Trivia Flashcards

(84 cards)

1
Q

What are the three positions in Karpman’s drama triangle?

A

Victim, persecutor, and rescuer

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2
Q

What, according to Carl Rogers, are the three conditions for effective helping?

A

The therapist must show empathy; be genuine/congruent; and display unconditional positive regard (UPR)

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3
Q

The notion that behavior is motivated primarily by future opportunities rather than the past

A

Fictional finalism/ guiding fiction (from Alfred Adler’s Individual Psychology)

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4
Q

Research illuminates that the therapeutic relationship contributes to _____% of the client outcome

A

30%

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5
Q

What are the five stages of Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model (R/CD)?

A
  1. conformity
  2. dissonance
  3. resistance and immersion
  4. introspection
  5. synergetic articulation and awareness
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6
Q

What is the order of Freud’s psychosexual stages?

A

Oral (birth to 1 year), anal (1-3 years), phallic (Oedipal/Electra complex, 3-6 years), latency (7-12 or puberty), and genital (puberty/adolescence and adulthood)

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7
Q

What are Kohlberg’s three levels of moral development?

A

Preconventional (behavior governed by consequences); conventional (a desire to conform to socially acceptable rules); and postconventional (self-accepted moral principles guide behavior). Each level has two stages.

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8
Q

Object permanence happens during which of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development?

A

Sensorimotor (birth to 2 years)

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9
Q

Logical thinking emerges during which of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development?

A

Concrete operational (7-12 years)

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10
Q

Conservation is associated with which of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development?

A

Concrete operational (7-12 years)

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11
Q

What year was the American Personnel and Guidance Association established?

A

1952

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12
Q

In what year did APGA become AACD?

A

1983

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13
Q

In what year did the American Association for Counseling and Development (AACD) change its name to American Counseling Association (ACA)?

A

1992

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14
Q

What are the major eras of Daniel Levinson’s theory of adult development?

A

childhood and adolescence (pre-adulthood), early adulthood, middle adulthood, and later adulthood. A major life transition happens between each of these stages.

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15
Q

William Glasser created which therapy and theory?

A

Reality therapy with choice theory

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16
Q

According to Glasser, psychological needs include what four needs?

A

belonging, power, freedom, and fun

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17
Q

What is Robert Wubbolding’s WDEP and what theory does it expand on?

A

Wubbolding expanded the theory of reality therapy with his introduction of WDEP.
W = wants (belonging, freedom, fun, power, and independence)
D = direction and doing (is the client doing something to take them in the best direction?)
E = evaluation/self-evaluation (how is the behavior working for the client?)
P = plan. Plan should be immediate, attainable, and measurable

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18
Q

What are the three elements of Lynn P. Rehm’s Self-Control Therapy?

A

Self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement. This is a self-control behavioristic paradigm of therapy.

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19
Q

Brief therapy and narrative therapy are ___________ approaches

A

constructivist

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20
Q

Michael White and David Epston are associated with which form of therapy?

A

narrative therapy (NT)

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21
Q

Externalizing the problem is a technique commonly used in which type of therapy?

A

Michael White and David Epston’s narrative therapy (NT)

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22
Q

What is a formula first session task (FFST)?

A

A homework assignment prescribed after the first session, often used in solution-focused brief therapy (SFBT)

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23
Q

Family therapists believe in _________ causality

A

circular (as opposed to linear)

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24
Q

In family therapy, a first-order change occurs when…

A

a client makes a superficial change to deal with a problem, but the change does not alter the underlying structure of the family

