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A330 Type Tech Exam > Type Tech Questions > Flashcards

Type Tech Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What happens when internal lights are at storm?

A

Both dome lights and instruments panel floodlights are set to high intensity.

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2
Q

When do the logo lights come on?

A

When landing gear compressed or flaps at 15 degrees or more.

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3
Q

Can the IDG be reconnected in the air?

A

No, ground reset only.

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4
Q

Following dual engine failure, how is fuel fed for subsequent relight?

A

L2 Pump is powered by RAT, and crossfeed opens automatically.
(L2 pump remins powered, if L2 pump fails, R2 pump replace L2. <260 kts or Land Recovery -> ON, main & stay pumps are lost.)

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5
Q

What does the 4th TR do?

A

Supplies power for APU starting and battery charging.

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6
Q

What is the general principle of airbus generator operation?

A

Independent operation, supplying their own loads.

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7
Q

Is there any TR configuration for over current detection?

A

No, if TR is lost due to overcurrent detection, reconfiguration does not occur and related DC BUS is lost. (Contractor of each TR automatically opens in case: overheat, minimum current, over current or open or short circuit.)

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8
Q

Is Autopilot available in ALT 2 Law?

A

Yes, if 2 IRS are working.

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9
Q

How many autopilots are required for LWMO?

A

Ony one unless its CAT 3B.

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10
Q

How is ILS information called up on the PFD?

A

LS pushbutton.

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11
Q

When does auto thrust disengages during autoland?

A

at 10’ RETARD auto call out AND thrust levers set to IDLE.

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12
Q

How is independent FMGS noticed?

A

Annunciation on both FMGS and scratchpad. (INDEPENDENT OPERATION is displayed on both MCDUs scratchpads. The IND annunciator light illuminates amber on the top of the MCDU.)

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13
Q

What happens if a spoiler fault occurs?

A

The symmetric one on the other wing is inhibited except for spoilers 4 & 6 (DSC-27-10-20 P7/14)

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14
Q

What happens if both servo jacks on a surface lose electrical power?

A

Switch to damping mode. (if the active fails, the damped one becomes active, the failed jack switch to damping mode. if neither of the four jacks is being controlled electrically, the four jacks are switched to centering mode.)

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15
Q

With AP engaged, does rudder TRIM feedback through pedals?

A

Yes.

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16
Q

What is the effect of one SFCC being u/s?

A

Flaps/Slats operate at half speed.

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17
Q

When does backup yaw damper unit operate?

A

in case of total electrical failure or loss of rudder control due to flight control computers failure, Backup Control Module (BCM) controls the yellow hydraulic servo control, or the blue hydraulic servo control.

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18
Q

What controls are available for manual backup flight?

A

THS, rudder and manual trim.

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19
Q

What happens to rudder travel following SEC 1&2 failure?

A

Travel limited due to failure unless slat extended then recover full travel.

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20
Q

What is the max taxi weight for A/C 2?

A

227,900kg

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21
Q

What is the MZFW for A/C 2?

A

178,000kg

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22
Q

What are the max APU EGT?

A

650C normal ops
1250C Start

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23
Q

What is the max crosswind for T/O

A

32kts (gust included)

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24
Q

What is the max ALT for flap operations

A

20,000’

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25
Q

Max fuel imbalance of Outer tanks with Inner tanks balanced

A

1,730kg

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26
Q

Max fuel imbalance of Inner tanks with outer tanks balanced

A

7,500kg

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27
Q

MMO/VMO

A

M0.86 / 330 kts

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28
Q

Max Full flaps speed

A

180 kts

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29
Q

Min Engine oil pressure

A

25psi

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30
Q

Max ALT to start APU with electrical supply.

A

41,450’

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31
Q

After 3 consecutive APU start attempts, what is the cooling period?

A

60 mins

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32
Q

How do you crank the engine?

A

Select Crank (Eng Start Selector) and MAN ENG START pb to ON

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33
Q

What controls the APU bleed air?

A

Inlet Guide Vane (IGV) via Electronic Control Box (ECB)

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34
Q

What does the accessories gearbox drive?

A

1) Oil feed pump
2) Main engine fuel pump
3) Engine-driven hydraulic pumps
4) Engine-driven generators
5) FADEC alternator
6) pneumatic starter for engine start

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35
Q

Which tank supplies fuel to then engines?

