Unit 11 Regulatory Issues and Ethics Flashcards

1
Q

The _____ established the U.S. Treasury Department as the lead agency for developing regulations in connection with anti-money laundering (AML) programs

A

Bank Secrecy Act

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2
Q

The Three Stages of Money Laundering:

A

Placement
Layering
Intergration

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3
Q

the first stage of laundering ____ is when funds or assets are moved
into the laundering system. This stage is recognized as the time when illegal funds are the most susceptible to detection.

A

placement

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4
Q

Layering

A

This is done through a series of layers of transactions that are generally numerous and can vary in form and complexity. Often, the transactions do not make business or investing sense, but they make perfect sense if you are trying to obscure the original source of the funds.

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5
Q

In the final _____ stage, illegal funds are commingled with legitimate funds in what appear to be viable legitimate business concerns. This can be accomplished using front companies operating on a cash basis, import and export companies, and many other types of businesses. At this point, the funds make their way back to the criminals in away that makes the funds appear to be legitimate income.

A

Integration

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6
Q

The _______ is a bureau of the U.S. Treasury Department that collects and analyzes information about financial transactions to combat money laundering, domestic and international terrorist financing, and other financial crimes.

A

Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (FinCEN)

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7
Q

As part of the _____ , FinCEN does not have an enforcement branch. It is best understood as an intelligence agency using the information
available in the financial system to detect illegal activity.

A

Treasury Department (not the Department of Justice)

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8
Q

FinCEN collects information from financial institutions from several reports. The most common reports are the _______ and the _____.

A

currency transaction report (CT) and suspicious activity report (SAR)

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9
Q

The Bank Secrecy Act requires broker-dealers (BDs) to file a _____ if any currency is received in the amount of more than $10,000 on a single day.

A

currency transaction report (CT)

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10
Q

The USA PATRIOT Act requires firms to report and _____ to FinCEN when there is an event, transaction, or series of events or transactions that appears to be questionable.

A

Suspicious Activities Reports (SARS)

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11
Q

The act requires firms to report to FinCEN any transaction that alone or in the aggregate involves at least $5,000 in funds or other assets if the firm suspects that it falls within one of the following four classes:

A

The transaction involves funds derived from illegal activity.
The transaction is designed to evade the requirements of the Bank Secrecy Act. The transaction appears to serve no business or lawful purpose.
he transaction involves the use of the firm to facilitate criminal activity.

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12
Q

Firms must file a SAR within ___ days of becoming aware of the suspicious transaction(s). Copies of each SAR filing and the related documentation must be retained for ______ years from the date of the filing.

A

30 days
5 years

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13
Q

Under the Bank Secrecy Act, firms are required to designate a ______. There is no requirement for this person to be registered as a representative or a principal.

A

chief Anti-Money Laundering Officer officer

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14
Q

The AML officer will establish _____ to detect abuses. There are signs or red flags that might suggest the possibility of money laundering. If a red flag
is detected, it should be reported to the AML officer designated to receive such reports immediately.

A

internal compliance procedures

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15
Q

Money laundering red flags are:

A

a customerexhibiting alack of concern regarding risks, commissions, or other transaction costs;
a customer attempting to make frequent or large deposits of currency or cashier’s checks;
a customer making a large number of wire transfers to unrelated third parties;
a customer engaging in excessive journal entries between unrelated accounts; and
acustomerdesigning currency deposits or withdrawals to fall under the $10,000 CTR filing threshold (structuring).

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16
Q

The ______ requires financial institutions to maintain customer identification programs (CIPs) to prevent financing of terrorist operations and money laundering.

A

USA PATRIOT Act

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17
Q

When individuals or groups appear on the _____ list, their assets are blocked, and U.S. persons and businesses, which include registered representatives (RRs) and BDs, are generally prohibited from dealing with or conducting business with them.

A

Specially Designated Nationals (SDN)

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18
Q

Financial institutions, such as banks and BDs, must keep records of identification information and check customer names against the Specially Designated Nationals (SDN) list maintained by the _____.

