Turning Point Sessions

Question 1

A shift of an oxygen dissociation binding curve to the right indicates which of the following?
A. Decreased affinity of Hgb for oxygen
B. Decreased dissociation of oxygen to Hgb
C. Decreased T state of Hgb
D. Increased affinity of Hgb for oxygen
E. Increased binding of oxygen to Hgb
F. Increased R state of Hgb

Answer 1

A

Question 2

Which of the following would result in a shift to the right of an oxygen dissociation binding curve?
A. Decrease in CO2 concentration
B. Decrease in H+ concentration
C. Increase in 2,3-BPG concentration
D. Increase in CO concentration
E. Increase in Fe(2+) concentration

Answer 2

C

Question 3

Which one of the following best describes carbaminohemoglobin?
A. CO2 carried in the blood bound to Hgb
B. Hgb in the R state
C. Hgb with 2,3-BPG bound to it
D. Hgb with CO bound to it
E. Oxidation of Fe(2+) to Fe(3+)

Answer 3

A

Question 4

Which of the following best describes when two molecules of CO are bound to Hgb?
Molecules of O2 Bound/Curve Shift
A. 2/left
B. 2/right
C. 4/left
D. 4/right

Answer 4

A

Question 5

Which of the following best describes why HbF allows the fetus to get oxygen from the mother?
A. HbF cannot bind CO
B. HgF has a lower binding affinity for 2,3-BPG
C. HgF has higher anhydrous Fe(3+)
D. HgF is not affected by pH
E. Lower pO2 on fetus side of placenta drives diffusion of O2 across placenta

Answer 5

B

Question 6

Which one of the following describes hemoglobin with a glutamic acid to lysine amino acid change?
A. Beta-thalassemia
B. Hemoglobin C Disease
C. Hemoglobin H Disease
D. Methemoglobinemia
E. Sickle Cell Disease

Answer 6

B

Question 7

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of the drug Imara?
A. Decrease 2,3-BPG
B. Decrease HbS
C. Increase HbA2
D. Increase HbF
E. Reduce Fe(3+) to Fe(2+)

Answer 7

D

Question 8

In hereditary persistence of fetal hemoglobin, which of the following would be elevated?
A. alpha2-beta2
B. alpha2-delta2
C. alpha2-gamma2
D. epsilon2-zeta2

Answer 8

C

Question 9

In a patient with a NADH-cytochrome b5 reductase deficiency, which one of the following would most likely be increased?
A. 2,3-BPG
B. Fe(3+)
C. HbA2
D. HbF
E. HbS

Answer 9

B

Question 10

A patient with the inability to synthesize the beta-globin protein has which of the following?
A. beta-thalassemia minor
B. Cooley anemia
C. Hemoglobin H Disease
D. Methemoglobinemia
E. Sickle Cell Disease

Answer 10

B

Question 11

A patient with a defect in 3 of the 4 alpha-globin genes has which of the following?
A. beta-thalassemia minor
B. Cooley anemia
C. Hemoglobin H Disease
D. Methemoglobinemia
E. Sickle Cell Disease

Answer 11

C

Question 12

Which of the following immunoglobins is most abundant in plasma?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM

Answer 12

D

Question 13

Which one of the following is the chain arrangement for IgM?
A. (a2k2)2, (a2l2)2
B. d2k2, d2l2
C. e2k2, e2l2
D. g2k2, g2l2
E. (m2k2)5, (m2l2)5

Answer 13

E

Question 14

Which one of the following structures determines the type of immunoglobulin?
A. Antigen binding site
B. Constant domain
C. Heavy Chain
D. Light Chain
E. Papain Cleavage Site

Answer 14

C

Question 15

Which one of the following would have hypervariability in its amino acid sequence?
A. Antigen binding site
B. Constant domain
C. Heavy Chain
D. Light Chain
E. Papain Cleavage Site

Answer 15

A

Question 16

Which of the following would best quantitate the amount of albumin in our plasma?
A. ELISA
B. Chromatin immunoprecipitation (ChIP)
C. Immunoprecipitation
D. Monoclonal Antibodies
E. Polyclonal Antibodies