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25
Which type of feedback loops induce change in the family system as opposed to maintaining homeostasis?
positive feedback loops
26
What are the four patterns of communication described by experimental conjoint family therapist Virginia Satir?
The placator; the blamer; the reasonable analyzer; and the irrelevant distracter
27
Which approach to family therapy did Nathan Ackerman utilize?
psychoanalytic/psychodynamic
28
Who's name is most associated with intergenerational therapy/ extended family systems therapy?
Murray Bowen
29
In family therapy, what is differentiation?
the ability to control reason over emotion. The opposite of fusion. People often secure their level of differentiation via a multigenerational transmission process
30
Who is the leading figure behind structural family therapy?
Slavador Minuchin
31
The technique of joining by utilizing mimesis is associated with which type of therapy?
Minuchin's structural family therapy
32
Jay Haley and Cloe Madanes are powerful names in _________________________.
Strategic family counseling (aka the MRI model and the communications model).
33
The therapist gives directives or prescriptions which are often paradoxical and reframes and relabels problems in which type of family therapy?
Strategic family counseling, associated with Jay Haley and Cloe Madanes
34
Which model of family therapy uses a treatment team with a one-way mirror?
The Milan Model
35
Who is considered the father of mental health consultation?
Gerald Caplan
36
Besides the doctor-patient model of consultation, Edgar Schein is known for which other two models?
the purchase of expertise model and the process consultation model
37
Milton H. Erickson, Steven de Shazer, Bill O'Hanlon, Paul Watzlawick, Don Jackson, and Michelle Weiner Davis are all...
brief strategic therapists that champion paradox or prescribing the symptom in individual or family therapy
38
In excess this brain chemical is thought to fuel schizophrenia, while very low levels are implicated in Parkinson's disease
Dopamine
39
It has been said that the _____ hemisphere of the brain is logical, verbal, and analytic.
left
40
The emotional, creative, and artistic hemisphere is said to be on the _________ side of the brain.
right
41
In Linda S. Gottfredson's career development theory, what does she call the process of narrowing the acceptable alternatives?
circumscription
42
The role of self-efficacy beliefs, outcome expectations, goals, and cognitive processes is emphasized in which career theory?
Social Cognitive Career Theory (SCCT) by Robert Lent, Steven Brown, and Gail Hackett. Relies on Albert Banduras' general social cognitive theory as a unifying framework.
43
Mark Savickas uses techniques popularized by _________ therapy to create a postmodern constructivist approach to career theory.
narrative therapy
44
The DOT has been replaced by _______
O*NET | DOT = Dictionary of Occupational Titles
45
Who wrote "What Color is Your Parachute" and what does it help with?
Richard Bolles. The book is a job hunting tool.
46
What does "the hidden job market" refer to?
80% of all jobs are not advertised, and thus job seekers need to network.
47
Woman make $_____ for each dollar earned by men.
$0.80 | African American women earn $0.68 and Latina women $0.60 for every dollar earned by white men
48
A person who is unemployed due to downsizing, a company relocation, or the fact that the company closed the business is called a ______________.
dislocated worker
49
The average worker has how many jobs by age 36?
nine
50
What is the difference between dual earner and dual career families?
Dual earner: no chance for advancement | Dual career: managerial or professional position with possibility for advancement
51
When a supervisor erroneously rates the majority of workers as average, it is called the _________________ bias.
central tendency bias
52
T-scores have a mean of ____ and a standard deviation of ____.
``` mean = 50 SD = 10 ```
53
_____% of scores will fall between +/- 1 SD from the mean under a normal curve
68%
54
_____% of scores will fall between +/- 2 SD from the mean under a normal curve
95%
55
_____% of scores will fall between +/- 3 SD from the mean under a normal curve
99.7%
56
Rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true is called a _______ error.
Type I error/ alpha error
57
Accepting the null hypothesis when it should have been rejected is called a ________ error.
Type II error/ beta error
58
The significance level (e.g. 0.05) gives you the probability of a _______ error.
Type I / alpha
59
When subjects in a study have cues regarding what the researcher desires or does not desire that influence their behavior, we say that ________________ is/are evident
demand characteristics
60
When research subjects know they are being observed, we refer to the process as a(n) _____________ measure
obtrusive or reactive (as opposed to an unobtrusive measure)
61
A _________ is a popular parametric test for comparing two means in a normally distributed population.
t test
62
The ___________, originally developed by Ronald Fisher, is a parametric measure for normally distributed populations that is used when there are two or more means to compare
ANOVA, or analysis of variance
63
An ANOVA provides _______ that help one determine if significant differences are present.
F values
64
When investigating more than one DV, one can use a(n) ____________.
MANOVA, or multivariate analysis of variance
65
Use _________________ when you are investigating two or more IVs/experimental variables.
Factorial analysis of variance, aka factorial ANOVA. If you have two IVs it would be a two-way ANOVA (splitting the sample into 4 or more groups), three IVs requires a three-way ANOVA, etc.
66
A one-way ANOVA has ___ IV(s) that splits the sample into ___ or more groups.
one IV, two or more groups
67
The most common non-parametric test that can be used if the population is not necessarily normal is the __________.
chi-quare | Think "chi" for "categorical data"
68
A test that is similar to the one-way ANOVA but which is used in its stead with nonparametric data is the _____________.
Kruskal-Wallis
69
Another name for an ex post facto research design is _____________.
causal-comparative design
70
Summative or outcome evaluation occurs at the end of a program or treatment, while __________ evaluation takes place during treatment or while a program is going on.
formative evaluation
71
The interquartile range (IQR) refers to what percentile range?
25th-75th percentile
72
How is the IQR calculated?
Q3-Q1 = IQR
73
Another name for the within groups design or within-subject design in which each subject is their own control is _____________.
the repeated measures design.
74
A distribution curve that is flatter and more spread out than the normal curve is a ___________ distribution.
platykurtic
75
A distribution that is taller, skinnier, and has a greater peak than the normal curve is a ___________ distribution.
leptokurtic
76
The DV is plotted on the ___ axis
Y
77
____________ graphically depict the Pearson Product-Moment Correlation Coefficient (r)
Scattergrams, aka scatter plots/diagrams
78
The ___________ tests two or more groups while controlling for extraneous variables
ANCOVA
79
Another name for extraneous variables is __________
covariates
80
What test is used in place of the t test when the data are nonparametric and you wish to test whether two correlated means differ significantly?
Wilcoxon signed-rank test | Mnemonic: "co" for "correlated"
81
The Mann-Whitney U test is used to determine _______________ when data are ___________.
whether two uncorrelated means differ significantly when data are nonparametric Mnemonic: "u" for "uncorrelated
82
The __________ is used in place of the Pearson r when parametric assumptions cannot be utilized.
Spearman's rho or Kendall's tau
83
The __________ is a nonparametric test that examines whether obtained frequencies differ significantly from expected frequencies.
chi-square
84
Experimental designs are often diagrammed. The most popular appreviations are O, X, E, C, R, and NR. What do these stand for?
``` O = observation, measurement, or sore. O is the DV X = treatment E = experimental group C = control group R = random sampling NR = no random sampling of groups ```