Unit 3 Flashcards
1
Q
slow fibers
A
rely on aerobic metabolism
2
Q
the ability of smooth muscle to generate tension over a wide range of resting lengths is called
A
plasticity
3
Q
the type of muscle fiber that is most resistant to fatigue is the (BLANK) fiber
A
slow
4
Q
fast fibers
A
have low resistance to fatigue and quick twitches
5
Q
muscles that move the eyeball have (BLANK) fibers
A
fast
6
Q
which of the following statements is/are false regarding human muscles?
- most have both slow and fast fibers
- slow fibers are abundant in the muscles of the hand
- eye muscles are composed entirely of fast fibers
- slow fibers are abundant in the back muscles
- all of the answers are correct
A
slow fibers are abundant in the muscles of the hand
7
Q
large-diameter, densely packed myofibrils, large glycogen reserves, and few mitochondria are characteristics of
A
fast fibers
8
Q
which of the following types of muscle fibers are best adapted for prolonged contraction such as standing all day?
A
slow fibers
9
Q
the ability of smooth muscle to function over a wide range of lengths is called
A
plasticity
10
Q
which of the following is not characteristic of smooth muscle?
- the striations are due to the orderly arrangement of actin and myosin
- neurons that innervate smooth muscles are under involuntary control
- smooth muscles do not contain sarcomeres
- the thin filaments of smooth muscle fibers are attached to dense bodies
A
the striations are due to the orderly arrangement of actin and myosin
11
Q
which of the following is not a function of smooth muscle tissue
- altering the diameter of the respiratory passageways
- elevating hairs on the arm
- forcing blood from the heart into the major arteries
- moving food materials along the digestive tract
- forcing urine out of the urinary tract
A
forcing blood from the heart into the major arteries
12
Q
which of the following is true about the difference between cardiac muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells?
- cardiac muscle cells does not have striations
- cardiac muscle cells does not have t tubules
- cardiac muscle cells does not have sarcomeres
- cardiac muscle cells have intercalated discs where skeletal muscle cells do not
- cardiac muscle cells have more nuclei in them than skeletal muscle cells
A
cardiac muscle cells have intercalated discs where skeletal muscle cells do not
13
Q
which skeletal muscle fiber type- slow or fast- contains more mitochondria?
A
slow
14
Q
true or false: intermediate fibers can be changed into fast through exercise
A
false- fast more like intermediate
15
Q
true or false: all smooth muscle cells have direct contact with at least one motor neuron
A
false
16
Q
Ca++ source for skeletal muscle
A
release from SR
17
Q
Ca++ source for cardiac muscle
A
extracellular fluid and release from SR
18
Q
Ca++ source for smooth muscle
A
extracellular fluid and release from SR
19
Q
filament organization for skeletal muscle
A
sarcomeres
20
Q
filament organization for cardiac muscle
A
sarcomeres
21
Q
filament organization for smooth muscle
A
scattered
22
Q
energy source for skeletal muscle
A
aerobic or anaerobic
23
Q
energy source for cardiac muscle
A
aerobic
24
Q
energy source for smooth muscle
A
aerobic
25
megan wants to enter a weight lifting competition and consults you as to what type of muscle fibers she needs to develop and how she should go about it. What would you suggest to her?
she needs fast fibers. to develop these she should do short, intense workouts that involve heavy weights that stretch her fatigue levels
26
small, membrane bound cell fragments that contain enzymes and other substances important for clotting
platelets
27
platelets
release a variety of chemicals that promote aggregation, a vascular spasm, clotting, and vessel repair
28
an individual who is type B+ has which of the following antibodies in their plasma?
anti A
29
a hematocrit provides info on
sedimentation rate
30
white blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are
basophils
31
Which of the following is not true of monocytes?
- release histamine
- enter tissues and wander
- become macrophages
- can phagocytize bacteria
release histamine
32
the production of erythropoietin is stimulated when
blood flow to the kidney declines
33
the waste product bilirubin is produced from
heme molecules lacking iron
34
a substance that activates plasminogen might be useful to
cause clots to dissolve more quickly
35
the percent fraction of formed elements relative to whole blood is the
hematocrit
36
the most abundant component of plasma is
proteins
37
the chief difference between plasma and interstitial fluid involves the concentration of
proteins
38
which of the following is not one of the formed elements of blood?
basophils
39
which organ secretes most of the plasma proteins?
