Tutorials and textbook

Question 1

What is family violence?

Answer 1

Threats, physical/sexual abuse, emotional/psychological abuse, economic abuse, damage to property, injury to animals. Threatening, coercive, controlling and dominating behaviour that makes a family member fear for their safety, or for that of another family member.

In respect to children, family violence can also include a child hearing, witnessing or otherwise being exposed to any of these features outlined above.

Question 2

what are some child custody issues?

Answer 2

Child custody issues when there are allegations of intimate partner violence or child abuse: Ethical issues and common pitfalls made by many custody evaluators

Question 3

what is trauma in families compared to single event trauma?

Answer 3

More likely to be chronic rather than a single event; result is less likely to be PTSD, more likely complex trauma.
Further complication that the child must retain an on-going, and often dependent relationship on the abuser.
Witnessing violence has the same effects as being the direct recipient of it.
Closest situations to family violence are hostage situations.
Children are particularly vulnerable to cumulative harm and multiple adverse circumstances.
Cumulative harm has a profound impact on children and diminishes their sense of safety and wellbeing (Bromfield & Miller, 2007)
Children are not resilient; children are malleable (Siegel)

Question 4

What are resulting harms (impact on the child)

Answer 4

Physical (body) – bruising, fractures, internal injuries, burns
Emotional (feelings and ability to express emotions) – hypervigilance, poor self esteem, self harm
Psychological (mind and cognitive processes) – disorganised attachment, learning and developmental delays, impaired self-image

Question 5

What is the Risk-need responsibility model?

Answer 5

The risk-need-responsivity (RNR) model is widely regarded as the leading model for guiding offender assessment and treatment. It’s recognised as an effective intervention for reducing recidivism and focuses on the following principles to inform rehabilitation

Question 6

What are the risks in RNR?

Answer 6

Whom to target? Assessments must determine an offender’s level of risk of recidivism. Higher levels of service should be provided to those assessed as high risk, and low risk offenders should be assigned lower levels of service.

Question 7

What are needs in RNR?

Answer 7

What to target? Assessments need to measure an individual’s criminogenic needs and the risks associated with their offending to inform risk management strategies and effectively target intervention.

Question 8

What is responsivity in RNR?

Answer 8

Any barriers? It’s important to identify factors that may pose as a barrier to rehabilitation and one’s ability to engage with the recommendations made by a Probation and Parole Officer. These may include motivation, mental illness, poor social skills, or cognitive impairments/learning difficulties among others.

Question 9

How does Risks, Needs and Responsivity influence interventions?

Answer 9

Though they tend not to influence offending behaviour directly, they may undermine intervention and successful rehabilitation.

Question 10

Probation and Parole Case Managers conduct offender assessments, exploring a range of factors. What are these factors?

Answer 10

employment, education & training, accommodation, general health, substance abuse, gambling/financial issues, relationships (including availability of social supports, pro-criminal associates or involvement as perpetrator or victim of domestic violence), and criminal attitudes.

Question 11

What is the assessment process of Parole Managers guided by?

Answer 11

The assessment process is guided by the RNR model and seeks to determine an offender’s criminogenic needs and protective factors to inform a plan for the individual’s supervision.

Question 12

what are protective factors in treatment?

Answer 12

Protective factors are those considered to prevent offenders getting into trouble and believed to mitigate their risk of reoffending, such as stable housing, employment/education, and positive role models or social supports.

Question 13

What are criminogenic needs?

Answer 13

Criminogenic Needs (aka dynamic risk factors) are the factors that can be addressed through intervention believed to have lead to criminal behaviour, such as pro-criminal attitudes, antisocial/pro-criminal associates, substance abuse, anger, or impulsivity etc.

Question 14

What were the Adverse Childhood Experiences (ACE) study results?

Answer 14

Adverse Childhood Experiences (ACE) study – results were devastating:
Over 17000 participants
Looked at exposure to ACE and outcomes in adults
Children didn’t “outgrow” the impacts – pervaded their lives
More adverse experiences in childhood linked to higher rates of mental illness, drug/alcohol use, suicide attempts, financial problems, health problems (smoking, obesity, unintended pregnancy, cancer, emphysema)
Video: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=F4fBdHHsj5A

Question 15

What is elimination lineup?

Answer 15

lineup procedure for children that first asks them to pick out the person who looks most like the culprit from the photos displayed. Next, the children are asked whether the most similar person selected is in fact the culprit

Question 16

what are the two judgement theory of identification proposed by Pozullo and Lindsay (1999) that reaches an accurate identification decision?

