trivia Flashcards
(251 cards)
1
Q
Is a schatzki ring an A ring or B ring?
A
B ring
2
Q
What is located in the hypopharynx, a zenker or KJ diverticulum?
A
zenker
3
Q
What is located in the cervical esophagus, a zenker or KJ diverticulum?
A
KJ
4
Q
What muscle represents the true upper esophageal sphincter? What cervical vertebra level?
A
cricopharyngeus
C5/C6
5
Q
What type of mucosal pattern will Barretss have on esophagram?
A
Reticular
6
Q
Feline esophagus has an association with what entity?
A
‘Reflux Esophagitis’
7
Q
What is T3 esophageal cancer? T4?
A
T3 = invasion into adventitia
T4 = invasion into adjacent structures
8
Q
What is the most common reason for recurrent reflux after a Nissen?
A
slipped nissen
9
Q
What is the most common reason for a slipped Nissen?
A
short esophagus
10
Q
What two classes of patients are at an increased risk of esophageal candidiasis?
A
immunosuppressed
motility disorders
11
Q
What type of esophageal ulcer is small with a peripheral halo of edema?
A
herpes
12
Q
What two types of esophageal ulcers are large and flat?
A
CMV and HIV
13
Q
Varices within the upper esophagus should make you think what?
A
SVC obstruction
14
Q
What type of diverticulum is a zenker?
A
pulsion
15
Q
Where in the esophagus do Zenker diverticulum occur?
A
posterior
16
Q
What is the name of the site of weakness in a zenker diverticulum?
A
killian dehiscence
17
Q
Where do KJ diverticula occur?
A
anterior and lateral
18
Q
What type of diverticula occur in the mid-esophagus?
A
traction
19
Q
What type of diverticula occur just above the diaphragm?
A
epiphrenic
20
Q
What is the cause of esophageal pseudo-diverticulosis?
A
chronic reflux esophagitis
21
Q
What is an esophageal web a risk factor for?
A
cancer
22
Q
What is the Carney’s Triad?
A
Chondroma (pulmonary)
Extra Adrenal pheo
GIST
23
Q
Does aspirin cause duodenal ulcers?
A
no
24
Q
What part of the stomach does Menetrier’s Disease favor?
A
fundus
25
What type of Billroth has an end to end anastomosis with the duodenum?
billroth 1
26
Where is the stomach re-attached with a Billroth 2?
jejunum
27
What type of Billroth has an increased risk of gastric cancer? When?
Billroth 2
10-20 years down the road
28
Is a billroth or roux-en-y at an increased risk of gallstones?
roux en y
29
Jejunogastric intussecption has a risk risk of what in the acute form?
mortality
30
Which polyposis syndrome develops osteomas, desmods and papillary thyroid cancer?
Gardner
31
What are the two components of Turcot Syndrome?
FAP and brain tumors (glioma and medulloblastoma)
32
Other than the GI tract, where do Peutz Jeghers get cancer?
pancreatic and GYN
33
What two cancers do Cowdens Syndrome pt get?
breast and thyroid
34
What polyposis syndrome can present with Lhermette Duclos syndrome?
Cowden
35
What polyposis can have ectodermal issues?
Cronkhite Canada
36
What is the most common GI location for sarcoid?
stomach
37
What should be suspected if a Roux-En-Y pt develops weight gain years later?
gastro-gastric fistula
38
Clover leaf sign on fluoro should make you think?
healed peptic ulcer
39
Pseudo-whipples is caused by what bug?
MAI
40
Celiac disease is associated with what lung findings?
idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis (lane hamilton syndrome)
41
Celiac disease is associated with what lung findings?
idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis (lane hamilton syndrome)
42
What bowel wall pathology can celiac disease cause?
bowel wall lymphoma
43
Fold reversal between the duodenum and jejunum should make you think what disease?
