Unit 2

Question 1

cholinomimetic that is selective for nicotonic receptors because of extra methyl group used to treat ileus and urinary retention

Answer 1

bethanechol

Question 2

cholinergic side effects

Answer 2

Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Defecation
GI distress
Emesis

Question 3

contraindications to cholinomimetics

Answer 3

hyperthyroidism, bradycardia, asthma, peptic ulcer

Question 4

AchE Inhibitor used in ileus and reversal of neuromuscular blockade w/ SE of skel muscle paralysis if over stimulated

Answer 4

neostigmine

Question 5

AchE Inhibitor used in glaucoma

Answer 5

physostigmine

Question 6

v. short acting AchE inhibitor used in differentiating myasthenia gravis from Ach crisis

Answer 6

edrophnium

Question 7

Blocks muscarinic receptors (blocks parasymp innervation at target organs)

Answer 7

atropine

Question 8

atropine SEs

Answer 8

cardiac slowing, dry mouth, no sweating, inc HR, palpitations, blurred vision and hyperthermia in kids… “dry as a bone, blind as a bat, red as a beet, mad as a hatter”

Question 9

antimuscarinic used for motion sickness

Answer 9

scopolamine

Question 10

antimuscarinic that blocks vagal pathway mediating reflex bronchoconstriction used in asthma or COPD

Answer 10

iptratropium

Question 11

depolarizing blocker that overstimulates nicotonic receptor, leading to desensitization of muscle unit to further Ach stim (used for brief procedures)

Answer 11

succinylcholine

Question 12

Blocks vesicle fusion and Ach release on presynaptic terminal by degrading SNAP-25

Answer 12

botox

Question 13

a1, a2, B1 –> big inc BP

Answer 13

norepi

Question 14

a1, (a2), B1, B2 –> inc BP

Answer 14

epi

Question 15

inc NE release

Answer 15

amphetamine

Question 16

a1

Answer 16

vascular constriction

Question 17

a2

Answer 17

inhibit NE release

Question 18

B1

Answer 18

inc HR & contractility, renin secretion

Question 19

B2

Answer 19

dilate arteries, bronchial relax

Question 20

D1

Answer 20

dilate renal, mesenteric and cerebral arteries

Question 21

B2 selective reverses exercise-induced bronchospasm/ asthma

Answer 21

terbutaline

Question 22

a1 agonist causes reflex bradycardia on rapid withdrawal (used for nasal congestion)

Answer 22

phenylephrine

Question 23

D1, a1, B1 agonist used in shock

Answer 23

dopamine

Question 24

non-competitive blocker of a1 & a2 used for raynauds

Answer 24

phenoxybenzamine

Question 25

a1 selective antagonist causes vasodilation used in raynauds vasospasm

Answer 25

prazosin

Question 26

B1, B2 antagonist used for migraines, angina, HTN and arrhythmias (not for CHF)

Answer 26

propanolol

Question 27

B1 selective antagonist safe in asthmatics (for CHF, angina, arrhythmias, HTN)

Answer 27

atenolol

Question 28

B1, B2 antagonist with some a1 antagonism (for CHF)

Answer 28

carvedilol

Question 29

prevents NE reuptake

Answer 29

cocaine

Question 30

inhibits tyrosine hydroxylase (decreases NE synth)

Answer 30

a-me-tyrosine

Question 31

non-selective NSAID eliminates pain and reduces inflam but doesn't slow disease progression (for gout and RA)

Answer 31

indomethacin

Question 32

RA drug blocks binding of TNF to TNF receptors

Answer 32

etanercept & infliximab

Question 33

RA drug IL-1 receptor antagonist

Answer 33

anakinra

Question 34

for acute gouty arthritis: prevents tubulin polymerization and inhibits leukocyte migration

Answer 34

colchicine

Question 35

for chronic gout: inhibits urate reabsoprtion

Answer 35

probenecid

Question 36

for chronic gout: reduces uric acid synth by inhibiting xanthine oxidase

Answer 36

allopurinol

Question 37

for malaria: accum in parasite's food vacuole and disrupts heme polymerization

Answer 37

quinine

Question 38

prophylaxis of malaria but has many resistance strains in africa EXCEPT p. falciparum

Answer 38

chloroquine

Question 39

prevents malria relapses by forming quinolone-quinone intermediates that oxidize schizont membranes... causes anemia in G6PD deficiency pts

Answer 39

primaquine

Question 40

for malaria: inhibits ETC in parasites (combo)

Answer 40

atovaquone and proguanil

Question 41

H1 antagonist SEs (ie diphenhydramine)

Answer 41

sedation, convulsions, local anesthesia, anti-muscarinic effects... not effective against colds and bronchial asthma

Question 42

H1 antagonist used as antiemetic with sedating SEs

Answer 42

promethazine

Question 43

H1 antagonist used for allergic rhinitis w.o sedation

Answer 43

loratadine

Question 44

H2 antagonist that has SE of inhibiting P450 enzymes so it potentiates other drugs

Answer 44

cimetidine

Question 45

H2 antagonist with liver toxicity

Answer 45

ranitidine

Question 46

H2 antagonist used for duodenal and gastric ulcers with low SE profile

Answer 46

nizatidine

Question 47

antihistamine used for urticaria and diarrhea of carcinoid syndrome

Answer 47

cyproheptadine

Question 48

used for prodrome of migraines

Answer 48

ergotamine

Question 49

migraine treatment

Answer 49

triptans

Question 50

irreversibly acetylates COX1 &2; antiplatelet with SE of GI irritation and bleeding. No effect on visceral pain (only blocks eicosinoids)

Answer 50

aspirin

Question 51

injectable NSAID used for post-op pain

Answer 51

ketorolac

Question 52

selective to Cox-2 so less GI toxicity than traditional NSAIDs

Answer 52

celecoxib

Question 53

given before warfarin to prevent thrombosis (since warfarin depresses protein C at first too)

Answer 53

heparin

Question 54

used for recurrent DVT, monitored by PT/INR; reversed by vitK or fresh frozen plasma

Answer 54

warfarin

Question 55

for acute venous thromboembolism

Answer 55

LMWH & tPA

Question 56

inhibits platelet ADP receptors

Answer 56

clopidogrel

Question 57

in derm, used for psoriasis but causes atrophy of skin

Answer 57

hydrocortisone

Question 58

inhibits DHFR, causes hepatotoxicity

Answer 58

MTX

Question 59

immunosuppresses T cells used in inflam skin conditions

Answer 59

PUVA

Question 60

acne tx not suitable in pregnancy

Answer 60

isotretinoin