tumour pathology 1-5 Flashcards

(101 cards)

1
Q

what is a benign glandular epithelium called

A

adenoma

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2
Q

what is a malignant glandular epithelium called

A

adeno-carcinoma

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3
Q

what is a benign squamous epithelium called

A

squamous

papilloma

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4
Q

what is a malignant squamous epiyhelium called

A

squamous carcinoma

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5
Q

what is a benign bone cancer called

A

osteoma

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6
Q

what is a malignant bone cancer called

A

osteo-sarcoma

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7
Q

what is a benign fat tumour called

A

lipoma

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8
Q

what is a malignant fat tumour called

A

lipo-sarcoma

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9
Q

what is a benign fiborous tumour called

A

fibroma

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10
Q

what is a malignant fibtous tissue called

A

fibro-sarcoma

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11
Q

is there a benign white blood cell tumour

A

no

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12
Q

what’s the name of a malignant WBCs cancer (more specificly bone marrow)

A

leukaemia

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13
Q

what are the types of tumour in lymphoid tissue

A

no Benign

malignant = lymphoma

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14
Q

what are the cancers associated with melanocytes

A

naevus - benign

melanoma - malignant

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15
Q

what are the tumours in the central nervous system

A

Astrocytoma

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16
Q

what are the tumours in the peripheral nervous system

A

Schwannoma

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17
Q

what are germ cell tumours called

A

Teratomas

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18
Q

what are teratomas made off

what is the difference between ovarian and testicular

A

various tissue

ovarina teratoma is benign

testicular teratoma is usually malignant

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19
Q

what are the features and ‘‘break out’’ of a malignant tumour

A

invasive
can have the presence of a capsule however BREACHING will ocur

poorly differentiated
loss of normal function

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20
Q

what are the type of tumours that are well differntiated

A

benign

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21
Q

what is the top 3 cancers overall

A

breast then lung then prostate

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22
Q

what are the top - 5yr survivable cancers

A

melanoma - 90
breast - 85
prostate - 85
uterus - 80

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23
Q

what are the properties of cancer cells releated to genes

A

loss of suppressor genes

gain of function of oncogenes

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24
Q

what are some of the suppressor genes

A

APC
Retinoblastoma
RAC1

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25
what are some of the oncogenes
B-raft | Cyclin D1
26
what are the other properties of cancer
altered function independent/unregulated growth tumour biomarkers
27
what is important to remember about cancer cell properties
no single feature is unique to cancer cells
28
how is cell function altered
loss of cell to cell adhesion cell to extracellular matrix is lost production of tumour biomarkers
29
what are tumour bio markers used for
Screening Diagnosis Prognostic Predictive - response to therapy
30
what dose the biomarker kras detect
colorectal cancer
31
what dose braf detect
melanoma 'bra your skins messed up'
32
what dose EGFR detect
lung cancer EGs Fucking Resps
33
what dose Her 2 detect
BREAST CANCER, gastric cancer
34
what dose a Carcino-embryonic antigen (CEA) | suggest
colorectal cancer
35
what dose the presence Alpha-fetoprotein
Hepatocellular carcinoma | Teratoma of testis(malignant)
36
what happens to the morphology of a cancer cell
cellular and nuclear pleomorphism variation in shape and size
37
what are the two factors that control tumour growth
angiogenesis | apoptosis
38
what is tumour angiogenesis
new blood vessel formation by tumour
39
why is tumour angiogenesis important
required to sustain tumour growth route of metastasis more blood vessel = poorer prognosis
40
what is apoptosis
Mechanism of programmed single cell death
41
what dose it regulate and what is it involved in
regulates tumour growth | involved in chemotherapy and radiotherapy
42
what is the basic out line of tumour spread
normal tissue -- tumour -- metastasis
43
what is trans-coelomic spread
type of local spread across body cavities pleural/peritoneal cavities
44
what are the modes of spread
local lymphatic blood trans-coelomic
45
what is local spread
invasion into the connective tissue
46
they site of metastasis is..
not related to tissue blood flow
47
what is a metastatic niche
the role played by a tumour depending on its characteristics and tissue
48
what are the most common metastasis locations
Liver Lung Brain
49
where are the least like spread
Spleen Kidney Skeletal muscle
50
