Type Tech Questions Flashcards
1
Q
What happens when internal lights are at storm?
A
Both dome lights and instruments panel floodlights are set to high intensity.
2
Q
When do the logo lights come on?
A
When landing gear compressed or flaps at 15 degrees or more.
3
Q
Can the IDG be reconnected in the air?
A
No, ground reset only.
4
Q
Following dual engine failure, how is fuel fed for subsequent relight?
A
L2 Pump is powered by RAT, and crossfeed opens automatically.
(L2 pump remins powered, if L2 pump fails, R2 pump replace L2. <260 kts or Land Recovery -> ON, main & stay pumps are lost.)
5
Q
What does the 4th TR do?
A
Supplies power for APU starting and battery charging.
6
Q
What is the general principle of airbus generator operation?
A
Independent operation, supplying their own loads.
7
Q
Is there any TR configuration for over current detection?
A
No, if TR is lost due to overcurrent detection, reconfiguration does not occur and related DC BUS is lost. (Contractor of each TR automatically opens in case: overheat, minimum current, over current or open or short circuit.)
8
Q
Is Autopilot available in ALT 2 Law?
A
Yes, if 2 IRS are working.
9
Q
How many autopilots are required for LWMO?
A
Ony one unless its CAT 3B.
10
Q
How is ILS information called up on the PFD?
A
LS pushbutton.
11
Q
When does auto thrust disengages during autoland?
A
at 10’ RETARD auto call out AND thrust levers set to IDLE.
12
Q
How is independent FMGS noticed?
A
Annunciation on both FMGS and scratchpad. (INDEPENDENT OPERATION is displayed on both MCDUs scratchpads. The IND annunciator light illuminates amber on the top of the MCDU.)
13
Q
What happens if a spoiler fault occurs?
A
The symmetric one on the other wing is inhibited except for spoilers 4 & 6 (DSC-27-10-20 P7/14)
14
Q
What happens if both servo jacks on a surface lose electrical power?
A
Switch to damping mode. (if the active fails, the damped one becomes active, the failed jack switch to damping mode. if neither of the four jacks is being controlled electrically, the four jacks are switched to centering mode.)
15
Q
With AP engaged, does rudder TRIM feedback through pedals?
A
Yes.
16
Q
What is the effect of one SFCC being u/s?
A
Flaps/Slats operate at half speed.
17
Q
When does backup yaw damper unit operate?
A
in case of total electrical failure or loss of rudder control due to flight control computers failure, Backup Control Module (BCM) controls the yellow hydraulic servo control, or the blue hydraulic servo control.
18
Q
What controls are available for manual backup flight?
A
THS, rudder and manual trim.
19
Q
What happens to rudder travel following SEC 1&2 failure?
A
Travel limited due to failure unless slat extended then recover full travel.
20
Q
What is the max taxi weight for A/C 2?
A
227,900kg
21
Q
What is the MZFW for A/C 2?
A
178,000kg
22
Q
What are the max APU EGT?
A
650C normal ops
1250C Start
23
Q
What is the max crosswind for T/O
A
32kts (gust included)
24
Q
What is the max ALT for flap operations
A
20,000’
25
Max fuel imbalance of Outer tanks with Inner tanks balanced
1,730kg
26
Max fuel imbalance of Inner tanks with outer tanks balanced
7,500kg
27
MMO/VMO
M0.86 / 330 kts
28
Max Full flaps speed
180 kts
29
Min Engine oil pressure
25psi
30
Max ALT to start APU with electrical supply.
41,450'
31
After 3 consecutive APU start attempts, what is the cooling period?
60 mins
32
How do you crank the engine?
Select Crank (Eng Start Selector) and MAN ENG START pb to ON
33
What controls the APU bleed air?
Inlet Guide Vane (IGV) via Electronic Control Box (ECB)
34
What does the accessories gearbox drive?
1) Oil feed pump
2) Main engine fuel pump
3) Engine-driven hydraulic pumps
4) Engine-driven generators
5) FADEC alternator
6) pneumatic starter for engine start
35
Which tank supplies fuel to then engines?
From each inner tank to its corresponding engine.
Fuel transfer sequence:
1. each inner tank to 4,000kg
2. trim tank -> inner tanks
3. inner tank to 3,500kg
4. Outer tank -> Inner Tank.
36
What are the types of IDLE thrust is available?