Answer 16

relative and absolute

relative - choose similar looking culprit - relative to judgement

Absolute - compare most similar lineup members to their memory of culprit and decide if it is the culprit (this is where children struggle and thus make false-positive identifications)

Question 17

What is competency inquiry?

Answer 17

Questions posed to child witnesses under age of 14 to determine whether they are able to communicate the evidence and understand the difference between the truth and the lie, and, in the circumstances of testifying, to see if they feel compelled to tell the truth

Question 18

What must children under the age of 14 be able to do before testifying in court according to the Canada Evidence Act s 16?

Answer 18

1. Be able to communicate the evidence
2. Understand the difference between the truth and a lie, and,
3. in the circumstances of testifying, feel compelled to tell the truth

Question 19

What are some alternative in-court testimonies used in the Canadian and US system for witnesses under the age of 18 and to vulnerable witnesses upon application?

Answer 19

1. A shield/screen to separate child from defendant and so child does not see D’s face
2. close-circuit television monitor - Child and lawyer in separate room where D can be in touch with law via phone
3. child has support person with him/her whist providing testimony
4. child may be video-recorded while being interviewed and recording admitted to evidence
5. Judge may allow statements of child made previously during initial disclosure of the abuser into evidence (which is not usually the case in other cases)
6. Judge may close courtroom to public and/or media to protect privacy of child

Question 20

What is physical abuse

Answer 20

deliberate application of force to any part of a child’s body that results or may result in a nonaccidental injury

Question 21

Sexual abuse

Answer 21

when adult or youth uses child for sexual purposes

Question 22

Neglect/failure to provide

Answer 22

occurs when a child’s caregivers do not provide the requisite attention to the child’s emotional, psychological or physical development

Question 23

R v Poulin

Answer 23

18 YO - Poulin - religious leader given responsibility to look after children in commune whilst their parents worked. P used wooden paddle when disciplining the children resulting in assault charges in 2002

Many children testified that she often beat them.

Found guilty of assaulting 5 children and sentenced 8 months jail and ordered to not live with or care for children under age of 14 for three years following release

Case led to the abolishment of s 43 of Canadian Criminal Code (that allowed physical punishment).
however parents and teachers still allowed to use in case of threat of harm to person or property.Parents not permitted to use any corporal punishment on children under than 2 or older than 12. 3-12 is permitted but not in face or head under any circumstances

Question 24

Emotional maltreatment

Answer 24

Acts or omu]issions by caregivers that cause or could cause serious behavioural, cognitive, emotional or mental disorders

Question 25

"in need of protection"

Answer 25

A term used to describe a child's needs to be separated from his or her caregivers because of maltreatment

Question 26

Define incidence?

Answer 26

number of new child-maltreatment cases in a specific population occurring in a given time period, usually a year

Question 27

Prevalence

Answer 27

In the study of child abuse, the proportion of a population at a specific point in time that was maltreated during childhood

Question 28

What are risk factors?

Answer 28

a factor that increases the likelihood for emotional and/or behavioural problems

Question 29

what is related to the likelihood of substantiated physical abuse compared to unsubstantiated physical abuse cases?

Answer 29

domestic violence, parental drug and alcohol use, prior child abuse and neglect, being on public assistance, and child behaviour problems

Question 30

what are common effects of sexual abuse?

Answer 30

lowered self-esteem, behaviour problems, inappropriate sexuality and symptoms consistent with PTSD. Within two years of abuse, children report an umber of physical difficulties such as sleep disturbances, eating disorders, stomach problems and headaches

Question 31

what are the three categories of outcomes of adults with a history of child sexual abuse?

Answer 31

1. psychiatric disorder - major depression 2. dysfnctional behaviours - sexualised behaviour 3. neurobiological dysregulation - MRI studies found reduced hippocampal volume (similar to those of war veterans experiencing PTSD

Question 32

R v Smymes

Answer 32

S = 36 YO former church pastor from Ontario. BEtween April and august 2005, S began a series of internet chats with two girls whom he thought were 12-13 years of age. the girls however were undercover investigators. The chat exchange between S and the girls was sexually exploit and left no doubt that he wanted to have sexual relations with both girls. S agrranged to meet one of the girls and when he attended meeting, poice arrested him. S pleaded guilty of two counts of internet luring and sentenced to 12 months in prison, which was reduced to 2 after double credit was given for time served

Question 33

what is the accuracy of children's reporting?

