prevents contaction
66
How is the Gs subtype targeted in the sympathetic system to treat incontinence
a1 adrencoceptor anatgonists - relax internal spinchter | B3 adrenceptor - enchances bladder relaxtion
67
What is the pathophysiological mechanism of myasthenia gravis?
Depletion of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors
68
Which receptors would elicit the most rapid physiological response?
Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
69
Urinary incontinence is common in patients with spina bifida. This is a consequence of damage to which structure?
Sacral nerve
70
Mirabegron is a selective β3 adrenergic receptor agonist? | What effect will it have on bladder function?
Relax bladder destrusor muscle
71
Darifenacin is a selective M3 muscarinic receptor antagonist. What effect will it have on bladder function?
Relax bladder destrusor muscle

DDT (10 decks)

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