1) Modulated idle (flaps retracted and gear up)
2) Approach idle (flaps >1 or gear down)
3) Reverse idle
37
Which HYD system powers the left elevator?
Green and Blue HYD
38
What pumps are available on Yellow HYD?
Engine pump, electrical pump and manual hand pump
39
What normally pressurise the HYD reserviors?
#1 Engine bleed air
40
How is the landing gear gravity extension mechanised?
Electromechanical
41
What does the red arrow in the gear warning handle area mean?
L/G not down locked below 750' RA at config 2/3/full.
42
What does selection of Auto Brake pb do?
arm the appropriate deceleration rate.
43
Under what conditions are servos (rudder, elevator, THS & ailerons) operating slow?
When the RAT is supplying the Green HYD system.
44
What does a battery fault light indicate?
Charging current increases at an abnormal rate.
45
Which batteries are used on the ground to start the APU?
APU battery or in combination with the external power or normal aircraft supply.
46
How is DC power supplied?
TRs and batteries.
47
What is the basic fuel feed?
1) Inner tanks (down to 4000kg)
2) Trim tank to inner
3) inner tanks (down to 3500kg)
4) Outer to inner
48
What is the purpose of the inner tank split valve?
to isolate part of the inner tank in case of tank damage (leak)
49
How is the Engine LP valve controlled?
Engine master switch and Fire PB
50
How to display the LOC and G/S information on the PFD
LS pb
51
When does the fuel cross feed valve open automatically?
During Emer ELEC Config
52
What are displayed on the 2nd Column (from the left) of the FMA?
AP/FD Vertical Modes
53
Which display does DMC 3 controls?
upper and lower ECAM DUs
54
When does the engine bleed fault light extinguish?
when ENG BLEED pb is at OFF provided the failure has disappeared.
55
How is engine anti-ice supplied?
Bleed air from the high pressure compressor.
56
With one engine running on the ground which probes are heated?
All probes are heated except the TAT probes. (pitot heating at low level)
57
Where does wing anti-ice protects?
the 4 outboard slats (4,5,6 &7)
58
When is the rain repellent system inhibited?
On ground with engines off.
59
What normally power the DC ESS BUS?
the ESS TR
60
How is a DMC failure recognised?
displays the INVALID DATA message (diagonal line across DU?)
61
What are the control modes for flight surfaces servo jacks?
Active, damping & centering.
62
What happens if HYD power to a spoiler fails?
the spoiler retains the deflection or a lesser deflection if aerodynamic forces push it down.
63
When do flight directors engage?
FDs are automatically engaged whenever the FMGC powers up.
64
How does NWS centering on T/O occurs?
an internal cam mechanism
65
How is smoke warning for lavatories presented?
SDCU transmit information to FWC (ECAM) and to CIDS (FAP)
66
What actions are taken if an escape slide fails to inflate?
Manual inflation handle or direct PAX to another exit.
67
When do the cabin oxygen masks automatically drop?
at 14,000' cabin ALT.
68
What happens if both hot air valves failed closed?
Trim air valves are driven to full closed position and packs regulate temperature.
69
How many zones are there for air conditioning?
3 cabin and 1 cockpit
70
In EMER ELEC CONF what happens to fuel cross-feed and why?
Cross-feed opens since ONLY L2 pump is supplied in EMER ELEC CONF.
71
How many electric motors control the outflow valves?
3 (2 for auto and 1 for manual)
72
One pack fails/OFF, and Delta P>4 psi what happens?
the aft outflow valve closes and the forward outflow valve controls the cabin pressure.
73
How is Auto-Brake armed?
by pressing the LO, MED or MAX pb given:
1) Green pressure avail
2) Anti-skid is powered
3) No failure in the braking system
4) at least 2 PRIMs avail
5) at least 1 ADIRU avail
74
How does the yellow hand pump work?
Thru the Yellow System Accumulator.
75
Which HYD system have electric pump?
All have electric pump
76
What happens to NWS and brakes following gravity extension?
NWS is lost but brakes are normal.
77
When AP/FD controls vertical speed path, what does Auto Thrust Control?
Speed or MACH
78
When is MLA (Maneuver load alleviation) available?
1. Speed above 250 kts.
2. Flaps lever in 0 position.
3. in normal or alternate law.
79
What valves does FIRE pb control?
1. LP fuel valve
2. HYD fire shut off valve
3. Engine Bleed valve
4. pack flow control valve.
80
What are the generator overload indications?
GEN load indication becomes amber due to load greater than 108% for more than 10 seconds.
