TrueLearn COMBANK 2 Flashcards

(55 cards)

1
Q

What is the general age that children are switched from rear-facing carseats to fowrard-facing?

A

2 years

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2
Q

Location of the psoas tender point & positioning of counterstrain technique?

A
  • 2/3 the distance of the ASIS to the midline
  • patient supine, bilateral hip flexion, side-bending of lumbar spine toward the tender point
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3
Q

Location of the iliacus tender point & positioning of counterstrain technique?

A
  • 1/3 distance ASIS to midline
  • bilateral hip flexion and external rotation of hips with knees flexed
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4
Q

Location of the low ilium tender point & positioning of counterstrain technique?

A
  • superior surface of the iliopubic eminence at attachement of psoas minor
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5
Q

Location of the inguinal tender point & positioning of counterstrain technique?

A
  • lateral aspect of pubic tubercle at the attachement of the pectineus muscle or inguinal ligament
  • flexion of hips with contralateral thigh crossed over ipsilateral thigh; causes flexion, adduction, internal rotation
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6
Q

What test is used to diagnose a gastrinoma?

A

secretion stimulation test

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7
Q

What is the term for the small, painful, palmar nodules seen in patients with endocarditis?

A

Osler nodes

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8
Q

Major and minor duke criteria for endocarditis?

A

2 major, 1 major + 3 monor, 5 minor
Major
* 2 separate blood cultures showing viridans streptococci, HAECK, or community-acquired enterococci
* persistently positive blood cutures: + cultues obtained >12 hrs apart > 3 positive blood cultures with bateria known to be skin flora
* culture posotive for Coxiella
* echo showing vegetation or abscess

Minor
* osler nodes, roth spots, glomerularnephritis
* fever >38C (100.4F)
* arterial emboli, conjunctival hemorrhage, intracranial hemorrhage, septic pulmonary emboli, janeway lesion
* positive blood culture with other organisms than listed above
* history of IV drug use or prosthetic valve

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9
Q

Treatment for severe hyponatremia?

A

100mL bolus 3% saline
if symptoms persist, 2 additional 100mL doses can be given over 10 min
goal is to increase Na by 4-6mEq/L over period of hours

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10
Q

Initial evaluation after discovery of atypical glandular cells from pap?

A

colposcopy & endometrial sampling if patient is over 35

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11
Q

Which papillary muscle is most prone to rupure post MI?

A

posteromedial b/c it is has only one coronary distrubution via the right coronary artery

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12
Q

35 year old female presents with an isolated, painless mass in her thyroid gland. Labs reveal hyperclacemia and elevated parathyroid hormone. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

medullary carcinoma

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13
Q

What is the first line treatment for hypertension in patients with proteinuria or evidence of chronic kidney disease?

A

ACE inhibitor

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14
Q

Embryologic innervation foregut?

A
  • stomach: T5 - 10 (left)
  • duodenum: T6 - 8 (right)
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15
Q

Embryologic innervation midgut?

A
  • small intesting: T8 - 10
  • Appendix/cecum: T9 - 12
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16
Q

Embryologic innervation hindgut?

A

descending colon/rectum: L1 - L3 (left)

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17
Q

Typical labs seen in patients with hyperaldosteronism?

A
  • hypokalemia
  • hypernatremia
  • metabolic alkalosis
  • hypomagnesemia
  • increased aldosterone to plasma renin activity ration
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18
Q

A 50-year-old female presents to the office with the complaint of a rash that has progressed over the past few months. She said it started as a red rash but it has now changed to a plaque like area over her arms and legs. A biopsy of the lesion is obtained and reveals Pautrier’s microabscesses. The most likely diagnosis is

A

mycosis fungoides

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19
Q

What is a sensitive laboratory test to screen for muscular dystrophy?

A

serum creatinine kinase

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20
Q

What is the most appropriate position to examine a patient is the 3rd trimester of pregnancy?

A

left lateral decubitus

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21
Q

When a patient in DKA is ready to be transitioned off the insulin drip, when should subcutaneous insulin be started?

A

2 hours before the insulin drip is stopped

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22
Q

What is the treatment for Bell’s palsy?

A

glucocorticoids (within 72 hours)
eye care

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23
Q

Treatment for postpartum endometritis?

A

clindamycin and gentamicin
ampicillin if patient is know to be colonized by group B strep

24
Q

Histology, AFP, and B-hCG of yok sac tumor?