A

From each inner tank to its corresponding engine.

Fuel transfer sequence:
1. each inner tank to 4,000kg
2. trim tank -> inner tanks
3. inner tank to 3,500kg
4. Outer tank -> Inner Tank.

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36
Q

What are the types of IDLE thrust is available?

A

1) Modulated idle (flaps retracted and gear up)
2) Approach idle (flaps >1 or gear down)
3) Reverse idle

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37
Q

Which HYD system powers the left elevator?

A

Green and Blue HYD

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38
Q

What pumps are available on Yellow HYD?

A

Engine pump, electrical pump and manual hand pump

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39
Q

What normally pressurise the HYD reserviors?

A

1 Engine bleed air

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40
Q

How is the landing gear gravity extension mechanised?

A

Electromechanical

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41
Q

What does the red arrow in the gear warning handle area mean?

A

L/G not down locked below 750’ RA at config 2/3/full.

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42
Q

What does selection of Auto Brake pb do?

A

arm the appropriate deceleration rate.

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43
Q

Under what conditions are servos (rudder, elevator, THS & ailerons) operating slow?

A

When the RAT is supplying the Green HYD system.

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44
Q

What does a battery fault light indicate?

A

Charging current increases at an abnormal rate.

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45
Q

Which batteries are used on the ground to start the APU?

A

APU battery or in combination with the external power or normal aircraft supply.

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46
Q

How is DC power supplied?

A

TRs and batteries.

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47
Q

What is the basic fuel feed?

A

1) Inner tanks (down to 4000kg)
2) Trim tank to inner
3) inner tanks (down to 3500kg)
4) Outer to inner

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48
Q

What is the purpose of the inner tank split valve?

A

to isolate part of the inner tank in case of tank damage (leak)

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49
Q

How is the Engine LP valve controlled?

A

Engine master switch and Fire PB

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50
Q

How to display the LOC and G/S information on the PFD

A

LS pb

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51
Q

When does the fuel cross feed valve open automatically?

A

During Emer ELEC Config

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52
Q

What are displayed on the 2nd Column (from the left) of the FMA?

A

AP/FD Vertical Modes

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53
Q

Which display does DMC 3 controls?

A

upper and lower ECAM DUs

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54
Q

When does the engine bleed fault light extinguish?

A

when ENG BLEED pb is at OFF provided the failure has disappeared.

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55
Q

How is engine anti-ice supplied?

A

Bleed air from the high pressure compressor.

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56
Q

With one engine running on the ground which probes are heated?

A

All probes are heated except the TAT probes. (pitot heating at low level)

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57
Q

Where does wing anti-ice protects?

A

the 4 outboard slats (4,5,6 &7)

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58
Q

When is the rain repellent system inhibited?

A

On ground with engines off.

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59
Q

What normally power the DC ESS BUS?

A

the ESS TR

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60
Q

How is a DMC failure recognised?

A

displays the INVALID DATA message (diagonal line across DU?)

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61
Q

What are the control modes for flight surfaces servo jacks?

A

Active, damping & centering.

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62
Q

What happens if HYD power to a spoiler fails?

A

the spoiler retains the deflection or a lesser deflection if aerodynamic forces push it down.

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63
Q

When do flight directors engage?

A

FDs are automatically engaged whenever the FMGC powers up.

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64
Q

How does NWS centering on T/O occurs?

A

an internal cam mechanism

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65
Q

How is smoke warning for lavatories presented?

A

SDCU transmit information to FWC (ECAM) and to CIDS (FAP)

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66
Q

What actions are taken if an escape slide fails to inflate?

A

Manual inflation handle or direct PAX to another exit.

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67
Q

When do the cabin oxygen masks automatically drop?

A

at 14,000’ cabin ALT.

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68
Q

What happens if both hot air valves failed closed?

A

Trim air valves are driven to full closed position and packs regulate temperature.

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69
Q

How many zones are there for air conditioning?

A

3 cabin and 1 cockpit

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70
Q

In EMER ELEC CONF what happens to fuel cross-feed and why?

A

Cross-feed opens since ONLY L2 pump is supplied in EMER ELEC CONF.

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71
Q

How many electric motors control the outflow valves?

A

3 (2 for auto and 1 for manual)

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72
Q

One pack fails/OFF, and Delta P>4 psi what happens?