81
What is the effect of Blue HYD system failure?
Slats slow
82
Why do inner tank controls pulse?
Fuel imbalance (same with outer tanks)
83
What do the LDG GEAR red UNLK light mean?
Landing gear not locked in selected position. (LDG GEAR indicator panel light up as long as the LGCIU 1 is electricallty supplied.)
84
Does the mechanical control of THS override AP and side stick?
Yes
85
When does cross bleed valve close automatically?
Normally closed, opens when APU bleed air is used. Closes when air leak detected.
86
What does the DITCHING pb do?
closes outflow valves, RAM air inlet, avionics overboard valve and pack flow control valve.
87
What happens when ignition is selected to CRANK and the manual start pb is selected?
Start valve opens but no ignition.
88
What is the normal supply for AC ESS?
AC Bus 1
89
What is the max differential pressure?
9.25 psi
90
What TAT probe supplies ADIRU 3?
Capt TAT
91
Where does the DDRMI received its information?
ADIRU 1 (normal), ADIRU 3 if selected.
92
What warnings are given for excess cabin altitude?
Master Warning, CRC, and ECAM warning.
93
When do the pack valves close?
On selection of ENG start selector to IGN/START.
94
When does the start valve close?
FCOM N3>50%
notes: 38-43% N3
95
What causes the FAULT light in the fuel pumps to illuminate?
Delivery pressure drops.
96
What does LVR ASYM on FMA means?
A/THR active, both engines running but one thrust lever out of CLB detent.
97
What are the FMA annunciations for the G/A?
MAN TOGA/SRS/GA TRK
98
How are the backup NAV aids tuned?
RMP 1 and 2
99
What does a flashing LOC & GS indicate?
excessive deviation
100
how does fuel transfer from outer to inner tanks?
Gravity
101
What does the ground electric control switch do?
allow ground servicing w/o energizing entire A/C electrical network.
102
What are the flight envelope limits for the APU generator?
Full envelope (41,450')
103
In what modes is the WX radar not available?
Plan & Eng mode on the EFIS control panel.
104
What happens in case of the air cycle machine failure?
a bypass valve allows the bleed air to be cooled by the associated heat exchanger.
105
What powers the Green HYD system?
2 Engine driven pumps, 1 ELEC pump, and RAT
106
What is the max operating ALT?
41,450'
107
How are the thrust reverser doors actuated?
Hydraulically
108
What is the Max N1?
100% N1
109
What is the max N2?
100% N2
110
What is the Max ALT for APU start on batteries?
25,000'
111
Emergency APU shudown accomplished from where?
Refuel panel or external power panel.
112
In A/THR and normal flight, what is the max thrust?
Thrust lever angle.
113
What does the APU fire pb isolate when it is pushed?
1. LP fuel valve
2. APU fuel pumps (aft and forward)
3. APU bleed valve and x bleed valve
4. APU generator.
114
When is the ECB electrically supplied?
When the APU master switch is turned ON.
115
What is the manual refuelling order?
1. Inner
2. Outer
3. Inner
4. Trim
FCOM: any tanks that require refueling, start to be refueled simultaneously.
116
Where is the refuelling panel?
On the fuselage below the right wing.
117
When can a second aft transfer take place?
if CG in CRZ is ahead of the target by more than 2% and the trim tank quantity is below 3000kg.
118
When does the light on the trim tank mode pb illuminate?
1. FMGS detects an excess aft CG.
2. FCMC is unable to carry out the forward transfer.
3. FUEL LO TEMP warning is triggered.
119
When does the RAT deploy?
1. Both Eng failed
2. G+Y Reservoir Lo LVL
3. G+B Reservoir Lo LVL
120
How can the parking brake accumulator be pressurised on the ground?
B HYD Elec pump
121
How is the parking brake applied?
Pull upwards and turn clockwise.
122
When is NWS self centred?
above 100 kts.
123
When does the generator voltage indication becomes amber on the ECAM display?
Below 110v or above 120v
124
When does the generator frequency becomes amber on the ECAM display?
below 390Hz or above 410Hz
125
What does the wind indication in ND use?
Digital indication - True North
Analog indication - reflects the north reference use (magnetic or true)
126
What is the max RAD ALT?
2500' AGL
127
When does the wing anti-ice valve close automatically?
Electrical failure and leak detection.
128
How are the evacuation slides illuminated?
By their own integrated system. It turns on automatically when slide armed and door opened.