Answer 16

A

Question 17

Which of the following would best demonstrate the size of a protein?
A. ELISA
B. Chromatin immunoprecipitation (ChIP)
C. Immunoprecipitation
D. Monoclonal Antibodies
E. Polyclonal Antibodies

Answer 17

C

Question 18

Which one of the following would best indicate a fully human immunotherapy?
A. -Momab
B. -Mumab
C. Polyclonal Antibodies
D. -Ximab
E. -Zumab

Answer 18

B

Question 19

Which is an example of paracrine cellular signaling?
A. Cardiac muscle contraction
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Ras signaling
D. Smooth muscle relaxation
E. Whooping Cough

Answer 19

D

Question 20

Which GPCR signaling components are incorrectly defined?
A. Acetylcholine receptor: GPCR
B. Guanylyl cyclase: effector molecule
C. IP3: second messenger
D. Nitric oxide: paracrine signaling molecule
E. PKG: effector molecule

Answer 20

E

Question 21

Which downstream event occurs when epinephrine binds a stimulatory GPCR?
A. activation of phospholipase C
B. decrease in cytosolic calcium second messenger levels
C. increased transcription of cAMP response genes
D. PDE4 forms cAMP
E. PKA regulatory subunits enter the nucleus

Answer 21

C

Question 22

Which will NOT increase as a result of epinephrine signaling?
A. adipose tissue hydrolysis of triglycerides
B. cardiac muscle smooth contractile rate
C. liver glycogen synthesis
D. liver amino acid uptake
E. skeletal muscle glycogenolysis

Answer 22

C

Question 23

A researcher creates an inactivating mutation in the catalytic region of Phospholipase C. Which could still take place for smooth muscle relaxation paracrine signaling?
A. activation of PKG pathway in the smooth muscle cells
B. binding of GTP to the trimeric G protein alpha subunit
C. calmodulin binding to calcium
D. production of nitric oxide in the endothelial cell
E. release of IP3 from the plasma membrane of the endothelial cell

Answer 23

B

Question 24

Which best describes GPCR signaling in Whooping Cough?
A. caused by Vibrio bacteria
B. decreased cAMP levels
C. decreased CFTR activity
D. decreased PKA activity
E. Galpha(inhibitory) GDP release inhibited
F. toxin hyperactivates Galpha(stimulatory) subunit

Answer 24

E

Question 25

Patient prescribed beta blockers to treat weak heartbeat. Which is correct regarding the therapeutic mechanism? A. increase calcium cytosolic:SR ratio B. decrease PDE4 activity C. increase beta-adrenergic signaling D. decrease cardiac anti-inflammatory response E. increase PKA activity

Answer 25

A

Question 26

``` Which is an example of an extrinsic kinase? A. EGFR signaling B. GPCR signaling C. JAK-STAT signaling D. Ras signaling E. Smad signaling ```

Answer 26

C

Question 27

``` Which signal pathway would increase RBC production (erythropoiesis) in response to hypoxia? A. EGFR signaling B. JAK-STAT signaling C. Ras signaling D. Smad signaling E. VEGF signaling ```

Answer 27

B

Question 28

``` A cell culture of a tumor biopsy is suspected of containing Ras oncogene that cannot hydrolyze GTP. Which types of proteins should be analyzed to confirm this possibility? A. cytokine receptor B. growth factor C. monomeric G protein D. receptor tyrosine kinase E. TGF-beta ```

Answer 28

C

Question 29

``` Receptor tyrosine kinase signaling is more likely to mediate which cellular responses? A. hematopoeisis B. induce CDKI p15 expression C. interferon signaling D. lactose production E. vascular growth ```

Answer 29

E

Question 30

``` A pancreatic tumor is deleted for Smad4. This could affect which cellular functions? A. hematopoeisis B. induce CDKI p15 expression C. interferon signaling D. lactose production E. matrix metalloproteases ```

Answer 30

E

Question 31

A lipophilic ligand/hormone binds and activates its receptor in the cytosol. Which best describes some aspect of this signaling pathway? A. ligand could be estrogen B. ligand is based on retinoic acid C. receptor binds direct repeat DNA consensus sequences D. receptor has extrinsic kinase E. receptor is a RTK

Answer 31

A

Question 32