Answer 33

highly dependent on how they are asked to report. When asked to recall memories using free-narrative method, children's recall is as accurate as adults. A number of procedures and protocols to increase the accuracy of child's responses having been investigated through statement validity analysis, step-wise interview and narrative elaoration

Question 34

Juries Act

Answer 34

Provincial and territorial legislation that outlines the eligibility criteria for jury service and how prospective jurors msut be selected

Question 35

Jury Summons

Answer 35

A court order that states a time an place to go for jury duty

Question 36

What are the two fundamental characteristics of juries according to the Supreme Court of Canada in R v Sherratt

Answer 36

1. A composition that representes the community in which the crime occurred. This is know has representativeness 2. A lack of bias on the part of jurors, known as impartiality

Question 37

what must "represenativeness" allow?

Answer 37

must allow any possible eligible person from the community the opportunity to be part of the juror. This is achieved through randomnes

Question 38

Representativeness

Answer 38

A jury composition that represents the community whre the crime occurred

Question 39

Imprtiality

Answer 39

A characteristic of jurors who are unbiased

Question 40

R v Brown

Answer 40

2001 - two while men charged for sexually assaulting 12 yo aboriginal girl. Of approz 100 jurors who showed up for jury duty, only one was visible aborigial. Not surprisingly, the jury was composed, all those sitting on the jury where caucasion. During trial, D admitted to picking the girl up giving her five beers to drink and engaging in sexual activity outside a truck belonging to a third man. The jury heard evidence and then deliberated to reach verdicts of not guilty for both defendants. Trial of third defendant, found guilty with all-caucasian jury as the complainant testified more fully but reluctant agaisnt first two. On appeal, acquittals set aside and new trial ordered for first two defendant. Appeal not based on racial composition of jury, rather the jjudge's instruction to the jury.

Question 41

What are the three issues of impartiality?

Answer 41

1. for juror to be impartial, he or she must set aside any pre-existing biases, prejudices or attitudes and judge the case based solely on admissible evidence. 2. To be impartial means that the juror must ignore any information that is not part of the admissible evidence.. 3. It also is important that the juror have no connection to the D so that the juror does not view the evidence subjectively or unduly influence the other jurors

Question 42

R v Guess

Answer 42

Guess and juror entered into sexual relationship. Both charged with obstruction of justice

Question 43

change of venue

Answer 43

moving trial to a community other than the one in which crime occurred

Question 44

adjournment

Answer 44

delaying the trial until sometime in the future

Question 45

challenge for cause

Answer 45

an option to reject bias juror

Question 46

how to enhance impartiality of jury?

Answer 46

change of venue adjounment challenge for cause

Question 47

jury nullification

Answer 47

occurrs when a jury ignores the law and the evidence, rendering a verdict based on some other criteria

Question 48

chos theory

Answer 48

the theory that when jurors are guided by their emotions, and personal biases rather than by the law, chaos judgements result

Question 49

deliberation

Answer 49

when jury members discuss the evidence privately among themselves to reach a verdict that is then provided to the court

Question 50

polarization

Answer 50

when individuals tend to become more extreme in their initial position following a group discussion

Question 51

Leniency bias

Answer 51

when jurors move toward greater leniency following deliberation

Question 52

hung jury

Answer 52

a jury that cannot reach a unanimous verdict

Question 53

racial bias

Answer 53

the disparate treatment of racial out-groups

Question 54

black sheep effect

Answer 54

when evidence is strong, similarity between defendant and jury leads to punitiveness

Question 55

actus reus

Answer 55

a wrongful deed

Question 56

mens rea

Answer 56

criminal intent

Question 57

unfit to stand trial

Answer 57

refers to an inability to conduct a defence at any stage of the proceedings on account of a person's mental disorder

Question 58

R v Prichard

Answer 58

considered key case for fitness standard

Question 59

3 criteria delineated in Prichard case for fitness to stand trial

Answer 59

1. whether D is mute of malice (i.e. intentionality) 2. whether D can plead to the indictment 3. Whether the D has sufficient cognitive capacity to understand the trial proceedings

Question 60

what are fitness screening instruments?