A

the aft outflow valve closes and the forward outflow valve controls the cabin pressure.

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73
Q

How is Auto-Brake armed?

A

by pressing the LO, MED or MAX pb given:
1) Green pressure avail
2) Anti-skid is powered
3) No failure in the braking system
4) at least 2 PRIMs avail
5) at least 1 ADIRU avail

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74
Q

How does the yellow hand pump work?

A

Thru the Yellow System Accumulator.

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75
Q

Which HYD system have electric pump?

A

All have electric pump

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76
Q

What happens to NWS and brakes following gravity extension?

A

NWS is lost but brakes are normal.

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77
Q

When AP/FD controls vertical speed path, what does Auto Thrust Control?

A

Speed or MACH

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78
Q

When is MLA (Maneuver load alleviation) available?

A
  1. Speed above 250 kts.
  2. Flaps lever in 0 position.
  3. in normal or alternate law.
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79
Q

What valves does FIRE pb control?

A
  1. LP fuel valve
  2. HYD fire shut off valve
  3. Engine Bleed valve
  4. pack flow control valve.
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80
Q

What are the generator overload indications?

A

GEN load indication becomes amber due to load greater than 108% for more than 10 seconds.

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81
Q

What is the effect of Blue HYD system failure?

A

Slats slow

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82
Q

Why do inner tank controls pulse?

A

Fuel imbalance (same with outer tanks)

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83
Q

What do the LDG GEAR red UNLK light mean?

A

Landing gear not locked in selected position. (LDG GEAR indicator panel light up as long as the LGCIU 1 is electricallty supplied.)

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84
Q

Does the mechanical control of THS override AP and side stick?

A

Yes

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85
Q

When does cross bleed valve close automatically?

A

Normally closed, opens when APU bleed air is used. Closes when air leak detected.

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86
Q

What does the DITCHING pb do?

A

closes outflow valves, RAM air inlet, avionics overboard valve and pack flow control valve.

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87
Q

What happens when ignition is selected to CRANK and the manual start pb is selected?

A

Start valve opens but no ignition.

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88
Q

What is the normal supply for AC ESS?

A

AC Bus 1

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89
Q

What is the max differential pressure?

A

9.25 psi

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90
Q

What TAT probe supplies ADIRU 3?

A

Capt TAT

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91
Q

Where does the DDRMI received its information?

A

ADIRU 1 (normal), ADIRU 3 if selected.

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92
Q

What warnings are given for excess cabin altitude?

A

Master Warning, CRC, and ECAM warning.

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93
Q

When do the pack valves close?

A

On selection of ENG start selector to IGN/START.

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94
Q

When does the start valve close?

A

FCOM N3>50%
notes: 38-43% N3

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95
Q

What causes the FAULT light in the fuel pumps to illuminate?

A

Delivery pressure drops.

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96
Q

What does LVR ASYM on FMA means?

A

A/THR active, both engines running but one thrust lever out of CLB detent.

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97
Q

What are the FMA annunciations for the G/A?

A

MAN TOGA/SRS/GA TRK

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98
Q

How are the backup NAV aids tuned?

A

RMP 1 and 2

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99
Q

What does a flashing LOC & GS indicate?

A

excessive deviation

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100
Q

how does fuel transfer from outer to inner tanks?

A

Gravity

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101
Q

What does the ground electric control switch do?

A

allow ground servicing w/o energizing entire A/C electrical network.

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102
Q

What are the flight envelope limits for the APU generator?

A

Full envelope (41,450’)

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103
Q

In what modes is the WX radar not available?

A

Plan & Eng mode on the EFIS control panel.

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104
Q

What happens in case of the air cycle machine failure?

A

a bypass valve allows the bleed air to be cooled by the associated heat exchanger.

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105
Q

What powers the Green HYD system?

A

2 Engine driven pumps, 1 ELEC pump, and RAT

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106
Q

What is the max operating ALT?

A

41,450’

107
Q

How are the thrust reverser doors actuated?

A

Hydraulically

108
Q

What is the Max N1?

A

100% N1

109
Q

What is the max N2?

A

100% N2

110
Q

What is the Max ALT for APU start on batteries?

A

25,000’

111
Q

Emergency APU shudown accomplished from where?

A

Refuel panel or external power panel.

