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Flashcards in Unit 3 Deck (174):
1

slow fibers

rely on aerobic metabolism

2

the ability of smooth muscle to generate tension over a wide range of resting lengths is called

plasticity

3

the type of muscle fiber that is most resistant to fatigue is the (BLANK) fiber

slow

4

fast fibers

have low resistance to fatigue and quick twitches

5

muscles that move the eyeball have (BLANK) fibers

fast

6

which of the following statements is/are false regarding human muscles?
-most have both slow and fast fibers
-slow fibers are abundant in the muscles of the hand
-eye muscles are composed entirely of fast fibers
-slow fibers are abundant in the back muscles
-all of the answers are correct

slow fibers are abundant in the muscles of the hand

7

large-diameter, densely packed myofibrils, large glycogen reserves, and few mitochondria are characteristics of

fast fibers

8

which of the following types of muscle fibers are best adapted for prolonged contraction such as standing all day?

slow fibers

9

the ability of smooth muscle to function over a wide range of lengths is called

plasticity

10

which of the following is not characteristic of smooth muscle?
-the striations are due to the orderly arrangement of actin and myosin
-neurons that innervate smooth muscles are under involuntary control
-smooth muscles do not contain sarcomeres
-the thin filaments of smooth muscle fibers are attached to dense bodies

the striations are due to the orderly arrangement of actin and myosin

11

which of the following is not a function of smooth muscle tissue
-altering the diameter of the respiratory passageways
-elevating hairs on the arm
-forcing blood from the heart into the major arteries
-moving food materials along the digestive tract
-forcing urine out of the urinary tract

forcing blood from the heart into the major arteries

12

which of the following is true about the difference between cardiac muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells?
-cardiac muscle cells does not have striations
-cardiac muscle cells does not have t tubules
-cardiac muscle cells does not have sarcomeres
-cardiac muscle cells have intercalated discs where skeletal muscle cells do not
-cardiac muscle cells have more nuclei in them than skeletal muscle cells

cardiac muscle cells have intercalated discs where skeletal muscle cells do not

13

which skeletal muscle fiber type- slow or fast- contains more mitochondria?

slow

14

true or false: intermediate fibers can be changed into fast through exercise

false- fast more like intermediate

15

true or false: all smooth muscle cells have direct contact with at least one motor neuron

false

16

Ca++ source for skeletal muscle

release from SR

17

Ca++ source for cardiac muscle

extracellular fluid and release from SR

18

Ca++ source for smooth muscle

extracellular fluid and release from SR

19

filament organization for skeletal muscle

sarcomeres

20

filament organization for cardiac muscle

sarcomeres

21

filament organization for smooth muscle

scattered

22

energy source for skeletal muscle

aerobic or anaerobic

23

energy source for cardiac muscle

aerobic

24

energy source for smooth muscle

aerobic

25

megan wants to enter a weight lifting competition and consults you as to what type of muscle fibers she needs to develop and how she should go about it. What would you suggest to her?

she needs fast fibers. to develop these she should do short, intense workouts that involve heavy weights that stretch her fatigue levels

26

small, membrane bound cell fragments that contain enzymes and other substances important for clotting

platelets

27

platelets

release a variety of chemicals that promote aggregation, a vascular spasm, clotting, and vessel repair

28

an individual who is type B+ has which of the following antibodies in their plasma?

anti A

29

a hematocrit provides info on

sedimentation rate

30

white blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are

basophils

31

Which of the following is not true of monocytes?
-release histamine
-enter tissues and wander
-become macrophages
-can phagocytize bacteria

release histamine

32

the production of erythropoietin is stimulated when

blood flow to the kidney declines

33

the waste product bilirubin is produced from

heme molecules lacking iron

34

a substance that activates plasminogen might be useful to

cause clots to dissolve more quickly

35

the percent fraction of formed elements relative to whole blood is the

hematocrit

36

the most abundant component of plasma is

proteins

37

the chief difference between plasma and interstitial fluid involves the concentration of

proteins

38

which of the following is not one of the formed elements of blood?

basophils

39

which organ secretes most of the plasma proteins?

liver

40

the most abundant proteins in blood plasma are

albumins

41

all of the following are functions of blood except
-regulating pH
-transporting gases and hormones
-generating action potentials
-defending against pathogens
-regulating ion concentration

generating action potentials

42

you have spent 24 hours traveling from the US to New Zealand, on quite a few airplanes with many stops. because of the stress, changes in time zones, and short blocks of time between planes, you find yourself tired with a headache when you arrive. You are severely dehydrated. a hematocrit value of you r blood would be (BLANK) than normal because (BLANK)

higher; you have less blood plasma volume

43

all the circulating red blood cells in an adult originate in the

red bone marrow

44

red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone

erythropoietin

45

the level of erythropoietin in the blood would rise due to all of the following except

periods of fasting

46

each heme ring in hemoglobin encloses an atom of

iron

47

pernicious anemia caused by a lack of intrinsic factor is specifically treated by

injections of vitamin B12

48

which of the following would you expect to see in increased numbers in a peripheral blood sample after donating a unit of blood?