Answer 60

Competency Screening test Interdisciplinary Fitness interview Competency to stand trial assessment instrument Macarthur competence Assessment tool - criminal adjudication

Question 61

prima facie case

Answer 61

case in which the Crown prosecutor must prove there is sufficient evidence to bring the case to trial

Question 62

insanity

Answer 62

impairment of mental or emotional functioning that affects perceptions, beliefs and motivations at the time of the offence

Question 63

what are the three elements that emerged from the McNaughton verdict that are specific to the defence of insanity today?

Answer 63

1. D must be found to be suffering from a defect of reason/disease of the mind 2. D must not know the nature and quality of the act he or she is performing 3. the D must not kno that what he or she is doing is wrong

Question 64

review boards

Answer 64

legal bodies mandated to oversee the care and disposition of Ds found unfit and/or not criminally responsibly on account of a mental disorder

Question 65

what are the 5 scales in the R-CRAS instrument?

Answer 65

1. patient reliability 2. Organicity 3. Psychopathology 4. Cognitive control. 5. Behavioural control

Question 66

absolute discharge

Answer 66

the D is released into the community without restrictions to his or her behaviour

Question 67

Conditional discharger

Answer 67

A D is released; however, release carries certain conditions (e.g. not to possess firearms) that the D must meet. Failure to meet the conditions imposed with a conditional discharge may result in the d being incarcerated or sent to a psychiatric facility

Question 68

Capping

Answer 68

Notion introduced through Bill C-30 where there is a maximum period of time a person with a mental illness could be affected by his or her disposition

Question 69

automatism

Answer 69

unconscious, involuntary behaviour such that the person committing the act not aware of what he or she is doing

Question 70

community treatment order

Answer 70

sentence that allows the mentally ill offender to lvie in the community, with the stipulation that the person will agree to treatment or detention in the event that his or her condition deteriorates

Question 71

Diversion

Answer 71

A decision not to prosecute but rathe have him or her undergo an educational or community-service program. Also an option for courts dealing with offenders with mental illnesses who are facing minor charges. The court can divert the offender directly into a treatment program rather than have him or her go through the court process

Question 72

what are the 4 main objectives of mental health courts?

Answer 72

1. to divert the accused who have been charged with minor to moderately serious criminal offences and offer them an alternative 2. to facilitate evaluation of the D's fitness to stand trial 3. to ensure treatment fo a D's mental disorders 4. To decrease the cycle that mentally disordered offenders experience by becoming repeat offenders

Question 73

what does NCRMD stand for?

Answer 73

not criminally responsibly on account of mental disorder

Question 74

terms of predicting violent acts but could be used fo any specific outcome

Answer 74

true positive true negative false positive false negative

Question 75

true positive

Answer 75

a correct prediction that occurs when a person who is predicted to engage in some typical behaviour (e.g. a violent act) does so

Question 76

true negative

Answer 76

A correct prediction that occurs when a person who is predicted not to engage in some type of behaviour (e.g. a violent act) does not

Question 77

false positive

Answer 77

An incorrect prediction that occurs when a person is predicted to engage in some type of behaviour but does not

Question 78

False negative

Answer 78

An incorrect prediction that occurs when a person is predicted not to engage in some type of behaviour (e.g. a violent act) but does

Question 79

base rate

Answer 79

represents the percentage of people within a given population who commit a criminal or violent act

Question 80

illusionary correlation

Answer 80

belief that a correlation exists between two events that in reality are either not correlated or correlated to a much lesser degree

Question 81

unstructured clinical judgement

Answer 81

decisions characterised by a substance amount of professional discretion and lack of guidelines

Question 82

structured professional judgement

Answer 82

decisions are guided by a predetermined list of risk factors that have been selected from the research and professional literature. Judgement of risk level is based on the evaluator's professional judgement

Question 83

static risk factor

Answer 83

risk factor that does not fluctuate over time and is not changed by treatment (e.g. age at first arrest). Also known as historical risk factor

Question 84

Dynamic risk factor

Answer 84

risk factors that fluctuate over time and are amenable to change

Question 85

historical risk factor

Answer 85

risk factors that refer to events that have been experienced in the past (age at first arrest) also known as risk factors

Question 86

dispositional risk factors

Answer 86

risk factors that reflect the individual's traits, tendencies or styles (e.g. negative attitudes)

Question 87

Clinical risk factors

Answer 87

types and symptoms of mental disorders (e.g. substance abuse)

Question 88

contextual risk factors

Answer 88

risk factors that refer to aspects of the current environment (e.g. access to victims or weapons). Sometimes called situational risk factors

Question 89

situational risk factors

Answer 89

risk factors that refer to aspects of the current environment (e.g. access to victims or weapons). Sometimes called contextual risk factors

Question 90

what are some dispositional risk factors?