112
Q

In A/THR and normal flight, what is the max thrust?

A

Thrust lever angle.

113
Q

What does the APU fire pb isolate when it is pushed?

A
  1. LP fuel valve
  2. APU fuel pumps (aft and forward)
  3. APU bleed valve and x bleed valve
  4. APU generator.
114
Q

When is the ECB electrically supplied?

A

When the APU master switch is turned ON.

115
Q

What is the manual refuelling order?

A
  1. Inner
  2. Outer
  3. Inner
  4. Trim
    FCOM: any tanks that require refueling, start to be refueled simultaneously.
116
Q

Where is the refuelling panel?

A

On the fuselage below the right wing.

117
Q

When can a second aft transfer take place?

A

if CG in CRZ is ahead of the target by more than 2% and the trim tank quantity is below 3000kg.

118
Q

When does the light on the trim tank mode pb illuminate?

A
  1. FMGS detects an excess aft CG.
  2. FCMC is unable to carry out the forward transfer.
  3. FUEL LO TEMP warning is triggered.
119
Q

When does the RAT deploy?

A
  1. Both Eng failed
  2. G+Y Reservoir Lo LVL
  3. G+B Reservoir Lo LVL
120
Q

How can the parking brake accumulator be pressurised on the ground?

A

B HYD Elec pump

121
Q

How is the parking brake applied?

A

Pull upwards and turn clockwise.

122
Q

When is NWS self centred?

A

above 100 kts.

123
Q

When does the generator voltage indication becomes amber on the ECAM display?

A

Below 110v or above 120v

124
Q

When does the generator frequency becomes amber on the ECAM display?

A

below 390Hz or above 410Hz

125
Q

What does the wind indication in ND use?

A

Digital indication - True North
Analog indication - reflects the north reference use (magnetic or true)

126
Q

What is the max RAD ALT?

A

2500’ AGL

127
Q

When does the wing anti-ice valve close automatically?

A

Electrical failure and leak detection.

128
Q

How are the evacuation slides illuminated?

A

By their own integrated system. It turns on automatically when slide armed and door opened.

129
Q

How are cabin doors opened in an emergency?

A

manually with pneumatic assistance

130
Q

where are evacuation slides fitted?

A

stowed in a container attached to the inboard lower side of the door. (cabin doors and emergency exits)

131
Q

How is CVR manually energised on the ground?

A

RCDR GND CTL switch

132
Q

In automatic mode, each outflow valve is powered by?

A

1 of 2 electric motors with a 3rd as manual backup.

133
Q

With cabin pressurisation in automatic mode, what happens if SYS 1 fails?

A

2 automatic systems, an automatic transfer occurs:
1. 80s after each landing
2. if the operating system fails.

134
Q

What is the effect of an engine bleed valve malfunction?

A

Engine bleed and HP bleed valve close.

135
Q

What does a pack fault light indicate?

A
  1. pack flow valve disagreement with selected position.
  2. compressor outlet overheat (260C)
  3. pack outlet overheat (95C)
136
Q

When does FADEC automatically supply ignition?

A
  1. Flame out
  2. Engine anti-ice selected
137
Q

What controls APU bleed air?

A

APU bleed valve (electrically-controlled and pneumatically-operated)

138
Q

How is FADEC supplied with power?

A
  1. A/c electrical circuit below 5% N2
  2. self-powered above 5% N2
139
Q

When does HYD system pressure on ECAM becomes amber?

A

When pressure goes below 1450 psi.

140
Q

Which elevator is powered by Blue HYD?

A

Left

141
Q

When does the HYD pump identification on the HYD system page turn from white to amber?

A

When N2 of the corresponding engine is below idle.

142
Q

How are the HYD reservoirs normally pressurised?

A

HP air from ENG 1, if bleed air pressure too low, the system takes bleed air from x-bleed duct.

143
Q

is it possible to restore normal L/G operation following gravity extension?

A

Yes as long as Green HYD pressure is available.

144
Q

What does the anti-skid use for its speed reference?

A

determined by BSCU from ADIRU 1 or 2 or 3.
if all ADIRU failed, the speed is from the main landing gear wheel speed.

145
Q

When Green and Yellow HYD failed, which PRIM will be master?

A

PRIM 2

146
Q

How are the ailerons controlled / actuated.

A

by 2 electrically controlled hydraulic servojacks.