where dose breast and prostate canner commonly metastasise
in the bone
51
what are the local effects of a benign tumours
pressure and obstruction
52
what dose a benign tumour usually put pressure on
the GI tract blood vessels
53
what are the local effects of malignant tumours
pressure obstruction tissue destruction bleeding Pain
54
what dose the bleeding caused by malignant tumours do
lead to haemorrhage | lead to anaemia
55
what does the tissue destruction caused by malignant tumours lead to
ulceration and infection
56
what can the pain of a malignant tumour be down to
pressure on nerves | perineural infiltration bone fractures
57
what tumours have systemic effects
malignant tumours
58
what are the systemic effects of a malignant tumour
weight loss secretion of hormones paraneoplastic syndromes EFFECTS CAUSED BY TREATMENT
59
how dose cancer effect hormone secretion
normal hormones produced - however volume is all over the place (endocrine) abnormal - a hormone that usually isn't produce from the organ
60
what are the two hormones that are abnormal for lung cancer
ACTH | ADH
61
what are Paraneoplastic Syndromes
no one really knows symptoms in tissues nowhere near the tumour site immune mechanism
62
why is it important to detect cancer early
Reduce/prevent morbidity/mortality
63
what has been identified when a caner is detected at a pre-invasive stage
dysplasia intraepithelial neoplasia
64
what is Dysplasia how is it graded
a pre-malignant change (earliest pin of detection) high grade - develop into cancer sooner low grade - develop into cancer later
65
where is it identified and
Identified in epithelium No invasion But can progress to cancer
66
what are its features
disorganisation of cells Increased nuclear size Increased mitotic activity Abnormal mitoses
67
what is a intra-epithelial neoplasia
is the development of a HIGH GRADE dysplasia
68
what dose early detection require
``` Requires effective test Sensitive/specific Acceptable cheap political backing ```
69
what is an example of early detection
Cervical Cancer Screening reduce incidence of squamous carcinoma of cervix detects dysplastic cells in that region
70
what is the basic process of the cell cycle
inter phases mitosis cytokinesis ``` m1, s, m2 P M A T cytokinesis ```
71
what is G0
a stage of dormancy
72
how do CDKs work
cyclin binds and lets them phosphorylate subunit which allows the cycle to continue
73
what are CKIs
inhibitor molecules that bind to the cyclin/CDK complexes what are some examples p16/p21
74
what is the Retinoblastoma gene
Encodes a phosphoprotein (pRb) expressed in almost every human cell the breaks
75
what happens when pRB is hypophosporlyated
it becomes active and | cell stays at G1
76
how are the breaks turned off
when the cDK/cyclin complexes pRB
77
what happens when pRB is phosphorylated
it looses affinity to E2F
78
what is E2F
powerful signal for cell cycle activation
79
what is the process of carcinogenesis
Uncontrolled proliferation of cells forms tumours
80
what are the two frequently disrupted pathways in carcinogenesis
the cyclin/CDK complex---pRB--E2F pathway p53 pathway
81
what dose p53 detect
DNA damage
82
what dose NORMAL p53 do
detects damage and either repairs activates p21 (CDK inhibitor) or kills the cell
83
what dose BAX do
cause cell death apoptosis
84
what happens if p53 is mutated
leads to the DEREGULATED proliferation of cells that have damaged DNA
85
how is the cyclin/CDK--pRB- E2F pathway stopped
the tumour suppressor gene turns off the production of pRB
86
what do cells with mutated p53 proliferate to form
malignant neoplasms
87
what factors can cause carcinogenesis
Environmental agents Chemicals Radiation Oncogenic viruses Inherited factors
88
what are proto-oncogenes
a normal gene that codes for normal growth regulation growth factors and their receptors
89
what is the two hit hypothesis
in a video game everyone has two lives but some people only have one its the hypothesis that certain mutations occur more often if people who have been given a copy of a mutated gene
90
an example of the two hit hypothesis
inherited retinoblastoma
91
what are tumour suppressor genes how will cancer occur example
anti-oncogenes act as the emergency elevator breaks Loss of both normal allelic copies p53
92
how may people inherit cancer | what will it look like
5-10% early onset of multiple tumours
93
what do p16s do | what cancer occurs if they mutate
inhibits CDKs | malignant melanoma
94
what are oncogenes
Derived from proto-oncogenes with gain of function alteration of structure - point mutation or translocation overexpression
95
what is BRAC1/2
a tumour suppressor gene
96
what is an example of a proto-oncogene what dose it do how is it activated
Her2 - EGF receptor VEGF amplification lead to breast ovarian and gut
97
how dose chemical carcinogenesis occur
DNA is critically damaged by oxidizing and alkylating agents - it binds to the DNA (adducts) leading to the loss of anti-oncogenes and the mutation of proto-oncogenes
98
what is Radiation carcinogenesis
as it says on the tin | DNA damage
99
what are Viral carcinogenesis examples
viruses insert genome with a oncogene or something that mutates a proto-oncogene HPV - genital HEP B - liver
100
how is tumour formation is a multi-step process what is needed
sporadic cancers need several oncogenes loss of anti-oncogenes happens with mutations over time
101
what are examples of anti oncogenes
p16, cyclin D, CDK4, Rb