Answer 90

demographics, personality characteristics (impulsiveness and psychopathy)

Question 91

what are the identified risk factors for politically motivated violence

Answer 91

``` age gender marital status social class prior crime suicidality major mental illness substance abuse psychopathy ```

Question 92

what are potential risk factors of terrorism?

Answer 92

ideology affiliations grievances moral emotions

Question 93

what are some historical factors

Answer 93

past behaviour age of onset childhood history of maltreatment

Question 94

what are some clinical factors

Answer 94

substance use | mental disorder

Question 95

what are some contextual risk factors

Answer 95

lack of social support | access to weapons or victims

Question 96

protective factors

Answer 96

factors that mitigate or reduce the likelihood of a negative outcome (e.g. delinquency, aggression)

Question 97

Desistance

Answer 97

the process of ceasing to engage in criminal behaviour

Question 98

two components required for the of assessment of risk

Answer 98

1. an analysis of the likelihood of future criminal or violent acts 2. the development of strategies to manage or reduce the level of risk

Question 99

what do risk assessments in civil contexts include?

Answer 99

civil commitments, child protection, immigration an duty to warn

Question 100

what do risk assessments in civil contexts include?

Answer 100

assessment of risk occurs at pretrial, sentencing and release stages

Question 101

what do false positive errors affect

Answer 101

offender

Question 102

where to false negative errors affect

Answer 102

society and the victim

Question 103

hare psychopathy checklist-revised?

Answer 103

the most popular method of assessing psychopathy in adults

Question 104

psychopathic personality inventory-revised and self-report psychopathy scale

Answer 104

a self-report measure of psychopathic traits. two of the most widely used self-report scales

Question 105

antisocial personality disorder

Answer 105

a personality disorder characterised by a history of behaviour in which the rights of others are violated

Question 106

symptoms of antisocial personality disorder

Answer 106

failure to conform to social norms with respect to lawful behaviours deceitfulness impulsivity or failure to plan ahead irritability and aggressiveness reckless disregard for safety of self or other consistent irresponsibility lack of remorse

Question 107

sociopathy

Answer 107

a label used to describe a person whose psychopathic traits are assumed to be due to environmental factors

Question 108

adversarial allegiance

Answer 108

the tendency for forensic experts to be biased toward the side (defence or prosecution) that hired them

Question 109

sexual homicide

Answer 109

homicides that have sexual component

Question 110

antisocial process screening device

Answer 110

observer rating scale to assess psychopathic traits in children

Question 111

Hare psychopathy checklist: Youth version

Answer 111

scale designed to measure psychopathic traits in adolescents

Question 112

response modulation deficit theory

Answer 112

A theory that suggests that psychopaths fail to use contextual cues that are peripheral to a dominant response set to modulate their behaviour

Question 113

psychopathy

Answer 113

a personality disorder defined by a cluster of interpersonal, affective and behavioural issues. Psychopathy, sociopathy and antisocial personality disorder are overlapping but distinct construct

Question 114

what is the characteristic of psychopaths criminal career

Answer 114

earlier, persist longer and are more violent and versatile than other offenders. Most of the murders committed by psychopaths are instrumental

Question 115

why is it difficult to change psychopath's behaviours?

Answer 115

they are not motivated to change their behaviour, and some research has shown that after treatment psychopaths were more likely to violently reoffend. However, some recent research has obtained more promising treatment outcome effects, especially with adolescent offenders with many psychopathic features

Question 116

voyager (sexual offender)

Answer 116

someone who obtains sexual gratification by observing unsuspecting people, usually strangers, who are naked, in the process of undressing or engaging in sexual activity

Question 117

exhibitionist (sexual offender)

Answer 117

someone who obtains sexual gratification by exposing his or her genitals to strangers

Question 118

rapist (sexual offender)

Answer 118

person who sexually assaults victims over 16 years of age

Question 119

Pedophile (sexual offender)

Answer 119

PErson whose primary sexual orientation is toward children

Question 120

child molester (sexual offender)

Answer 120

someone who has actually sexually molested a child

Question 121

Intra-familial child molester (sexual offender)

Answer 121

someone who sexually abuses his or her own biological children or children for whom he or she assumes a parental role, such as a stepfather or live-in boyfiend. Also known as incest offenders

Question 122

Incest offender (sexual offender)

Answer 122