147
Q

When is slat retraction inhibited?

A

If alpha > 8.5 degrees or speed < 148 kt

148
Q

Which ECMU control the external power supplies?

A

ECMU 1 = external power contactor B
ECMU 2 = external power contactor A

149
Q

What does the “END” light FLASHING means on the refuelling panel?

A
  1. after refuelling imbalance > 3000kg.
  2. failure during a high level test.
  3. refuelling is aborted.
150
Q

What does a partial box around FOB mean?

A

Fuel partially unusable.

151
Q

What is the effect of losing one FCMC?

A

2 computers, first fails, the other takes over.

152
Q

What do the Air Data Modules (ADM) do?

A
  1. 8 ADMs
  2. convert pneumatic data from PITOT and STAT probes into numerical data for the ADIRUs.
153
Q

What does the standby probes and standby air data modules do?

A
  1. PITOT STBY -> ADM (ADIRU 3) and STBY ASI
  2. STATIC STBY -> Stby ASI and Stby ALTI
154
Q

Where does the active CPC get its landing data from?

A

MCDU and FMGS

155
Q

When does the Autoland red light illuminate?

A
  1. Both AP off below 200’ RA
  2. LOC/GS excessive deviation above 15’ or 100’ RA respectively
  3. ILS signal lost
  4. RAD ALT indications differ by > 15’
156
Q

When is the A/C depressurised?

A

80 seconds after landing at a controlled rate.

157
Q

How many aileron servo modes are there?

A

2, active and damping

158
Q

What does amber F LOCKED messaged means

A

WTB is applied to flaps

159
Q

When do the pack valves close during an auto start?

A

Engine start selector to IGN/START

160
Q

What happens if AP is selected ON with both FDs OFF?

A

A/P engages in HDG-V/S or TRK-FPA

161
Q

when is Pneumatic assist for door opening is available?

A

in an emergency

162
Q

When does the F indication on the upper ECAM turn amber?

A

G+Y HYD low pressure.

163
Q

What does L/G CTL amber on wheel page means?

A

Position of any landing gear disagrees with lever position with a 30 seconds time delay.

164
Q

What is the Yellow HYD hand pump used for?

A

To operate the cargo door when no electrical power is available.

165
Q

When is Manoeuvre Load Alleviation inhibited?

A
  1. below 250 kt
  2. Flaps > 0
  3. in Direct law
166
Q

When does the HYD pump identification indicate white?

A

When Eng N2 is above idle.

167
Q

What detects an APU LOW OIL LEVEL when the A/C is on ground and APU not running?

A

ECB

168
Q

What do PRIM computer controls?

A
  1. Normal, alternate and direct control laws
  2. speed brake and ground spoiler control
  3. protection speed computation.
  4. rudder travel limit.
169
Q

What do SEC computer controls?

A
  1. Direct control laws, including yaw damper function.
  2. rudder trim and rudder travel limit.
170
Q

What is the indication of flight crew oxygen bottle system discharge?

A

Absence of green discharge indicator on fuselage.

171
Q

The pneumatic system supplies high pressure air for:

A
  1. Air conditioning
  2. Engine starting
  3. Wing anti-ice.
  4. water pressurisation
  5. HYD reservoir
  6. pack bay ventilation turbofan actuation.
172
Q

If both AP are engaged when TOGA is selected, what happens to the AP?

A

they remain engaged.

173
Q

During descent prep, where is the landing elevation displayed?

A

CRZ in the MCDU and CAB Press page in the S/D

174
Q

What does STS prompt on E/WD mean?

A

something in the status page.

175
Q

What does the ECAM CLR pb extinguish during ECAM actions?

A

when status page is reviewed and cleared/

176
Q

How is backup NAV mode selected?

A

On the MCDU menu page but only if FM selector is at NORM.
(MCDU 3 is not avail for backup NAV)

177
Q

How are navaids tuned if both FMGC failed?

A

RMP1 and 2 tuning onside aids only except for the ILS

178
Q

What happens during independent FM operations?

A

independent entries on either MCDUs

179
Q

What is the function of the SDAC (system data acquisition concentrator)?

A

supply information to FWC for warning calculations and DMCs to be displayed

180
Q

What happens if you lose the ECAM part of DMC3

A

Transfer to DMC 1 provided that ECAM Switching is in AUTO

181
Q

What happens if MCDU 1 and 2 fails?