A

Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC)

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19
Q

The SDN list is designed to identify persons involved in illegal activities, including terrorism. U.S. persons (U.S. citizens and permanent resident aliens regardless of location) and incorporated entities and their foreign branches (and in some circumstances, their subsidiaries) are

A

prohibited from doing business with anyone on the OFAC SDN list and should check the list to ensure they are not in breach of the law if there is any uncertainty.

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20
Q

Types of market manipulation:

A

Market Rumors
Pump and Dump
Front Running
Churning
Market the open and Marking the Close
Freeriding
Matching Orders

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21
Q

The spreading of false information and _____ by industry personnel is expressly prohibited.

A

market rumors

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22
Q

A form of securities fraud commonly known as _____ is the act of inflating
the price of an owned stock by perpetrating false and misleading positive
rumors in order to sell the stock at a higher price later.

A

pump and dump

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23
Q

_____ is the act of placing orders for one’s own account ahead of other orders that are known to be entering the market in an attempt to gain from the price movement that is likely to occur.

A

Front running

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24
Q

Excessive trading in a customer’s account to generate commissions rather than to help achieve the customer’s stated investment objectives is an abuse of fiduciary responsibility known as ____.

A

churning

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25
Q

Entering orders before the opening for a stock or falsely reporting trades that never occurred to influence the opening price of a stock is called _____.

A

marking the open

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26
Q

effecting trades at or near the close of the trading day or falsely reporting trades that never occurred to influence the closing price of a stock is called
_____.

A

marking the close

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27
Q

______ is a term used when securities are purchased and then sold before payment is made
for the purchase.

A

Freeriding

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28
Q

______ is a manipulation that involves one party selling stock to another with the understanding that the stock will be repurchased later (usually the same day) at virtually the same price. The intent of such transactions is to make it appear that far more activity in a stock (share volume) exists than actually does.

A

Matching orders

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29
Q

The possession of inside information is not illegal. It is the use of such information to make a gain or avoid a loss that constitutes ______.

A

insider trading

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30
Q

______, by definition, is any material nonpublic information-that is,
any information that has not been disseminated to, or is not readily available to, the general public.

A

Inside information

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31
Q

The ______ prohibits insiders from trading on or communicating nonpublic information.

A

Insider Trading Act

32
Q

The Insider Trading Act prohibits both the ____ (the person who relays the information) and the _____ (the person who receives the information) are liable, as is anyone who trades on information that they know or should know is not public or who has control over the misuse of this information.

A

tipper
tippee

33
Q

If the SEC determines that a insider trading has occured, civil penalties of up to three times the profits made or losses avoided may be levied. A controlling person, such as an RR or BD, could be fined _____ or _____ the profit made or loss avoided, whichever is greater.

A

$1 million or three times

34
Q

Insider trading violators Violators may also face criminal penalties of up to $___ million and up to ___ years in jail.

A

5 million
20 years

35
Q

Persons who enter trades at or near the same time (but on the other side of the market) in the same security as a person who has inside information are known as ______ and they may sue persons that have
violated insider trading regulations, and suits may be initiated up to five years after the violation has occurred.

A

Contemporaneous traders

36
Q

_____ is designed to protect the integrity of the public offering process and to protect public investors.

A

Rule 5130

37
Q

Restricted persons those not allowed to purchase shares at the POP- are defined as follows:

A

Member firms (whether or not they are involved in the IPO) Employees of member firms
Finders and fiduciaries acting on behalf of the managing underwriter, including attorneys, accountants, financial consultants, and so on
Portfolio managers, including any person who has the authority to buy or sell securities for a bank, savings and loan association, insurance company, or investment company
Any person owning 10% or more of a member firm

38
Q

restricted persons will be able to have an interest in an account that purchases new equity issues aslong as no more than ____% of the account’s beneficial owners are restricted persons.