Celiac
44
Which class of patient can get severly thickened duodenal folds?
chronic dialysis
45
What is jejunal diverticulosis caused by?
bacterial overgrowth and malabsorption
46
Does duodenal lymphoma obstruct?
no
47
WHat type of hernia is caused by a defect is Hasselbach triangle?
direct
48
What type of hernia is caused by the failure of the processus vaginalis?
indirect
49
What is a Littre hernia?
hernia with a meckels in it
50
What is an Amyand hernia?
hernia with appendix in it
51
What type of hernia is high risk for strangulation? WHy?
richter
only one wall of bowel contained
52
Is laproscopic or open roux-en-y more likely to cause internal hernia?
laproscopic
53
What is more common, a right sided or left sided paraduodenal hernia?
left
54
What fossa do left sided paraduodenal hernias occur through?
fossa of landzert
55
What fossa do right sided paraduodenal hernias occur through?
fossa of waldeyer
56
What hepatiobiliary entities does Crohns increase the risk of?
fatty liver and gallstones
57
Coned cecum should make you think what disease?
E. histolytica
58
What two bugs like the duodenum/proximal small bowel?
giardia
strongyloides
59
What two bugs like the terminal ileum?
TB
yersinia
60
What is the 'Accordion Sign'? With what process is this see?
contrast within mucosal folds
C. diff bitch
61
Large bowel intuss. should make you think what?
colon cancer
62
At what stage does rectal cancer break into the perirectal fat? Why is this important?
T3
neoadjuvant chemo/rads
63
What is McKittrick WHeelock Syndrome?
villous adenoma resulting in electrolyte imbalance and dehydration
64
Which portal vein supplies the caudate?
both
65
What happens to arterial flow to the liver then portal venous flow decreases?
inverse relationship
66
What does degeneration of an HCC look like on MRI?
T2 bright lesion with new T2 dark rim
67
On what phase is Eovist most intense? What transporter?
delayed
OATP
68
What is the mechanism of action of manganese for MRI?
T1 shortening
69
Core or FNA for hepatic hemangioma?
Core
70
What part of FNA do you need to hit in order to have a diagnostic biopsy?
scar
71
What is the radiotracer for FNH?
sulfur colloid
72
Multiple hepatic adenomas should make you think of what two diseases?
glycogen storage
liver adenomatosis
73
Can imaging reliably differentiate HCC from hepatic adenoma?
no
74
Hepatic adenomas often contain what macroscopically?
fat
75
A hepatic adenoma greater than what size usually get resected?
5cm
76
Fibrolamellar HCC will be avid for what radiotracer?
gallium
77
What two genetic diseases have a slightly increased risk of hepatic angiosarcoma?
NF and hemochromatosis
78
Calcified mets should make you think of what type of tumor?
mucinous secreting
79
Which hepatic lesion can be a "stealth lesion" on T1 and T2 weight MR?
FNH
80
What disease can have a massively dilated hepatic artery?
HHT
81
HCC can occur in the acute setting of what infection?
Hep B
82
Bulls Eye Sign is indicative of what type of hepatic infection?
Candida
83
Which infection can have "Extra Hepatic Extension"?
amoeba
84
"Water Lily" or "Sand Storm" are indicative of what disease?
hyatid cyst
85
"Tortoise Shell" is indicative of what disease?
schistosomiasis
86
What is a potential complication of an amebic abscess in the left hepatic lobe?
rupture into the pericardium
87
What part of the liver enhances with Fitz Hughes Curtis Syndrome?
anterior hepatic capsule
88
On a 1.5 T magnet, TE for out of phase is what?
2.2 ms
89
On a 1.5 T magnet, TE for in phase is what?
4.4 ms
90
What visceral organ is only involved with congenital hemochromatosis?
pancreas
91
What visceral organ is only involved on acquired hemochromatosis?
spleen
92
What is the most common cause of Budd Chiari?
idiopathic
93
What lobe is the liver can become massive with Budd Chiari?
caudate
94
What does the liver look like on arterial phase images during flip flop?
centrally enhancing
peripherally hypoattenuating
95
What does the liver look like on portal venous phase images during flip flop?
central washout
peripheral enhancement
96
Will hepatic veins and IVC be patent during budd chiari?
yes
97
Where is hepatic VOD endemic?
jamaica
98
How long does it take for the portal vein to undergo cavernous transformation?
12 months
99
Treated mets to the liver from what primary can mimmic cirrhotic liver morphology?
breast cancer mets
100
Which lobes of the liver are usually donated in an adult? In a child?
adult = 5-8
kids = 2- 3
101
How peripheral is peripheral for portal venous gas in relation to the hepatic capsule?
<2cm
102
Dilated intrahepatic ducts is rare in all types of cirrhosis excluding what?