liver
40
the most abundant proteins in blood plasma are
albumins
41
all of the following are functions of blood except
- regulating pH
- transporting gases and hormones
- generating action potentials
- defending against pathogens
- regulating ion concentration
generating action potentials
42
you have spent 24 hours traveling from the US to New Zealand, on quite a few airplanes with many stops. because of the stress, changes in time zones, and short blocks of time between planes, you find yourself tired with a headache when you arrive. You are severely dehydrated. a hematocrit value of you r blood would be (BLANK) than normal because (BLANK)
higher; you have less blood plasma volume
43
all the circulating red blood cells in an adult originate in the
red bone marrow
44
red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone
erythropoietin
45
the level of erythropoietin in the blood would rise due to all of the following except
periods of fasting
46
each heme ring in hemoglobin encloses an atom of
iron
47
pernicious anemia caused by a lack of intrinsic factor is specifically treated by
injections of vitamin B12
48
which of the following would you expect to see in increased numbers in a peripheral blood sample after donating a unit of blood?
reticulocytes
49
a bruise appears as a greenish spot in the skin because
the heme group in the hemoglobin has broken down into biliverdin
50
most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is
recycled to the red bone marrow
51
in adults, erythropoiesis exclusively takes place in
red bone marrow
52
the developmental stage at which erythrocytes enter the circulation is as
reticulocytes
53
erythropoiesis is stimulated when
blood flow to the kidney declines
54
each hemoglobin molecule contains
four iron atoms
55
erythropoietin is a hormone
released by the kidneys to stimulate red blood cell production
56
type AB blood has which of the following characteristics?
RBCs have both the A and B surface antigens and no ABO plasma antibodies
57
type A blood has (BLANK) antibodies in the blood plasma
anti B
58
You have type B positive blood. What are all the types of packed RBCs you can receive?
B positive, B negative, O positive, O negative
59
in an emergency situation when you have no time to wait for cross matched blood you could give a patient type (BLANK) the cross match is available
O negative
60
All of the following are true of neutrophils except that they are
important in coagulation
61
white blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are
basophils
62
white blood cells that are increased in allergic individuals are the
eosinophils
63
which of the following is not true of monocytes?
- about same size as basophils
- are long lived
- enter tissues and wander
- can phagocytize bacteria
- become macrophages
about same size as basophils
64
Which feature of WBCs makes them particularly important in tissue injury?
they can squeeze out through blood vessel walls into tissues
65
The function of platelets is to assist in the
process of hemostasis
66
(BLANK) involves a cascade of reactions leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
coagulation
67
most of the protein factors that are required for clotting are synthesized by
liver
68
the extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by the
release tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium
69
the common pathway of coagulation begins with the
activation of factor X and production of prothrombin activator
70
the process of fibrinolysis
dissolves clots
71
the enzyme that can digest fibrin and dissolve a clot is
plasmin
72
tissue factor (factor III) is a factor in the (BLANK) pathway
extrinsic
73
a substance that activates plasminogen might be useful to
cause clot dissolution to proceed faster
74
people who suffer from hemophilia A fail to produce a functional factor VIII; as a result
they lack a functional intrinsic pathway
75
the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is catalyzed by the enzyme
thrombin
76
the phase of hemostasis that involved clotting of blood is called
coagulation
77
a fibrin network that contains trapped blood cells and platelets is called a
blood clot
78
the first step of hemostasis is
vascular spasm
79
true or false: the shape of a red blood cell means that it has a low surface area to volume ratio
false
80
true or false: activated mast cells release histamine, which increases blood vessel permeability
true
81
most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is excreted by the kidneys
false
82
titanic muscle contractions don't occur in normal cardiac muscle because
the refractory period lasts until the muscle relaxes
83
cardiac muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells differ in a few ways. which of the following is not one of them?
- cardiac muscle cells are smaller in size
- cardiac muscle cells have a single, centered nucleus
- cardiac muscle cells branch
- skeletal muscle cells lack intercalated discs
- cardiac muscle cells lack transverse tubules
cardiac muscle cells lack transverse tubules
84
in cardiac muscle, the fast depolarization phase of the action potential is the result of
increased membrane permeability to sodium ions
85
the long plateau phase of the cardia muscle action potential is due to
calcium channels remaining open
86
the normal pacemaker of the heart is located in
the sinoatrial node
87
if the pacemaker cells in the SA node become more permeable to potassium ions, the
heart rate will decrease and cells will hyper polarize
88
if the connection between the SA node and the AV node becomes blocked,
the ventricles will beat more slowly
89
the P wave of the electrocardiogram is a signal from
depolarization of the atria
90
depolarization of the ventricles is represented on an electrocardiogram by the
QRS complex
91
the T wave on an ECG tracing represents
ventricular repolarization
92
which of the following statements is true regarding cardiac muscle?
there are specialized gap junctions in cardiac muscle not found in skeletal or smooth muscles
93
the property of heart muscle to contract in the absence of neural or hormonal stimulation is called
automaticity
94
considering the left ventricle, why does isovolumetric contraction occur during ventricular systole?
aortic pressure is higher than ventricular pressure and the ventricle must pressurize the blood to open the aortic valve
95
the contraction phase of the cardiac cycle is called
systole
96
the relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle is called
diastole
97
the (BLANK) is the amount of blood in a ventricle after it has contracted and before it begins to refill
end systolic volume
98
an increase in the rate of action potentials from baroreceptors will trigger a reflex to
both decrease heart rate and decrease pressure
99
the volume of blood ejected from each ventricle during a contraction is called the
stroke volume
100
each of the following factors will increase cardiac output except increased
- venous return
- parasympathetic stimulation
- heart rate
- force of contraction
- sympathetic stimulation
parasympathetic stimulation
101
which of the following would not increase heart rate?