A

Histology
* multiple patterns
* Schiller-Duval bodies present in 50%

AFP
* elevated (>100ng/mL)

B-hCG
* negative

25
Histology, AFP, and B-hCG of choriocarcinoma?
Histology * abundant necrosis & hemorrhage, mixed cytotrophoblasts and syncitiotrophoblasts AFP * negative B-hCG * elevated (often >1000IU/L)
26
Histology, AFP, and B-hCG of teratoma?
Histology * mature & immature components AFP * negative B-hCG * negative
27
Histology, AFP, and B-hCG of seminoma?
Histology * clonal cells with wel defined cytoplasmic borders; central nuclei with prominent nucleoli; and clear, glycogenated cytoplasm AFP * negative B-hCG * may be midly elevated
28
Histology, AFP, and B-hCG of embryonal tumor?
Histology * Rarely present in pure form; demonstrates clusters and sheets of markedly atypical cells. May contain syncitiotrophoblast cells AFP * negative B-hCG * may be mildly elevated
29
What are the medications used for prophylactic migraine treatment?
* beta blockers (propranolol) * calcium channel blocker * tricyclic antidepressants * valproic acid * SNRI * topiramate
30
What is the first choice of biopsy for a non-palpable mammographic abnormality?
stereotactic core needle biopsy
31
List the adverse effects associated with each of the following tuberculosis medications: Rifampin Isoniazid Pyrazinamide Ethambutol
Rifampin * orange discoloration of tears, saliva, and urine Isoniazid * hepatitis * lupus-like-symptoms * peripheral neuropathy Pyrazinamide * hepatitis * hyperurecicemia Ethambutol * optic neuritis
32
What infections are required to be reported to the health department with or without the patient's consent?
1. syphilis 2. Hepatitis A & B 3. Salmonella 4. Shigella 5. Measles 6. Mumps 7. AIDS 8. rubella 9. tuberculosis 10. Chlamydia 11. Varicella 12. Gonorrhea
33
Leg length discrepancies of what length can be treated with an in-sole shoe life?
less than 2cm
34
What medications are the most likely to cause stevens-johnsons syndrome?
1. allopurinol 2. NSAIDs 3. antibiotics 4. anticonvulsants
35
Which bones form the occipitomastoid suture?
occiput and temporal
36
What are the 3 first line tests in the diagnosis of Cushing Syndrome?
1. low dose dexamethasome test 2. 11pm salivary cortisol (x2) 3. 24 hr urine free cortisol (x2)
37
Which cardiac pathology is characteristic of a lout S1, along with a mid-diastolic rumble with an opening snap at the cardiac apex?
mitral stenosis
38
Treatment of choice for a hemodynamically stable patient in SVT?
IV adenosine
39
Treatment of neurocysticercosis?
phenytoin, prednisone, & albendazole if >2 cysts, add praziquantel
40
Which court case gives the spouse the right to refuse life-sustaining treatment based on an advance directive?
Cruzan vs. Director
41
Contact dermatitis is what type of a hypersensitivity reaction?
type IV
42
What is the parkland formula and what is it used for?
fluid resuscitation in sever burn victims fluid req. first 24 hr = 4 x kg x BSA% first half in first 8 hrs second half in next 16 hrs
43
Treatment for patient 21-24 with atypical squamous cells of underermined significance (ASCUS) found on pap?
repeat cytology in 12 months
44
What law prevens people from suddently losing health insurance when transidioning jobs or hours are cut?
COBRA
45
What is the treatment for proliferative diabetic retinopathy?
laser photocoagulation
46
Common laboratory abnormalities seen in tumor lysis syndrome?
* hyperkalemia * hyperphosphatemia * hypocalcemia * hyperurecemia
47
Common laboratory abnormalities seen in tumor lysis syndrome?
* hyperkalemia * hyperphosphatemia * hypocalcemia * hyperurecemia
48
What are the actions of the piriformis?
* external rotation * extension * abduction of the hip
49
PML infects what cell types?
oligodendrocytes
50
How can you decrease intracranial pressure via ventilator?
hyperventilation
51
Treatment for an AIDS patient with candida esophagitis who has failed a 10-day course of fluconazole?
echinocandin (micafungin)
52
Treatment for acute dystonia?
benztropine or diphenhydramine
53
Radiation exposure less than what level provides negligable risk to a fetus?
50 mGy (5 rad)
54
What is the GFR threshold that makes metformin contraindicated?
30 mL/min
55
Which case established a legal precedent for informed consent?
Schloendorff vs. Society of New York Hospital