PSC
103
What bug causes AIDS cholangiopathy? What classic finding is seen 60% of the time?
Cryptosporidium parvum
ampullary stenosis
104
What disease has saccular deformities of the ducts, PSC or AIDS cholangiopathy?
PSC
105
Is Oriental Cholangitis more often effecting the right or left ductal system?
left
106
Does PBC effect the intra or extra-hepatic ducts?
intra
107
A Long Common Channel (CBD and pancreatic duct) predisposes to what pathological happening? Why?
recurrent pancreatitis
reflux
108
What is the most common type of choledochal cyst?
Type 1
109
What is a Type 1 choledochal cyst?
fusiform dilation of the CBD
110
What Todani classification is Caroli?
Type 5
111
Are the intrahepatic, extrahepatic or both affected by Caroli disease?
intrahepatic only
112
What two renal abnormalities is Caroli Disease associated with?
ARPKD
medullary sponge kidney
113
The likelihood of what malignancy is increased with Caroli?
cholangio
114
What is the eponym for an accessory cystic duct?
duct of luschka
115
Mirizzi syndrome is associated with what other gallbladder pathology?
gallbladder carcinoma
116
Does Mirizzi syndrome occur more often in people with a low or high duct insertion?
low
117
Comet Tail artifact is highly associated with what gallbladder finding? What specifically causes this?
adenomyomatosis
cholesterol polyps
118
What size cholesterol polyp needs to be followed?
5-10 mm
119
What is the order of waves on hepatic doppler?
A - S - V - D
120
On hepatic doppler, above the midline represent antegrade or retrograde flow?
above line = retrograde
121
What does the A-wave represent on hepatic doppler?
A = atrial contraction
122
What does the S-wave represent on hepatic doppler?
tricuspid opening
123
What does the V-wave represent on hepatic doppler?
atria filling
124
D wave deeper than an S wave may be indicative of what?
tricuspid regurg
125
S wave deeper than a D wave may be indicative of what?
right heart failure
126
What are the three causes of a pulsatile portal vein spectral wave?
right heart failure
tricuspid regurgitation
cirrhosis
127
What part of the pancreas may be intra-peritoneal?
tail
128
What should be more echogenic, pancreas or liver?
pancreas
129
Lipomatous hypertrophy of the pancreas should make you think of what two diseases?
CF
Schwachman Diamond
130
Dorsal agenesis of the pancreas is associated with what visceral organ abnormality?
polysplenia
131
IE pancreatitis with fluid collections less than 4 weeks old is called?
acute peripancreatic collection
132
IE pancreatitis with fluid collections greater than 4 weeks old is called?
pseudocyst
133
Necrotizing pancreatitis with fluid collections less than 4 weeks old is called?
acute necrotic collection
134
Necrotizing pancreatitis with fluid collections older than 4 weeks old is called?
walled off necrosis
135
Is an edematous pancreas hypo or hyper-echoic?
hypo
136
What is the eponym for the major pancreatic duct?
wirsung
137
What is the eponym for the minor pancreatic duct?
Santorini
138
Under normal anatomy, does the major duct drain within the superior or inferior papilla?
inferior
139
Under normal anatomy, does the minoir duct drain within the superior or inferior papilla?
superior
140
What is pancreas divisum?
when the main pancreatic duct is drained by the minor papilla
141
Strictures/stenosis of what two anatomic structures occur 50% of the time with groove pancreatitis?
duodenum or CBD
142
What is the cause of tropic pancreatitis presumed to be related to?
malnutrition
143
What form of pancreatitis can have stones and obstruction in the main pancreatic duct?
tropic
144
What form of pancreatitis is associated with the SPINK1 gene?
hereditary
145
IgG 4 disease should make you say what five disease?
autoimmune pancreatitis
RP fibrosis
sclerosing cholangitis
inflammatory pseudotumor
riedil thyroiditis
146
Serous cystadenoma is typically found in what patient class? What does it look like?
grandma tumor
bunch of little cysts
147
Where is a serous cystadenoma of the pancreas usually located?
head
148
Does a pancreatic serous cystadenoma communicate with the duct?
nein
149
Mucinous cystic neoplasm is typically found in what patient class? Where is it usually located?
moms
body or tail
150
Which pancreatic neoplasm can fill in like a hemangioma?
solid pseudopapillary
151
How many seconds is pancreatic phase?