- increased sympathetic stimulation of SA node
- decreased parasympathetic stimulation of nodal fibers
- increased levels of epinephrine
- faster depolarization of the pacemaker potential
- beta blocking drugs
increased sympathetic stimulation of SA node
102
stroke volume depends on all of the following except
- end diastolic volume
- contractility of ventricle
- pressure required to pump blood into aorta
- venous return of blood to heart
- respiratory rate
respiratory rate
103
cardiac output can be increased by all of the following except
- decreasing ejection fraction
- increasing ejection fraction
- decreasing end systolic volume
- increasing heart rate
- increasing stroke volume
decreasing ejection fraction
104
if the force of ventricular contraction increases, what will happen to the end systolic volume?
decrease
105
the (BLANK) is the difference between the resting and maximal cardiac output
cardiac reserve
106
amount of blood returning to the heart is
venous return
107
each of the following changes will result in increased blood flow to a tissue, except
- decreased peripheral resistance
- increased vessel diameter
- increased hematocrit
- increased blood pressure
- relaxation of precapillary sphincters
increased hematocrit
108
blood moves forward through veins because of all of the following except
- the pressure in the veins is lower than in the arteries
- pumping by the smooth muscle in the wall of the vein
- the respiratory pump
- valves in the veins preventing the backward flow of blood
- muscular compression
pumping by the smooth muscle in the wall of the vein
109
which part of the vascular system functions as a blood reservoir and contains 60% of the body's blood?
veins
110
the main control of peripheral resistance occurs in the
arterioles
111
the increase in effective blood volume that results from venoconstriction is the
venous reserve
112
resistance is a force that
decreases blood flow
113
total peripheral resistance is related to all of the following except the
- length of the blood vessel
- blood viscocity
- osmolarity of interstitial fluids
- blood vessel diameter
- turbulence
osmolarity of interstitial fluids
114
as blood travels from arteries to veins
pressure drops
115
blood flow to a tissue will increase if the
arterioles dilate
116
blood pressure increases with all of the following except increased
- cardiac output
- parasympathetic innervation
- peripheral resistance
- force of cardiac contraction
- blood volume
parasympathetic innervation
117
which of the following factors will increase the net filtration pressure to move fluid out of capillaries?
-both decreased plasma albumin and increased blood hydrostatic pressure
118
each of the following factors would increase peripheral resistance except
- vasodilation
- increased sympathetic stimulation
- elevated hematocrit
- elevated levels of epinephrine
- irregularities in the vessel walls caused by plaques
vasodilation
119
the blood colloid osmotic pressure mostly depends on the
concentration of plasma proteins
120
which of the following statements is false concerning the movement of fluid between capillaries and interstitial space?
- blood hydrostatic pressure forces fluid from capillary to the interstitial space
- blood osmotic pressure moves fluid from interstitial space to the capillary
- the osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid is less than the blood osmotic pressure
- the hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid is largely unimportant in determining fluid movement
- the net filtration pressure is usually zero
the net filtration pressure is usually zero
121
each of the following changes will result in increased blood flow to a tissue except
- increased hematocrit
- decreased peripheral resistance
- increased vessel diameter
- relaxation of precapillary sphincters
- increased blood pressure
increased hematocrit
122
in comparison to a vessel with a large diameter, a vessel with a small diameter has
a greater resistance to blood flow
123
the force that moves fluid out of capillaries is (BLANK) pressure whereas the opposing force that moves fluid into capillaries is (BLANK) pressure
hydrostatic; colloid osmotic
124
some of the fluid that is forced out of the capillaries is returned to the blood by the
lymphatic system
125
blood colloid osmotic pressure is produced by
large non diffusible proteins in the blood plasma
126
blood colloid osmotic pressure (BCOP) decreases in starving children because
starvation prevents the liver from producing enough protein to maintain BCOP
127
which of the following opposes the flow of blood back to the heart?