someone who sexually abuses his or her own biological children or children for whom he or she assumes a parental role, such as a stepfather or live-in boyfriend. Also known as intra-familial child molester

Question 123

Extra-familial child molester (sexual offender)

Answer 123

someone who sexually abuses children not related to him or her

Question 124

Anger rapist (sexual offender)

Answer 124

a rapist as defined by Groth, who uses more force than necessary to obtain compliance from the victim and who engages in a variety of sexual acts to degrade the victim

Question 125

power rapist (sexual offender)

Answer 125

a rapist as defined by Groth, who seeks to establish dominance and control over the victim

Question 126

sadistic rapist

Answer 126

a rapist, as defined by Groth, who obtains sexual gratification by hurting the victim

Question 127

fixated child moleste

Answer 127

A child molester as defined by Groth, who has a long-standing, exclusive sexual preference for children

Question 128

Regressed child molester

Answer 128

a child molester defined by Groth, whose primary sexual orientation is toward adults but whose sexual interests revert to children after a stressful event or because of feelings of inadequcy

Question 129

cognitive distortions

Answer 129

deviant cognitions, values, or beliefs that are used to justify or minimise deviant behaviours

Question 130

penile phallometry

Answer 130

a measurement device placed around the penis to measure changes in sexual arousal

Question 131

aversion therapy

Answer 131

the pairing of an aversive stimuli with a deviant fantasy for the purpose of reducing the attractiveness of these deviant fantasies

Question 132

relapse prevention

Answer 132

a method of treatment designed to prevent the occurrence of an undesired behaviour (e.g. sexual assault)

Question 133

reactive (affective) aggression

Answer 133

aggression that is impulsive, unplanned, immediate, driven by negative emotions and occurring in response to some perceived provocation

Question 134

instrumental (predatory) aggression

Answer 134

aggression that is premeditated, calculated and motivated by some goal (e.g. to obtain money)

Question 135

filicide

Answer 135

the killing of children by their biological parents or step-parents; includes neonaticide (killing a baby within 24 hours of birth) and infanticide (killing a baby within the first year of life)

Question 136

familiccide

Answer 136

the killing of a spouse and children

Question 137

femicide

Answer 137

the killing of women

Question 138

androcide

Answer 138

the killing of men

Question 139

serial murder

Answer 139

the killing of a minimum of three people over time. The time interval between the murders varies and has been called a cooling off period. Subsequent murders occur at different times, have no apparent connection to the initial murder, and are usually committed in different locations

Question 140

visionary serial murderer

Answer 140

a murderer who kills in response to vioces or visions telling him or her to kill

Question 141

mission-oriented serial murderer

Answer 141

A murderer who targets individuals from a group that he or she considers to be "undesireable"

Question 142

Hedonistic serial murderer

Answer 142

A murderer who is motivated by self-gratification. This type of killer is divided into three subtypes: lust, thrill and comfort

Question 143

Power/control serial murderer

Answer 143

A murderer who is motivated not by sexual gratification but by wanting to have absolute dominance over the victim

Question 144

Lust serial murderer

Answer 144

a murderer who is motivated by sexual gratification

Question 145

thrill serial murderer

Answer 145

a murderer who is motivated by excitement associated with the act of killing

Question 146

comfort serial murderer

Answer 146

a murderer who is motivated by material or financial gain

Question 147

mass murderer

Answer 147

the killing of four or more victims at a single locations during one event with no cooling-off period

Question 148

what theories guide homicidal aggression

Answer 148

general theories of aggression despite theories have been proposed to explain specific forms of aggression. Social learning theories suggest that aggressive behaciour is learned in the same way non-aggressive behaviour is learned, by being reinforced (or seeing others being reinforced) for such behaviour. Evolutionary theories view homicide as adaptive behaviour, inherited from our ancestors, which develops as an approach to best competitors when competing for limited resources. The General Aggression Model suggests that aggression occurs when factors in the immediate social situation trigger cognitions and emotions that increase aggressive behavioural responses.

Question 149

what is the treatment of sexual offenders

Answer 149

compared with studies that have examined the effectiveness of sexual offender treatment programs, less research has been conducted to examine the effectiveness of treatment programs for other violent offenders, such as individuals who commit homciide. However recent meta-analytic studies suggest that existing programs may have a small but significant impact on these offenders, such that they are less likely to reoffend violently after taking part in treatment