Unit 1 Flashcards

(93 cards)

1
Q

Who discovered Xrays? When?

His first X-ray was:

A

Wilhelm Roentgen in 1895

his wife’s hand

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2
Q

In _____, Wilhelm Roentgen won the first Nobel prize for ____.

A

1901

Physics

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3
Q

Properties of Xrays

A

Photons

No mass, no electrical charge, invisible

Contain more energy than visible light due to their higher frequencies and shorter wavelengths

Can penetrate most matter

Travel in straight lines until they interact with matter

Expose photo and radiographic film

Can penetrate, be absorbed or scattered in the body

Capable of changing biological matter via ionization

Can be produced in a wide range of energies

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4
Q

Xrays are made and emitted from the ___. They go into the ____.

A

Tube

Patient.

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5
Q

The more ____ the tissue is, the more the X-ray is absorbed by that part

A

Dense

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6
Q

The denser the tissue, the ______ or ____ it will appear on the X-ray

A

Whiter or lighter

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7
Q

XRAYS, AKA:

A

Film

Radiograph

View

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8
Q

Degreed person who takes the X-ray

A

Rad technician/ radiographer

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9
Q

Doctor who reads the X-ray

A

Radiologist

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10
Q

What is matter that is easily penetrated by X-ray?

What color are those typically

A

Radiolucent

Dark/black

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11
Q

What factors can cause something to be more or less radiolucent

A

Decrease in density

Decrease in radiopacity

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12
Q

What is matter that is NOT easily penetrated by X-ray?

Shows up as:

A

Radiopaque

Lighter/white

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13
Q

What cause more or less radiopaque

A

Increase in density

Increase in radiopacity

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14
Q

5 radiographic densities— least dense to most dense (More radiolucent to least radiolucent)

A

Air

Fat

Water

Bone

Metal

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15
Q

A substance that makes an area no normally visible on X-ray, visible.

What density is usually used?

A

Contrast agent

Metal density

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16
Q

An object that is produced on the X-ray bu some external action

A

Artifact

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17
Q

What are some examples of artifacts?

A

Clothing

Surgical

Film/processing

Jewelry

Patient motion

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18
Q

Ways to compare radiographic films

A

compare opposite sides (extremities, pars)

Time comparison (was it there before)

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19
Q

What are serial radiographs/films?

A

Films taken over time to monitor progression or lack of progression (pneumonia, fractures, scoliosis)

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20
Q

ALL X-rays must have a:

A

Mitchell marker

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21
Q

What is the purpose of a Mitchell marker?

A

Tells which side is closes to the film (lateral views of the axial skeleton)

Tell which side of the pt is rt or lt. (A-P and P-A views of the axial skeleton, chest and abdomen)

Tells which extremity is X-rayed, rt or lt

Tells which side is closest to the film on oblique spinal and chest X-Rays

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22
Q

General consideration for X-rays

A

All xrays must have a Mitchell marker

There must be a sufficient anatomy for identification of the anatomical location

Extremity xrays must include a joint

Take a min of 2 views (opposing views), 90 degrees to each other

XRays must have a permanent ID label

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23
Q

What should be found on the permanent ID label?

A

Pt name

Clinic or docs name

Date film is taken

Patients age or birthday

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24
Q

The part of interest in an X-ray is closest to what?

A

The film (which helps decrease magnification)