129
How are cabin doors opened in an emergency?
manually with pneumatic assistance
130
where are evacuation slides fitted?
stowed in a container attached to the inboard lower side of the door. (cabin doors and emergency exits)
131
How is CVR manually energised on the ground?
RCDR GND CTL switch
132
In automatic mode, each outflow valve is powered by?
1 of 2 electric motors with a 3rd as manual backup.
133
With cabin pressurisation in automatic mode, what happens if SYS 1 fails?
2 automatic systems, an automatic transfer occurs:
1. 80s after each landing
2. if the operating system fails.
134
What is the effect of an engine bleed valve malfunction?
Engine bleed and HP bleed valve close.
135
What does a pack fault light indicate?
1. pack flow valve disagreement with selected position.
2. compressor outlet overheat (260C)
3. pack outlet overheat (95C)
136
When does FADEC automatically supply ignition?
1. Flame out
2. Engine anti-ice selected
137
What controls APU bleed air?
APU bleed valve (electrically-controlled and pneumatically-operated)
138
How is FADEC supplied with power?
1. A/c electrical circuit below 5% N2
2. self-powered above 5% N2
139
When does HYD system pressure on ECAM becomes amber?
When pressure goes below 1450 psi.
140
Which elevator is powered by Blue HYD?
Left
141
When does the HYD pump identification on the HYD system page turn from white to amber?
When N2 of the corresponding engine is below idle.
142
How are the HYD reservoirs normally pressurised?
HP air from ENG 1, if bleed air pressure too low, the system takes bleed air from x-bleed duct.
143
is it possible to restore normal L/G operation following gravity extension?
Yes as long as Green HYD pressure is available.
144
What does the anti-skid use for its speed reference?
determined by BSCU from ADIRU 1 or 2 or 3.
if all ADIRU failed, the speed is from the main landing gear wheel speed.
145
When Green and Yellow HYD failed, which PRIM will be master?
PRIM 2
146
How are the ailerons controlled / actuated.
by 2 electrically controlled hydraulic servojacks.
147
When is slat retraction inhibited?
If alpha > 8.5 degrees or speed < 148 kt
148
Which ECMU control the external power supplies?
ECMU 1 = external power contactor B
ECMU 2 = external power contactor A
149
What does the "END" light FLASHING means on the refuelling panel?
1. after refuelling imbalance > 3000kg.
2. failure during a high level test.
3. refuelling is aborted.
150
What does a partial box around FOB mean?
Fuel partially unusable.
151
What is the effect of losing one FCMC?
2 computers, first fails, the other takes over.
152
What do the Air Data Modules (ADM) do?
1. 8 ADMs
2. convert pneumatic data from PITOT and STAT probes into numerical data for the ADIRUs.
153
What does the standby probes and standby air data modules do?
1. PITOT STBY -> ADM (ADIRU 3) and STBY ASI
2. STATIC STBY -> Stby ASI and Stby ALTI
154
Where does the active CPC get its landing data from?
MCDU and FMGS
155
When does the Autoland red light illuminate?
1. Both AP off below 200' RA
2. LOC/GS excessive deviation above 15' or 100' RA respectively
3. ILS signal lost
4. RAD ALT indications differ by > 15'
156
When is the A/C depressurised?
80 seconds after landing at a controlled rate.
157
How many aileron servo modes are there?
2, active and damping
158
What does amber F LOCKED messaged means
WTB is applied to flaps
159
When do the pack valves close during an auto start?
Engine start selector to IGN/START
160
What happens if AP is selected ON with both FDs OFF?
A/P engages in HDG-V/S or TRK-FPA
161
when is Pneumatic assist for door opening is available?
in an emergency
162
When does the F indication on the upper ECAM turn amber?
G+Y HYD low pressure.
163
What does L/G CTL amber on wheel page means?
Position of any landing gear disagrees with lever position with a 30 seconds time delay.
164
What is the Yellow HYD hand pump used for?
To operate the cargo door when no electrical power is available.
165
When is Manoeuvre Load Alleviation inhibited?
1. below 250 kt
2. Flaps > 0
3. in Direct law
166
When does the HYD pump identification indicate white?
When Eng N2 is above idle.
167
What detects an APU LOW OIL LEVEL when the A/C is on ground and APU not running?
ECB
168
What do PRIM computer controls?
1. Normal, alternate and direct control laws
2. speed brake and ground spoiler control
3. protection speed computation.