40 seconds
152
What visceral organ can get planted in the pancreas?
spleen
153
What vessel to the transplanted pancreas supplies the pancreatic head?
SMA
154
What vessel to the transplanted pancreas supplies the pancreatic body/tail?
splenic artery
155
What venous vessels drain the transplanted pancreas?
donor portal vein and RECIPIENT SMV
156
What are Gamna Gandy bodies? What causes them?
small foci of hemorrhage
portal HTN
157
What is peliosis?
multiple blood filled cystic spaces in a solid organ
158
According to Lionheart, what two situations are the most common to manifest splenic peliosis?
AIDS
renal transplant pts
159
Other than TB or histo, what bug can cause a calcified splenic lesion?
Brucella
160
Littoral cell angioma often presents with clinical signs of what? How do these look on MR?
hyper-splenism
low T1 and T2
161
Does renal scarring overly the columns or pyramids?
pyramids
162
Which type of RCC is associated with VHL?
clear cell
163
What is the three entity differential for T2 dark renal lesion?
papillary RCC
lipid poor AML
hemorrhagic cyst
164
Does a transplanted kidney more often get papillary or clear cell RCC?
papillary
165
Chromophobe RCC is associated with what syndrome?
Burt Hogg Dube
166
Is renal lymphoma unilateral or bilateral?
bilateral
167
Does renal leukemia cause the kidneys to be enlarged or small?
Does renal leukemia hit the cortex, medulla or both?
enlarged
cortex
168
What is another name for Bourneville Disease?
tuberous sclerosis ya dick
169
What renal neoplasm has a central scar?
Oncocytoma
170
Is RCC cold or hot compared to adjacent renal parenchyma? Is oncocytoma cold or hot compared to adjacent renal parenchyma?
rcc = cold
oncocytoma = hot
171
Bilateral oncocytomas should make you think what diusease?
Burt Hogge Dube
172
What part of the rectum is not RP?
lower 1/3
173
What does Erdheim Chester look like on plain films?
bilateral sclerosis of metaphysis
174
What size differentiates T1 vs T1 RCC?
7cm
175
What size differentiates Bosniak 2 from 2F?
3cm
176
How many HU must a renal cyst enhance to be called Bosniak 4?
> 15 cm
177
What appearance can lithium nephropathy give to the kidney?
innumerable tiny cysts
178
What happens to uremia induced cystic disease after liver transplant?
cysts resolve
179
What two malignancies can VHL cause in the pancreas?
neuroendocrine and "serous microcystic adenoma"
180
TS in the lung should make you think of what malignancy?
LAM
181
TS in the heart should make you think of what malignancy? Where specifically?
rhabdomyosarcoma
septum
182
TS in the brain should make you think of what malignancy? Where specifically?
SEGA
183
What is the relationship between TS and RCC?
happens in younger pts
184
What usually happens contralaterally from a MCDK?
some sort of obstruction or reflux
185
Does MCDK have any sort of functioning renal tissue?
no
186
Does a PARApelvic or PERIpelvic cyst originate from the renal parenchyma?
PARA = PARenchyma
187
What are the three most common causes of a striated nephrogram?
acute pyelo
acute obstruction
acute renal vein thrombosis
188
What are the wedged shaped areas of a striated nephrogram related to?
hypoperfusion
189
What is the most common cause of renal papillary necrosis?
the diabetes
190
What is almost always seen with xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis?
stone acting as nidus for infection
191
Cavitary renal calyx should make you think what bug? What other abdominal pathology can be seen?
TB
calcified mesenteric nodes or adrena glands
192
What will the kidneys look like with HIV nephropathy on US?
big and bright
193
What kidney stone is invisible on Xray?
Uric acid = Unseen
194
Which HIV medication can cause kidney stones?
Indinavir
195
What is notable about indinavir induced kidney stones?
not visible on CT
196
What type of stone is highly dependent on pH? High or low pH?
uric acid
high pH
196
What type of stone is highly dependent on pH? High or low pH?
uric acid
high pH
196
What type of stone is highly dependent on pH? High or low pH?
uric acid
high pH
197
What are the lowest attenuating kidney stone?
uric acid
198
What type of renal stone has minimal differences in attenuation with DECT?
uric acid
199
What drug in kids can cause medullary nephrocalcinosis?
lasix
200
What metabolic abnormality can cause medullary nephrocalcinosis?