A

switch the faulty MCDU off to transfer to MCDU 3

182
Q

When do FMGC perform their first update?

A

At setting T/O power.

183
Q

How is a lateral revision performed on the MCDU?

A

LSKs

184
Q

How many spoilers are used for roll control?

A

5 per wing (spoiler 2-6)

185
Q

When does the F/CTL ECAM page appear?

A

on selection or during side stick movement on ground

186
Q

What does the rudder trim tab push button do?

A

resets the rudder trim at 3 degrees per sec.

187
Q

When is the FADEC powered?

A

Eng start selector on IGN START.

188
Q

What does Engine master switch do?

A

LP fuel valve.

189
Q

How do you know if the auto-thrust is armed or active.

A

Armed - Blue
Active - White

190
Q

Where is FOB indicated displayed

A

E/WD

191
Q

Which tank supply the APU fuel pump?

A

Left inner tank.

192
Q

What happens if engine anti-ice pb is pressed?

A
  1. Engine anti-ince valve opens.
  2. continuous ignition is automatically activated.
193
Q

What happens to window heat in flight?

A

auto changes from low to high

194
Q

what happens if wing anti-ice is selected on ground?

A

anti-ice valves open for 30 secs then closes again as a test sequence.

195
Q

What happens when “No Smoking” sign is at AUTO?

A

signs illuminate when landing gear is down

196
Q

What happens to runway turn off lights when gear is retracted?

A

auto extinguish

197
Q

What are the indications on the OXY ECAM Door page?

A
  1. Green - pressure > 600psi
  2. Pulses green - < 600psi
  3. amber - < 300psi
  4. amber half frame - less than 1000psi
198
Q

Where is the engine anti-ice supplied?

A

Engine HP compressors

199
Q

When can the APU start?

A

When Start Switch is On and APU flap is open.

200
Q

How many fuel pumps for APU?

A

2 FWD APU Pump Feed and AFT APU Pump Feed.

201
Q

How long after APU bleed is shut off before switching the APU off?

A

2 mins.

202
Q

Above what ALT does the trim tank / AFT fuel transfer occurs?

A

FL255

203
Q

What is the minimum fuel for T/O?

A

5200 kg

204
Q

What is the max useable fuel?

A

109,186 kg

205
Q

Where does the outer wing tank transfer to?

A

Feed fuel to the inner tanks.

206
Q

What does the trim tank fuel pb do?

A

Transfer fuel forward to the inner tanks.

207
Q

What does it mean if the PRIM fault light flashes?

A

Normal during FCC power up test.

208
Q

What happens if all PRIM fail, but SEC are OK?

A

Individual control, i.e. no master/slave

209
Q

What protections are available in direct law?

A

None - only stall and overspeed warnings.

210
Q

What happens to Green Electric pump if #1 Engine fails on T/O?

A

Electric pump runs automatically for 25 secs to ensure gear retraction.

211
Q

What happens to HYD RSVR overheat warning when selected off?

A

Fault light remains on as long as the overheat condition is present.

212
Q

What are the priorities of the HYD system?

A

Preservation of flying and normal braking.

213
Q

What is the capabilities of the HYD electric pump compared to the engine-driven pump?

A

electric pump is about 18% of the EDP flow capacity.

214
Q

What happens if a Green HYD reservoir low level occurs?

A

Fire shut off valve on both engine closes to ensure the integrity of the RAT system.

215
Q

What does a N/W STRG amber caution mean on the wheel page?

A

N/W STRG is inoperative, NWS failure detected by the BSCU.

216
Q

What happens if both FD flag flashes after LOC and GS capture?

A

ILS information lost, reverts to HDG / V/S or TRK/FPA

217
Q

What HYD system power trailing edge flaps?

A

Yellow and Green

218
Q

When is speed brake inhibited?

A

Speed brake is inhibited if PRIM is lost.

219
Q

What happens to the cross bleed valve when the APU is ON with normal ops?

A

Cross bleed valve opens.

220
Q

What happens if BMC 1 is lost?

A

APU bleed leak warning are lost

221
Q

After start, when do the pack valve open?

A

Both engine running and the doors are fully closed.

222
Q

What air does the flight deck receive?