A

10%

39
Q

FINRA defines financial exploitation to be:

A

the wrongful or unauthorized taking, withholding, appropriation, or use of funds or securities; or
any act or omission of an act taken by a person to obtain control–through deception, intimidation or undue influence over the specified adult’s money, assets, or property or to convert the specified adult’s money, assets, or property.

40
Q

FINRA, along with other regulators, specifically addresses the financial exploitation of seniors and other individual customers who are:

A

age 65 and older, or
age 18 and older, whom the member reasonably believes has a mental or physical impairment that renders the individual unable to protect her own interests.

41
Q

Essentially, to prevent potential exploitation, the rules regarding the accounts of seniors and other specified adult customers do two things.

A
  • Member firms and associated persons must make reasonable efforts to obtain the name and contact information for a trusted contact person.
  • Member firms wil be permitted to, but not required to, place temporary holds on disbursements from customer accounts when there is a reasonable belief of financial
    exploitation.
42
Q

A reasonable effort to obtain the name and contact information for a trusted contact person must be made when:

A

opening a customer’s account or
updating the account information for an existing account.

43
Q

f the member firm reasonablybelieves that financial exploitation has occurred, si occurring, has been attempted, or will be attempted, it can place a temporary hold on disbursements of funds or securities. If the member firm reasonably believes that financial exploitation has occurred, si occurring, has been attempted, or will be attempted, it can place a temporary hold on disbursements of funds or securities. Note that the rule does not require the member firm to take this action but allows it to do so at its discretion. The hold can be no longer than ___ business days under the rule. A state regulator or agency of jurisdiction, however, can terminate the hold sooner or extend the hold longer.

A

15

44
Q

FINRA expects member firms to detect and investigate red flags that alert the firm to _____ of customer funds.

A

improper use

45
Q

Red flags of improper use are:

A

suspicious activity involving transfers and disbursements incustomer accounts; * activity in the account of a deceased person;
excessive customer complaints; and
exception reports showing discrepancies regarding more than one address, a street address not matching a city or a ZIP code provided, or a telephone area code not matching an address provided.

46
Q

The most common example of improper use of customer assets is ____ or ____ even with consent.

A

borrowing or lending,

47
Q

____a customer’s securities for the purpose of short sales when no loan consent agreement has been signed by the customer is another way in which improper use might occur.

A

Lending

48
Q

The Conduct Rules permit the following five types of lending arrangements.

A
  1. There is an immediate family relationship between the representative and the customer (no notice or approval is needed).
  2. The customer si ni the business of lending money (e.g., a bank) (no approval si needed).
  3. The customer and the representative are both registered persons with the same firm (firm approval required).
  4. The customer and the representative have a personal relationship outside the broker-customer relationship (firm approval required).
    5.The customer and the representative have a business relationship outside the broker-customer relationship (firm approval required).
49
Q

Nonregistered employees of BDs have a limited scope of activities. Some of the activities permitted for a nonregistered employee of a BDare as follows:

A

Responding to general, noninvestment questions (What are your hours of operation? May I leave a message for . ..? Where is the restroom?)
* Providing literature on request, setting appointments, inviting prospects to a seminar, and similar activities

50
Q

______ means any written (including electronic) communication that is distributed or made available only to institutional investors, but it does not include a member’s internal communications (e.g., internal memos).

A

Institutional communication

51
Q

FINRA mandates that no member may treat a communication as an institutional communication if the member firm has reason to believe that the communication or any part ofi t will be forwarded or made available to any retail investor. These communications are treated as ____.

A

retail communication

52
Q

_____ means any written (including electronic) communication that is distributed or made available to more than 25 retail investors within any30-calendar-dayperiod.

A

retail communication

53
Q

A copy of all retail communications must be filed with ____.

A

FINRA

54
Q

_____ means any written (including electronic) communication that is distributed or made available to 25 or fewer retail investors within any 30-calendar-davperiod.

A

Correspondence

55
Q

types of public communications.

A

Institutional communications
* Retail communications
* Correspondence

56
Q

Firms are required to monitor the business-related social media presence of all representatives. Most static content, such as a website or a blog, typically must be approved by a registered principal before use and sometimes may be required to be filed with _____.