RTA
201
What three genetic diseases are associated with medullary nephrocalcinosis/sponge kidney?
ED
Caroli
Beckwith Wiedemann
202
What are the two causes of a persistent nephrogram?
hypotension
ATN
203
Does the cortical rim sign indicate arterial insult or pyelonephritis?
arterial insult
204
Reversed arterial diastolic flow should make you think what disease?
renal vein thrombosis
205
What is the formula for resistive index?
PSV - EDV / PSV
206
What virus is a risk factor for renal artery stenosis?
CMV
207
What is the pathophysiology for Renal Allograft Compartment Syndrome?
transplanted kidney too big for extraperitoneal space
208
What type of visceral malignancy are renal transplant patients at an increased risk of?
colon
209
Does RCC tend to occur in native or transplanted kidney? Usually what subtype?
native
papillary
210
What virus can cause a urothelial malignancy in a transplant pt?
BK
210
What virus can cause a urothelial malignancy in a transplant pt?
BK
210
What virus can cause a urothelial malignancy in a transplant pt?
BK
211
What is the cause of ureteritis cystica? Specifically seen in what patient population?
chronic inflammation
diabetics with recurrent UTI
212
Where is malakoplakia seea?
ureters and bladder
213
What is the patient population for malakoplakia?
immunocompromised female patients
214
What can make malakoplakia better?
abx
215
What is associated with malignancy, leukoplakia or malakoplakia? What type of cancer?
leuko
squamous
216
What is the eponym for RP fibrosis?
Ormond disease
217
What is seen as a cause of RP fibrosis in about 10% of cases?
malignancy
218
When is RP fibrosis FDG and gallium avid? When is it not?
early = hot
late = not hot
219
Does RP fibrosis cause medial or lateral deviation of the ureters?
medial
220
Subepithelial renal pelvis hematoma can mimmic what malignancy?
TCC
221
What are the two causes for subepithelial renal pelvis hematoma?
anticoagulation or hemophilia
222
Champage Glass Sign suggests what malignancy?
TCC
223
Balkan Nephropathy can increase the likelihood of what malignancy?
TCC
224
Calcifications in a urachal remnant should make you think what?
cancer
225
What is a psoas hitch used for?
distal ureteral injury and reimplantation
226
Is the molar tooth sign indicative of intraperitoneal or extraperitoneal bladder rupture?
extra
227
Is pseudo-azotemia indicative of intra or extravesicular rupture? WHy?
intra
peritoneal lining absorbs urine
228
What are the two components of the anterior urethra?
penile and bulbar
229
What part of the urethra is below the pubic symphysis?
bulbar
230
What are the two components of the posterior urethra?
memrbanous and prostatic
231
Where in the urethra is the verumontanum located?
posterior wall of prostatic urethra
232
What is a Type 1 urethral injury?
stretch
233
What part of the urethra is injured with a Type 2 Injury?
membranous
234
What structure needs to be damaged in order for contrast from a RUG to get into the scrotum?
Urogenital diaphragm
235
What is a type 3 urethral injury?
membranous and bulbar
236
Is the urogenital diaphragm injured during a type 3 urethral injury/?
yes
237
What is a type 4 urethral injury?
bladded base injury extending into prostatic urethra
238
What is a Type 5 urethral injury?
bulbar
239
What part of the urethra is most commonly injured during a straddle injury?
bulbar
240
What part of the urethra is effected by gonococcal disease? Long or short segment?
distal bulbar
long
241
Multiple filling defects within the urethra on a RUG should make you think what?
Condyloma acuminatum
242
What is the worry of instrumentation with urethral condyloma?
retrograde seeding
243
What is almost always the cause of a urethral diverticulum in a male?
long term foley
244
What part of the urethra can harbor TCC? What malignancy can occur throughout the remaining urethra?
prostatic urethra = TCC
all else = sequmous
245
If a urethral diverticulum were to harbor malignancy, which type is it almost always?
adenocarcinoma
246
What is almost always the cause of urethral diverticulum in females?
repeated UTI
247
What type of cancer can manifest in a female urethral diverticulum?
adeno