A

Fresh air from Pack 1

223
Q

What happens to used cabin air?

A

Avionics cooling and then remixing and recirculation.

224
Q

How is the bulk cargo bay heated and ventilated?

A

Elec heater fan and cabin air.

225
Q

When do the CPC change over?

A
  1. after each landing.
  2. system failure
226
Q

Are generator work in parallel?

A

No, they operate individually.

227
Q

When does EMER GEN come on?

A

When all main generator fail.

228
Q

What is the purpose of the EIU?

A

transmit A/C data for engine management to the FADEC

229
Q

When does FADEC limit the EGT?

A

during auto start on ground.

230
Q

What is the minimum recommended starter air supply pressure?

A

25 psi

231
Q

How is thrust lever angle displayed on the E/WD

A

cyan circle on the EPR indicator.

232
Q

When does the APU auto shutdown for fire occur?

A

on the ground only

233
Q

When does the engine fire warning appear?

A
  1. fire signal from both loop A and B.
  2. fire signal from one loop when the other is faulty
  3. breaks in both loops occur within 5 secs of each other
  4. a test is performed.
234
Q

What fire protection is available in the cargo compartment?

A

Smoke detection and fire extinguishing.

235
Q

Where is the LAV fire indication displayed?

A

in the flight deck and in the cabin

236
Q

What flight control surfaces are used in MLA (manoeuvre load alleviation)?

A

Both ailerons (inboard and outboard) and spoiler 4, 5, and 6

237
Q

What is the maximum operating runway altitude?

A

12,500’

238
Q

How is the accessory gear box driven by the engines?

A

receives torque from HP rotor drive shaft

239
Q

What is the max engine oil temperature?

A

max continuous 190C (RR), 163C (PW)

240
Q

What is the procedure in case of cross bleed fault in cruise?

A

X Bleed -> MAN CTL

241
Q

What does the FADEC monitor?

A
  1. primary engine parameters
  2. starting system status
  3. thrust reverser system status
  4. FADEC system status
  5. Secondary engine paramenters.
242
Q

What is the MLW for A/C 2?

A

187,000kg

243
Q

What is the Max landing Tailwind?

A

10 kt (company)
15 kt (CAD?)

244
Q

What is the max demonstrated crosswind for landing?

A

45 kt

245
Q

What is the max tailwind for T/O?

A

15 kt

246
Q

What is the max crosswind for T/O?

A

32 kt (gust included)

247
Q

In the event of AC BUS 1 failure, which system supplies AC ESS BUS?

A

AC BUS 2

248
Q

Red Fire warning PB illuminated, which of the following statement is correct?

A

The red light comes on regardless of PB switch position whenever the fire warning is activated.

249
Q

How to take the oxygen mask out in the cockpit?

A

squeeze the two red grip, pull out directly

250
Q

What powers the emergency generators?

A

Green HYD drives the emergency generator

251
Q

APU manual shutdown sequence

A
  1. the ON light of the Master SW pb goes off.
  2. after 15s the APU shuts down and the AVAIL light goes off
    3.if APU bleed is selected the APU cools for 85s at 82% speed
  3. at N 7% the air-inlet flap closes.
252
Q

Primary navaid tuning is done via?

A

FMGEC

253
Q

How many electrical motors do the outflow valve actuator have?

A

2 electric motors in auto mode, and a third in manual mode.

254
Q

How is normal pitch control achieved?

A

Prim 1 controls elevators and horizontal stabilisers, this is driven by 1 of 3 electric motors.

255
Q

how many servojacks are on each elevators?

A

2

256
Q

How many servojacks are on each aileron?

A

2

257
Q

how many control modes are there for each elevator servojacks?

A

3, active, damping and centering

258
Q

how many control modes are there for each aileron servojacks?

A

2, active and damping

259
Q

how is roll control achieved with spoilers?

A
  1. ailerons
  2. 5 spoilers are used for roll control #2 to #6 spoilers are used
260
Q

What is the MTOW for A/C 2?

A

227,000 kg

261
Q

What is the max taxi weight for A/C 1?

A

233,900 kg

262
Q

What is the MTOW for A/C 1?

A

233,000 kg

263
Q

What is the MLW for A/C 1?

A

182,000 kg

264
Q

What is the MZFW for A/C 1?

A

173,000 kg

A330 Type Tech Exam (1 decks)

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