A

FINRA

56
Q

IF they are not institutional customers, they are ____.

A

retail customers

57
Q

The ______ administered by the Federal Communications Commission (FCC), was enacted to protect consumers from unwanted telephone solicitations (telemarketing).

A

Telephone Consumer Protection Act of 1991 (TCPA),

58
Q

The basic rules under the T C P A seek to ensure that:

A

anyone making cold calls informs prospects of their name, the company’s name, and the company’s telephone number oraddress;
solicitation occurs only between 8:00 am and 9:00 pm based on the prospect’s time zone; and
no calls are made to numbers on the company or federal do-not-call list.

58
Q

The TCPA requires an organization that does telemarketing (cold-calling in particular) to:

A

maintain a do-not-call list of prospects who do not want to be called, keep a prospect’s name on the list until the prospect requests its removal;
institute a written policy on maintenance procedures for the do-not-call list; train representatives on using the list;
ensure that representatives acknowledge and immediately record the names and telephone numbers of prospects who ask not to be called again;
ensure that telemarketers do not call a prospect from the time of the prospect’s do-not-call request; and
ensure that the company’s do-not-call list is no more than 30 days old.

59
Q

To ensure that the information obtained from each new customer is accurate, firms must furnish to each customer, within ____ days of opening the account, a copy of the account record.

A

30

60
Q

A statement shows:

A

all activity in the account since the previous statement; securities positions, long or short; and
* account balances, debit or credit.

61
Q

Under FINRA rules, members are required to send statements to customers at least _____.

A

quarterly

62
Q

For each transaction, a customer must be sent or given a written confirmation of the trade at or before the completion of the _____.

A

transaction–the settlement date

63
Q

The trade confirmation includes the following information:

A

Trade date.
Account number.
RR internal IDnumber (or AE number).
BOT (bought) or SLD (sold).
Number (or quantity).
Description.- Specific security bought or sold for the customer.
Yield
CUSIP number.
Price.
Amount.
Commission.
Net amount.

64
Q

Firms are required to send_____ in accounts even when the activity is not trade related or is initiated by a third party.

A

confirmations of activity

65
Q

_____ is designed to protect a customer’s nonpublic, personal information.

A

Regulation SP

66
Q

____ was enacted by the SEC to protect the privacy of customer information. In particular, the regulation deals with nonpublic personal information. This type ofinformation would include a customer’s Social Security number, account balances, transaction history, and any information collected through an internet cookie.

A

Regulation SP

67
Q

Regulation SP protects:

A

Confidentiality of Information
Regulation SP Privacy Notifications
SafeguardRequirements

68
Q

FINRA requires member firms to create and maintain a ____ to deal with the possibility of a significant business disruption. The plan must address certain
points having to do with the consequences of the event, including but not limited to the following:
Data backup and recovery (hard copy and electronic) Alternate communications between the firm and its customers
Alternate communications between the firm and its emplovees Alternate physical location of employees

A

business continuity plan (BCP)

69
Q

Seacoast Securities is a new FINRA member firm. tI is preparing a new marketing campaign, including a mass mail advertisement. The advertisement must be
A. filed with FINRA within 01 days of first use
B. filed with the SEC within 10 days of first use
C. filed with FINRA at least 10 days before use
D. approved by FINRA before use

A

C. filed with FINRA at least 10 days before use

70
Q

Solicitations may only occur between

A

8am to 9pm customer’s time zone

71
Q

The Federal Trade Commission maintains the National Do Not Call Registry. Telemarketers are also required to check numbers against this list. Like a company list, the national list being used may not be more than ___ days old.

A

30

72
Q

FINRA Rule 2210 on communications with the public would apply for all of the following except

A) a website.
B) a voicemail left for a customer.
C) a flyer sent to 20 prospects.
D) a text message.

A

B) a voicemail left for a customer.

73
Q

Retail communication must be approved by a principal before use or filing with _____

A

FINRA