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Unit 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

Who is responsible for the safety of their facilities and personnel, including the correction of all hazards and deficiencies in their workplaces?

A

Commanders

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2
Q

Who has the authority to grant exemptions to OSHA standards?

A

Department of Labor

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3
Q

What three factors determine the severity of electric shock?

A

Amount of Current flowing through the body
Time of Exposure
Body’s Physical condition

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4
Q

What amount of current flow (or more) through the body can cause a shock that may result in cardiac arrest?

A

50 milliamperes or more

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5
Q

What are the two primary hazards associated with climbing?

A

Falling

Contact with electrical systems

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6
Q

Name the two types of radiation that you may encounter in your duties as a RAWS radio guide technician.

A

non-ionizing

ionizing

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7
Q

While working on energized equipment, personnel should never wear what items as they may increase the shock risk or be the source of potentially severe burns when energized?

A

watches, rings, dangly things

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8
Q

Unless the nature of the work requires the circuits to remain energized, what should you do before attempting any work?

A

de-energize circuits

lock out tag out

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9
Q

Define the term “high voltage.”

A

Any RMS voltage of 600 volts, nominal, or greater.

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10
Q

How often should EMF emitters be inventoried to identify new emitters and evaluations conducted if operations change or new systems are added to the inventory?

A

Biennially.

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11
Q

How should hazardous EMF exposure areas be marked when English is not the primary language?

A

Signs will be multilingual and compliant with the requirements of the host nation.

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12
Q

What type of liquids are categorized as Class I liquids, Type II, and III liquids?

A

Flammable

Combistible

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13
Q

What should you wear whenever charging, maintaining, removing and/or replacing batteries?

A

Approved protective equipment

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14
Q

Why should you never rely on the color-coding of a compressed gas cylinder?

A

Different manufacturers use different color codes.

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15
Q

Why should pregnant personnel immediately notify their primary care managers and public health?

A

To initiate a workplace evaluation for exposures that may be hazardous to the fetus and determination of work restrictions.

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16
Q

Who designates personnel required to maintain climbing proficiency?

A

Unit Commander

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17
Q

After initial climbing training, when should recurring training be conducted?

A

Annually

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18
Q

When climbing, what three points of contact should you have at all times?

A

one hand and two feet

one foot and two hands

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19
Q

Other than a harness and lanyard, what two PPE items are required by OSHA while climbing?

A

Steel-toed boots

Hard Hat

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20
Q

What must a rescue plan ensure in order to prevent or minimize permanent injury or death?

A

quick execution

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21
Q

In a rescue situation, on what three things should all tower workers be qualified?

A

First Aid
Buddy care
CPR

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22
Q

What are the three types of climbing hazards?

A

Environmental
Live
Structural

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23
Q

At what wind speed are you required to get off the tower?

A

25 MPH

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24
Q

What are two of the biggest effects the sun can have on you when climbing?

Study These Flashcards
A

Sunburns and Dehydration

25
If you see corrosion on a steel tower, how would you treat it?
Wire Brush and spray with rust prevention paint
26
What two things indicate cracks in a tower section is causing stress on the structure?
High Winds | Improper installation
27
Per AFMAN 91–203, how often shall supervisors ensure all PFAS components receive a thorough inspection?
Quarterly
28
By how much can a knot reduce the strength of a lanyard?
50 percent
29
Name the two most commonly used types of rope RAWS technicians will use while climbing?
Kernmantle and Fiber
30
How often should you inspect a kernmantle rope?
after each use
31
When used for climbing, carabiners should be inspected for what three things?
spring loaded gate self-locking carabiner is rated for 5000 lbs
32
The DOD sets policies and publishes them through what means?
publications and directives
33
JPs provide the doctrinal basis for what?
Interagency coordination and for US military involvement in multinational operations.
34
What do ACPs provide?
Standardized communication procedures for allied forces.
35
What are developed, distributed, and used by Air Force personnel to provide official policy and guidance?
Air Force publications and forms
36
Directive publications that provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Air Force policies are called what?
AFIs
37
Which type of Air Force publications assign directive actions, responsibilities, and prescribe procedures but are written at a much lower organizational level such as a squadron or flight level?
OIs
38
Where will an identifying technical publication sheet be posted in a COTS manual and what information does it provide?
A cover page is posted on top of the COTS manual | It provides Air Force related info
39
What are FAA manuals used for?
Regulates air transportation procedures
40
In what system can you view eTOs with or without Internet access?
ETIMS
41
How are TOs systematically grouped together?
Numerically by equipment type and category
42
What are the five major elements of information considered most essential in assigning TO numbers?
- Federal Supply class - Descriptive nomenclature - Functional System - Part number - JETDS nomenclature
43
Using the equipment nomenclature tables, what does TRN–48 stand for?
Transportable Radio Navigational aid | 48 is its unique designator
44
In what type of dedicated TO number would an illustrated parts breakdown be listed?
dash 4
45
Which TOs provide detailed instructions for the modification of military equipment?
TCTO
46
If your work center was ensuring that the grounding system of a facility was installed within Air Force tolerances, what type of TO would you use to find guidance?
SIPTO
47
Which organization is accredited by the ANSI and develops industry standards for a variety of ICT segments?
TIA
48
Which association is responsible for developing standards for IP&E electronic components under the ANSI-designation of EIA standards?
ECIA
49
Defines the functional requirements for the item, the environment in which it must operate, and interface and interchangeability.
MIL–PRF
50
Establishes uniform engineering and technical requirements for military-unique or substantially modified commercial processes, procedures, practices, and methods.
MIL-STD
51
Specifies design requirements, such as materials to be used, how a requirement is to be achieved, or how an item is to be fabricated or constructed.
MIL-DTL
52
Describes the essential technical requirements for purchased material that is military unique or substantially modified commercial items.
MIL-SPEC
53
A guidance document containing standard procedural, technical, engineering, or design information about the material, processes, practices, and methods covered by the Defense Standardization Program.
MIL-HDBK
54
What is the objective of the Air Force physical security program?
Security of resources based on value and importance
55
What PL designation would the president’s plane, Air Force One, be considered?
PL1
56
What PL designation would be given to a facility that holds ammunition and explosives?
PL4
57
What are the two basic criteria you must meet in order to enter a controlled area?
Qualification | Authorization
58
Name the three types of secured areas.
Controlled Restricted Limited Access
59
When entering a secured area, personnel not identified by name on the access control list, who have the proper security clearance and valid need to know, must do what two things?
Must be signed in/out of secure area on AF Form 1109 | Must be escorted

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