4. rudder travel limit.
169
What do SEC computer controls?
1. Direct control laws, including yaw damper function.
2. rudder trim and rudder travel limit.
170
What is the indication of flight crew oxygen bottle system discharge?
Absence of green discharge indicator on fuselage.
171
The pneumatic system supplies high pressure air for:
1. Air conditioning
2. Engine starting
3. Wing anti-ice.
4. water pressurisation
5. HYD reservoir
6. pack bay ventilation turbofan actuation.
172
If both AP are engaged when TOGA is selected, what happens to the AP?
they remain engaged.
173
During descent prep, where is the landing elevation displayed?
CRZ in the MCDU and CAB Press page in the S/D
174
What does STS prompt on E/WD mean?
something in the status page.
175
What does the ECAM CLR pb extinguish during ECAM actions?
when status page is reviewed and cleared/
176
How is backup NAV mode selected?
On the MCDU menu page but only if FM selector is at NORM.
(MCDU 3 is not avail for backup NAV)
177
How are navaids tuned if both FMGC failed?
RMP1 and 2 tuning onside aids only except for the ILS
178
What happens during independent FM operations?
independent entries on either MCDUs
179
What is the function of the SDAC (system data acquisition concentrator)?
supply information to FWC for warning calculations and DMCs to be displayed
180
What happens if you lose the ECAM part of DMC3
Transfer to DMC 1 provided that ECAM Switching is in AUTO
181
What happens if MCDU 1 and 2 fails?
switch the faulty MCDU off to transfer to MCDU 3
182
When do FMGC perform their first update?
At setting T/O power.
183
How is a lateral revision performed on the MCDU?
LSKs
184
How many spoilers are used for roll control?
5 per wing (spoiler 2-6)
185
When does the F/CTL ECAM page appear?
on selection or during side stick movement on ground
186
What does the rudder trim tab push button do?
resets the rudder trim at 3 degrees per sec.
187
When is the FADEC powered?
Eng start selector on IGN START.
188
What does Engine master switch do?
LP fuel valve.
189
How do you know if the auto-thrust is armed or active.
Armed - Blue
Active - White
190
Where is FOB indicated displayed
E/WD
191
Which tank supply the APU fuel pump?
Left inner tank.
192
What happens if engine anti-ice pb is pressed?
1. Engine anti-ince valve opens.
2. continuous ignition is automatically activated.
193
What happens to window heat in flight?
auto changes from low to high
194
what happens if wing anti-ice is selected on ground?
anti-ice valves open for 30 secs then closes again as a test sequence.
195
What happens when "No Smoking" sign is at AUTO?
signs illuminate when landing gear is down
196
What happens to runway turn off lights when gear is retracted?
auto extinguish
197
What are the indications on the OXY ECAM Door page?
1. Green - pressure > 600psi
2. Pulses green - < 600psi
3. amber - < 300psi
4. amber half frame - less than 1000psi
198
Where is the engine anti-ice supplied?
Engine HP compressors
199
When can the APU start?
When Start Switch is On and APU flap is open.
200
How many fuel pumps for APU?
2 FWD APU Pump Feed and AFT APU Pump Feed.
201
How long after APU bleed is shut off before switching the APU off?
2 mins.
202
Above what ALT does the trim tank / AFT fuel transfer occurs?
FL255
203
What is the minimum fuel for T/O?
5200 kg
204
What is the max useable fuel?
109,186 kg
205
Where does the outer wing tank transfer to?
Feed fuel to the inner tanks.
206
What does the trim tank fuel pb do?
Transfer fuel forward to the inner tanks.
207
What does it mean if the PRIM fault light flashes?
Normal during FCC power up test.
208
What happens if all PRIM fail, but SEC are OK?
Individual control, i.e. no master/slave
209
What protections are available in direct law?
None - only stall and overspeed warnings.
210
What happens to Green Electric pump if #1 Engine fails on T/O?
Electric pump runs automatically for 25 secs to ensure gear retraction.
211
What happens to HYD RSVR overheat warning when selected off?
Fault light remains on as long as the overheat condition is present.
212
What are the priorities of the HYD system?
Preservation of flying and normal braking.
213
What is the capabilities of the HYD electric pump compared to the engine-driven pump?
electric pump is about 18% of the EDP flow capacity.
214
What happens if a Green HYD reservoir low level occurs?
Fire shut off valve on both engine closes to ensure the integrity of the RAT system.
