unit 1+4 (oopsies) Flashcards

(55 cards)

1
Q

What input removes freeze code I?

A

IRC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What AFI directs AF organizations to designate formally, in writing; personnel authorized to accept controlled materiel?

A

AFI 31-404

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What management notice is output when a receipt or TIN is processed against a stock number that is coded as a suspect item?

A

I302

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is NOT a the criterion for an automatic adjustment after a physical inventory recount?

A

CIC 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How is the self-inspection program conducted and performed?

A

According to local guidelines and checklists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How frequently should the storage conditions of chemical and petroleum products be inspected?

A

Monthly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What AFI publication describes the general duties and responsibilities for materiel management?

A

AFI 36-2101

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is defined as Materiel that requires protection in the interest of national security?

A

Classified property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What type of acids must be stored under automatic water sprinklers?

A

Organic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What program writes inventory count records to a data base file and assigns freeze code C to all item records within the input parameter?

A

R12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What product do you use to reconcile recap sheets after the completion of the inventory to verify emergency issues were processed?

A

D04

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is defined as Classified or unclassified assemblies and subassemblies (containing no fissionable or fusionable materiel) identified by the military departments (MILDEP) that comprise or could comprise a standardized war reserve nuclear weapon (including equivalent training devices) as it would exist once separated/removed from its intended delivery vehicle?

A

NWRM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where are precious metals stored?

A

In a security Page

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How are potential health-hazard item records marked?

A

IEX Code 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What publication can be used as a guide to identify potentially hazardous items?

A

Federal standard 313

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Who determines which IEX code or flag should be loaded on the item record?

A

BES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What TEX code is used to process an NF/ND equipment turn-in (TIN) found-on-base (FOB) when ownership cannot be determined?

A

+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which is NOT a reason for processing an FCS?

A

Cancel a warehouse location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When a phase II, semiannual bench stock review is conducted, within what time frame must the review be accomplished?

A

Within 1 workweek

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Who do DMS personnel notify when DIFM asset turn-in times exceed requirements outlined in AFI 23–101?

A

Aircraft maintence Unit Leadership

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is NOT a legacy program that ES-S provides the capability to query and view orders?

A

LIMS-EV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Who handles all enlisted issues for a MAJCOM for the 2S career field?

A

MAJCOM Functional Manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is DLA’s materiel management system?

A

Standard Automated Materiel Management Listing (SAMMS)

24
Q

How often are code components inventoried as designated in STRATCOM guidance?

A

15, 30, and/or 90 days interval

25
What do warehouse personnel NOT have ensure is in place prior to storing property?
Quantity is Listed on asset
26
What category of reusable containers has an exterior container usually made of metal, plastic, or synthetic materials?
Long Life
27
Which item accounting process provides the total asset position of the item record requested, to include interchangeable and substitutes?
Due-Out Process
28
How often are the keys and locks audited when padlocks are used to store classified materiel?
Monthly
29
What TRIC is used to change the authorization or delete a bench stock item?
2BS
30
How many days prior to the expiration date are type II shelf-life items scheduled for serviceability testing?
14-45 days
31
Which form is used to submit permanent changes for production forecasting?
AF Form 2011
32
What category DIREP is normally correct immediately?
Major Impact
33
Which change input, transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to correct an identification error for serviceable items in storage?
FCH
34
What is NOT a type of inventory?
Annual
35
Which materiel handling principle results in reducing the costs of operation (i.e., the simplification of maintenance, repair, storage, and issue procedures)?
Standardized Equipment
36
Which warehouse change document may be output when, due to a change in the controlled item code (CIC), an item must be relocated to a more secure area?
1SC
37
At a minimum, how often must SDR data and MRA levels be validated?
Annually
38
What are the storage requirements for Secret and Confidential materiel?
Class B Vault
39
How are storage levels identified?
By a single capital letter
40
What code is assigned to the item record of any warranty or guarantee item received?
IEX code b
41
What thing is not needed to be checked when off-loading property?
NSN
42
How long does document control maintain a copy of the D04 on disk?
2 year
43
What materiel management function evaluates and controls the incoming SDR program?
Customer support
44
What type of codes are used on the item record inquiry to obtain specific data from the computer?
record retrieval
45
What document file code is used to indicate a source document is to be filed?
F
46
What listing is used to monitor delinquent shipment-suspense details?
R40
47
Which of these is not a CTH inquiry input format?
Serial number
48
Which element is NOT responsible for processing record reversal inputs?
Equipment
49
What is a warehouse refusal?
When a needed issue item is not found in the location, or when the quantity needed is not sufficient to fill the request
50
How many divisions make up the SMAG-R?
Three
51
When should a warehouse validation be completed?
Within 10 workdays of the start of a new inventory cycle or sample inventory
52
What are the 4 major types of computer inquiries?
item record, detail record, part number record, and OTHER RECORDS
53
What transaction adjusts the record balance and updates the applicable inventory accuracy records for a complete inventory?
IRC
54
What form is used to process a turn-in (TIN) request?
AF form 2005
55
What system provides transactional information to VLIPS?
Defense automated addressing system (DAAS)