- vascular resistance
- peripheral veins have valves to prevent back flow of blood
- muscular pumps squeeze veins and move blood toward the heart
- blood pressure
- blood pressure gradient from arteries to veins
vascular resistance
128
Edema may occur when
the plasma concentration of protein is reduced, capillary hydrostatic pressure is elevated, and the capillary endothelium permeability goes up
129
each of the following will lead to a decrease in blood pressure except
- release of renin
- decreased peripheral resistance
- decreased levels of aldosterone
- decrease in blood volume
- increased levels of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide)
release of renin
130
each of the following will cause an increase in blood pressure except
- increased levels of aldosterone
- increased blood volume
- increased levels of ADH
- increased levels of angiotensin II
increased levels of ANP
131
elevated levels of the natriuretic peptide hormones ANP and BNP will produce increased
salt and water loss through kidneys
132
increased levels of carbon dioxide in the blood will result in decreased
parasympathetic stimulation of the heart
133
Vickie has a tumor that secretes excess amount of the hormone aldosterone. Because of the elevated level of hormone, she exhibits
both an increase in blood pressure and an increase in stored sodium ions
134
the regulation of blood flow by local mechanisms within a capillary bed is called
auto regulation
135
in response to hemorrhage, there is
mobilization of the venous reserve
136
hemostatic mechanisms in response to blood loss include all the following except
- uptake of interstitial fluid due to reduced capillary pressure
- inhibition of EPO secretion
- activation of ADH secretion
- activation of aldosterone secretion
- increased thirst and water intake
inhibition of EPO secretion
137
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of smooth muscle?
Striations are due to the orderly arrangement of actin and myosin
Neurons that innervate smooth muscles are under involuntary control
Smooth muscles do not contain sarcomeres
The thin filaments of smooth muscle fibers are attached to dense bodies
Striations are due to the orderly arrangement of actin and myosin
138
Which skeletal muscle fiber type contains more mitochondria?
slow
139
True or false, Intermediate fibers can be changed into fast fibers through exercise
False, fast can become more like intermediate
140
True or false, All smooth muscle cells have direct contact with at least one motor neuron
false
141
An individual who is Type B+ has which of the following antibodies in their plasma?
Anti A
142
Which of the following is not true of monocytes?
Release histamine
143
The production of erythropoietin is stimulated when
Blood flow to the kidney declines
144
Erythropoietin is a hormone
Released by the kidneys to stimulate red blood cell production
145
Type A blood has (BLANK) antibodies in the blood plasma
Anti B
146
You have type B positive blood. What are all the types of packed RBCs you can receive?
B positive, negative, O positive, negative
147
TRUE OR FALSE
| The shape of red blood cell means that it has low surface area to volume ratio
false
148
true or false
| Activated mast cells release histamine, which increases
true
149
True or false
| Most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is excreted by the kidneys
False
150
Which of the following combinations may result in the hemolytic disease of the newborn
Mother RH negative, baby RH positive
151
• Which of the following is true regarding red blood cells?
◦ They are anucleate.
152
persons blood type is determined by the
◦ Presence of specific glycoproteins on the cell membrane
153
Which of the following statements about red blood cell formation is true?
most of the hemoglobin is synthesized during the reticulocyte
154
Which of the following does not occur during the platelet phase?
Blood clot is formed
155
Which white blood cell is most effect against parasitic infections?
Eosinophils
156
Eosinophils function in
Destroying antibody labeled antigens
157
Anti-Rh antibodies are present in the blood of
Rh negative individuals who have been exposed to the Rh surface antigen
158
Collectively, the conducting cells that carry the impulse from the SA node to the AV node is known as the
Internodal pathway
159
The AV node delay is beneficial because
It allows time for the atria to contract
160
During ventricular systole, the
AV valves are closed
161
With each ventricular systole,
Blood pressure increases
162
The (BLANK) is the volume of blood in a ventricle at the beginning of systole
End diastole volume
163
During the beginning of ventricular systole when the muscle is contracting but not enough pressure has built up to open semilunar valves the heart is said to be in
Isovolumetric contraction
164
Which factor directly influences preload?
Venous return
165
Which ion’s entry causes rapid depolarization?
Sodium
166
Which ion’s entry causes the plateau?
Calcium
167
Which ion’s exit causes repolarization?
potassium
168
During hemorrhaging, the drop in capillary hydrostatic pressure will (BLANK) NFP, thus (BLANK) reabsorption
Decrease; increasing
169
Which is not an effect of angiotensin II to increase blood pressure?
Increasing production of aldosterone
Increasing secretion of ADH
Vasoconstriction increasing total peripheral resistance
Increasing thirst
Increasing atrial natriuretic peptide
Increasing atrial natriuretic peptide
170
To defend blood volume against dehydration, the body
Releases antidiruretic hormone (ADH)
171
Which of these is not a short term response to a decrease in blood pressure?
Release of EPO
172
What hormones are released as a short term response to a decrease in blood pressure and blood volume?
Aldosterone
173
hormone short response
epinephrine and norepinephrine
174
what hormones are released as a short term response to a decrease in blood pressure and blood volume?
epinephrine and norepinephrine