215
What does a N/W STRG amber caution mean on the wheel page?
N/W STRG is inoperative, NWS failure detected by the BSCU.
216
What happens if both FD flag flashes after LOC and GS capture?
ILS information lost, reverts to HDG / V/S or TRK/FPA
217
What HYD system power trailing edge flaps?
Yellow and Green
218
When is speed brake inhibited?
Speed brake is inhibited if PRIM is lost.
219
What happens to the cross bleed valve when the APU is ON with normal ops?
Cross bleed valve opens.
220
What happens if BMC 1 is lost?
APU bleed leak warning are lost
221
After start, when do the pack valve open?
Both engine running and the doors are fully closed.
222
What air does the flight deck receive?
Fresh air from Pack 1
223
What happens to used cabin air?
Avionics cooling and then remixing and recirculation.
224
How is the bulk cargo bay heated and ventilated?
Elec heater fan and cabin air.
225
When do the CPC change over?
1. after each landing.
2. system failure
226
Are generator work in parallel?
No, they operate individually.
227
When does EMER GEN come on?
When all main generator fail.
228
What is the purpose of the EIU?
transmit A/C data for engine management to the FADEC
229
When does FADEC limit the EGT?
during auto start on ground.
230
What is the minimum recommended starter air supply pressure?
25 psi
231
How is thrust lever angle displayed on the E/WD
cyan circle on the EPR indicator.
232
When does the APU auto shutdown for fire occur?
on the ground only
233
When does the engine fire warning appear?
1. fire signal from both loop A and B.
2. fire signal from one loop when the other is faulty
3. breaks in both loops occur within 5 secs of each other
4. a test is performed.
234
What fire protection is available in the cargo compartment?
Smoke detection and fire extinguishing.
235
Where is the LAV fire indication displayed?
in the flight deck and in the cabin
236
What flight control surfaces are used in MLA (manoeuvre load alleviation)?
Both ailerons (inboard and outboard) and spoiler 4, 5, and 6
237
What is the maximum operating runway altitude?
12,500'
238
How is the accessory gear box driven by the engines?
receives torque from HP rotor drive shaft
239
What is the max engine oil temperature?
max continuous 190C (RR), 163C (PW)
240
What is the procedure in case of cross bleed fault in cruise?
X Bleed -> MAN CTL
241
What does the FADEC monitor?
1. primary engine parameters
2. starting system status
3. thrust reverser system status
4. FADEC system status
5. Secondary engine paramenters.
242
What is the MLW for A/C 2?
187,000kg
243
What is the Max landing Tailwind?
10 kt (company)
15 kt (CAD?)
244
What is the max demonstrated crosswind for landing?
45 kt
245
What is the max tailwind for T/O?
15 kt
246
What is the max crosswind for T/O?
32 kt (gust included)
247
In the event of AC BUS 1 failure, which system supplies AC ESS BUS?
AC BUS 2
248
Red Fire warning PB illuminated, which of the following statement is correct?
The red light comes on regardless of PB switch position whenever the fire warning is activated.
249
How to take the oxygen mask out in the cockpit?
squeeze the two red grip, pull out directly
250
What powers the emergency generators?
Green HYD drives the emergency generator
251
APU manual shutdown sequence
1. the ON light of the Master SW pb goes off.
2. after 15s the APU shuts down and the AVAIL light goes off
3.if APU bleed is selected the APU cools for 85s at 82% speed
4. at N 7% the air-inlet flap closes.
252
Primary navaid tuning is done via?
FMGEC
253
How many electrical motors do the outflow valve actuator have?
2 electric motors in auto mode, and a third in manual mode.
254
How is normal pitch control achieved?
Prim 1 controls elevators and horizontal stabilisers, this is driven by 1 of 3 electric motors.
255
how many servojacks are on each elevators?
2
256
How many servojacks are on each aileron?
2
257
how many control modes are there for each elevator servojacks?
3, active, damping and centering
258
how many control modes are there for each aileron servojacks?
2, active and damping
259
how is roll control achieved with spoilers?
1. ailerons
2. 5 spoilers are used for roll control #2 to #6 spoilers are used
260
What is the MTOW for A/C 2?
227,000 kg
261
What is the max taxi weight for A/C 1?
233,900 kg
262
What is the MTOW for A/C 1?
233,000 kg
263
What is the MLW for A/C 1?
182,000 kg
264
What is the MZFW for A/C 1?
173,000 kg