``` 37-year old woman treated with Tamoxifen to treat her breast cancer. What are the most likely cancer markers associated with this patient? A. ER (-) B. ER (+) C. Her2/Neu (-) D. Her2/Neu (+) E. VEGFR (-) F. VEGFR (+) ```

Answer 32

B

Question 33

``` A postmenopausal woman with ER (+) breast cancer is treated with aromatase inhibitor in order to prevent which one of the following outcomes? A. Her2/Neu conversion B. increased hot flashes/night sweats C. increased PSA levels D. osteoporosis E. ovarian cancer F. uterine endometrial cancer ```

Answer 33

F

Question 34

``` A convicted sex offender is treated with Zoledex to attempt to suppress his sexual urges. How does this drug function? A. downregulate testosterone levels B. increase estrogen levels C. increase hormone feedback inhibition D. LH agonist E. testosterone antagonist ```

Answer 34

A

Question 35

``` Which cell cycle checkpoint is most growth factor-dependent? A. G0 B. G1-S C. G2/M D. Mid-G1 E. S Phase ```

Answer 35

D

Question 36

``` Which cyclin complex regulates the mid-G1 checkpoint? A. Cyclin A B. Cyclin B C. Cyclin D D. Cyclin E E. Cyclin T ```

Answer 36

C

Question 37

``` Which CDKI inhibits the mid-G1 checkpoint by excluding D cyclins from the complex? More than 1 answer may be correct. A. p16 B. p18 C. p21 D. p27 E. p57 ```

Answer 37

A and B

Question 38

``` Which cell cycle complex regulates mitosis? A. CDK1 - cyclin B B. CDK2 - cyclin A C. CDK2 - cyclin E D. CDK4 - cyclin D E. CDK6 - cyclin D F. CDK9 - cyclin T ```

Answer 38

A

Question 39

``` Which CDKI inhibits the checkpoint involving CDK1 and Cyclin B? A. p16 B. p18 C. p21 D. p27 E. p57 ```

Answer 39

C, D, and E

Question 40

``` Which of the following is phosphorylation not a useful cell cycle mechanism? A. Activate CDK activity B. CDK ubiquitin-mediated proteolysis C. CDKI ubiquitin-mediated proteolysis D. Cyclin ubiquitin-mediated proteolysis E. Inactivate CDK activity ```

Answer 40

B

Question 41

``` Which phosphorylates Cyclin E for ubiquitin-mediated proteolysis? A. CDK1 - cyclin B B. CDK2 - cyclin A C. CDK2 - cyclin E D. CDK4 - cyclin D E. CDK6 - cyclin D F. CDK9 - cyclin T ```

Answer 41

C

Question 42

The Rb tumor suppressor pathway is abrogated in cancers. Which is true? A. CDK2-cyclin E is activated by growth factors B. CDK4-cyclin E allows entry into S phase C. E2F directly leads to D cyclin Ub proteolysis D. G1 phase begins with hyperphosphorylated Rb E. Hyperphosphorylated Rb binds E2F

Answer 42

D

Question 43

``` Which would fully activate CDK1-cyclin B? A. CAK activity B. CAK + Cdc25 activity C. Cdc25 activity D. Wee1 + CAK activity E. Wee1 + Cdc25 activity ```

Answer 43

B

Question 44

``` Which allows for the separation of sister chromatids in anaphase? A. APC + Cdc20 B. APC + Chd1 C. Degradation of B cyclins D. Degradation of Separase E. SCF Complex ```

Answer 44

A

Question 45

``` Which is true for detection of DNA damage and/or temporary cell cycle arrest to repair damaged DNA (more than 1 answer)? A. ATM activates Cdc25 B. Chk1 induces p21 levels C. Damage detected by CDKs D. Inhibition of Cdc25 E. Stabilization of p53 ```

Answer 45

D and E