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25
Basic radiographic positions
Upright Recumbent
26
Radiographic views?
A-P (anteroposterior) P-A (posteroanterior) Lateral Oblique
27
What is an A-P position
Posterior aspect of the body or part is against the film. X-rays enter through the anterior aspect
28
Describe P-A view
Anterior aspect of the body or part against the film. XRays enter through the post aspect of the body
29
Lateral radiographic view
Lateral aspect of the body or part is against the film
30
Oblique radiographic views
Patient or body part is rotated away from the film at an angle (mc 45 deg)
31
RAO oblique
Right anterior oblique The right anterolateral aspect of the body is closes to the film
32
LAO oblique
Left anterior oblique The left anterolateral aspect of the body is closest to the film
33
RPO radiographic view
Right posterior oblique The right posterolateral aspect of the body is closest to the film
34
LPO radiographic views
Left posterior oblique The left posterolateral aspect of the body is closest to the film
35
2 types of ossification
Intramembranous Enchondral
36
Intramembranous ossification
Bone develops from mesenchyme Occurs quickly Bones urgently needed for protection (skull, face, et al)
37
Enchondral ossification
Bone develops from cartilage Majority of bone Occurs more slowly
38
Cells that produce the organized matrix called osteoid which is deposited on mineral salts which become mineralized to form bone
Osteoblasts
39
Cells that cause bone resorption
Osteoclasts
40
Primary ossification center
Present at birth (exceptions) First indication of ossification in a bone that develops from cartilage Shaft of tubular bones, vertebral bodies, et al.
41
Secondary ossification centers
Appear at variable times after birth Time of appearance and fusion to the rest of the bone is an indication of skeletal age and maturation Epiphysis, apophysis, vertebral endplates In some cases, may never form an osseous union with the rest of the bone (ununited secondary center of ossification)
42
Primary ossification centers appear during the ______ fetal month. Each vertebra develops from:
5th or 6th fetal month 3 primary centers: 1 in centrum, 1 in each side of the neural arch
43
Most 2ndary ossification centers will appear by: And fuse by:
12-16 yoa 20-25 yoa (complete skeletal maturation)
44
When to Pedicles fuse?
In the cervical spine at 3yo Moves down and finishes in the lumbar spine at 6-7 yo
45
When does the lamina fuse?
In the lumber spine and moves up to finish in the cervical spine at 2 yo 7-10 they close in the sacrum
46
3 primary ossification centers of the atlas:
1 becomes the anterior arch (does not dev until after birth) 1 for each side of the neural arch (lateral mass) - anterior arch fuses to lateral masses age 6-9 - post arch fuses fuses age 3-7
47
Primary ossification centers for axis
1- each vertebral arch 1- centrum/body 2- Base of the dens (fuses at birth- old thought- 5-7)
48
2ndary ossification centers of axis
1- apex of the dens (appears 3-6 yo... fuses at 12 yo) 1- inf endplate 1 in each TVP 1 in spinous
49
Ends of a bone 2ndary center of ossification
Epiphysis
50
Physis, AKA:
Physeal plate, growth plate
51
Physis has ____ cartilaginous layers. It is ______ on X-ray when open. It is responsible for :
4 Radiolucent Bone growth in length —Zone of provisional calcification (ZPC), closest to metaphysis, growth occurs, radiopaque on X-ray
52
Most vascular area of the bone Active bone formation takes place
Metaphysis
53
Primary center of ossification of the metaphysis is continuous with..
The diaphysis
54
Primary ossification center Shaft of long bones Cortical bone is thickest
Diaphysis
55
Location of the periosteum
Outside of the cortex Outer fibrous layer Inner cambium later (osteoclasts and osteoblasts)
56
The periosteum (DOES/DOES NOT) cover the epiphysis
Does not
57
Periosteum is not seen on X-ray unless:
It is affected by a pathology
58
Periosteum on kids is more loosely attached at the:
Diaphysis
59
Endosteum is located: It (IS/IS NOT) visible on X-ray. Here you will find:
Inside of the Corte Is not Osteoclasts and osteoblasts
60
The balance between the endosteal and periosteal cellular activity maintains what?
The thickness of the cortex and allows for bone growth in width
61
Apophysis provides: It protrudes beyond the __. It has a _____ center of ossification it may or may not form:
bony attachment for ligaments and tendons bone secondary an osseous union with the rest of the bone
62
Deviation from normal. A congenital or developmental defect (Ex- spina bifida)
Anomaly
63
3 primary centers of ossification of C3-T12
1 vertebral body 2- vertebral arch
64
5 secondary centers of ossification of C3-T12
1- each endplate (2) 2- Each TVP (2) 1- SP
65
C7 has separate 2ndary centers for the ____ ____. This appears and unites:
costal processes appear 6th fetal month unites 6yoa. they remain separate and C ribs
66
Lumbars are the same 2ndary ossification centers except:
there is one in each mamillary process.
67
Something that mimics a pathology and is usually developmental. Provide an example
Normal variant | ununited secondary center of ossification
68
Bone fragment that develops in a ligament
accessory ossicle
69
Small bone that develops in a tendon
Sesamoid bone
70
absence of a part or component
agenesis, aplasia, aplastic
71
incomplete formation, smaller than normal
hypoplasia, hypoplastic
72
structural enlargement
hyperplasia, hyperplastic
73
failure of adjoining structures to fuse
nonunion, ununited
74
abnormal development of skin, bone or other tissue
dysplasia
75
increase in radiopacity due to an increased laying down of bone
sclerosis
76
Calcification deposition in soft tissue
calcification
77
what are the 2 types of calcification
Dystrophic- pathological Physiological- non-pathological
78
___- fixed, fused, closed, stiff, bent
ankylo-
79
___- with, together, joined
syn-
80
______- joint, articulation
arthro-, articulo-
81
Synostosis
congenital fusion of 2 or more bones
82
Arthrodesis
surgical fusion of 2 or more bones
83
Ankylosis
pathological fusion of 2 or more bones
84
Bone, boney
osseo- ossi osteo- os
85
Osseous:
boney, bone like consistency or structure
86
Chondro-
cartilage
87
calcification of cartilage
chrondrocalcinosis
88
Bone united by hyaline or fibrocartilage
synchondrosis
89
Cause of a specific disease or condition
etiology
90
A disease or condition arising during the course of or as a consequence of another disease
complication
91
diagnosis of a condition whose signs and symptoms are shared by various other conditions
differential diagnosis
92
an indication of a particular disorder, as seen on an x-ray
radiographic sign
93
ABC'S of radiographic interpretation and examples
A- Alignment (relationship between bones.. curves, rotation) B- Bone (cortex, medulla, density, size, shape, number) C- Cartilage (joint spaces, integrity of the joint surfaces) S- Soft tissue (organs, fat pad, vessels, muscles, calcifications, artifacts)