reticulocytes

49

a bruise appears as a greenish spot in the skin because

the heme group in the hemoglobin has broken down into biliverdin

50

most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is

recycled to the red bone marrow

51

in adults, erythropoiesis exclusively takes place in

red bone marrow

52

the developmental stage at which erythrocytes enter the circulation is as

reticulocytes

53

erythropoiesis is stimulated when

blood flow to the kidney declines

54

each hemoglobin molecule contains

four iron atoms

55

erythropoietin is a hormone

released by the kidneys to stimulate red blood cell production

56

type AB blood has which of the following characteristics?

RBCs have both the A and B surface antigens and no ABO plasma antibodies

57

type A blood has (BLANK) antibodies in the blood plasma

anti B

58

You have type B positive blood. What are all the types of packed RBCs you can receive?

B positive, B negative, O positive, O negative

59

in an emergency situation when you have no time to wait for cross matched blood you could give a patient type (BLANK) the cross match is available

O negative

60

All of the following are true of neutrophils except that they are

important in coagulation

61

white blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are

basophils

62

white blood cells that are increased in allergic individuals are the

eosinophils

63

which of the following is not true of monocytes?
-about same size as basophils
-are long lived
-enter tissues and wander
-can phagocytize bacteria
-become macrophages

about same size as basophils

64

Which feature of WBCs makes them particularly important in tissue injury?

they can squeeze out through blood vessel walls into tissues

65

The function of platelets is to assist in the

process of hemostasis

66

(BLANK) involves a cascade of reactions leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

coagulation

67

most of the protein factors that are required for clotting are synthesized by

liver

68

the extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by the

release tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium

69

the common pathway of coagulation begins with the

activation of factor X and production of prothrombin activator

70

the process of fibrinolysis

dissolves clots

71

the enzyme that can digest fibrin and dissolve a clot is

plasmin

72

tissue factor (factor III) is a factor in the (BLANK) pathway

extrinsic

73

a substance that activates plasminogen might be useful to

cause clot dissolution to proceed faster

74

people who suffer from hemophilia A fail to produce a functional factor VIII; as a result

they lack a functional intrinsic pathway

75

the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is catalyzed by the enzyme

thrombin

76

the phase of hemostasis that involved clotting of blood is called

coagulation

77

a fibrin network that contains trapped blood cells and platelets is called a

blood clot

78

the first step of hemostasis is

vascular spasm

79

true or false: the shape of a red blood cell means that it has a low surface area to volume ratio

false

80

true or false: activated mast cells release histamine, which increases blood vessel permeability

true

81

most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is excreted by the kidneys

false

82

titanic muscle contractions don't occur in normal cardiac muscle because

the refractory period lasts until the muscle relaxes

83

cardiac muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells differ in a few ways. which of the following is not one of them?
-cardiac muscle cells are smaller in size
-cardiac muscle cells have a single, centered nucleus
-cardiac muscle cells branch
-skeletal muscle cells lack intercalated discs
-cardiac muscle cells lack transverse tubules

cardiac muscle cells lack transverse tubules

84

in cardiac muscle, the fast depolarization phase of the action potential is the result of

increased membrane permeability to sodium ions

85

the long plateau phase of the cardia muscle action potential is due to

calcium channels remaining open

86

the normal pacemaker of the heart is located in

the sinoatrial node

87

if the pacemaker cells in the SA node become more permeable to potassium ions, the

heart rate will decrease and cells will hyper polarize

88

if the connection between the SA node and the AV node becomes blocked,

the ventricles will beat more slowly

89

the P wave of the electrocardiogram is a signal from

depolarization of the atria

90

depolarization of the ventricles is represented on an electrocardiogram by the

QRS complex

91

the T wave on an ECG tracing represents

ventricular repolarization

92

which of the following statements is true regarding cardiac muscle?

there are specialized gap junctions in cardiac muscle not found in skeletal or smooth muscles

93

the property of heart muscle to contract in the absence of neural or hormonal stimulation is called

automaticity

94

considering the left ventricle, why does isovolumetric contraction occur during ventricular systole?

aortic pressure is higher than ventricular pressure and the ventricle must pressurize the blood to open the aortic valve

95

the contraction phase of the cardiac cycle is called

systole

96

the relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle is called

diastole

97

the (BLANK) is the amount of blood in a ventricle after it has contracted and before it begins to refill

end systolic volume

98

an increase in the rate of action potentials from baroreceptors will trigger a reflex to

both decrease heart rate and decrease pressure

99

the volume of blood ejected from each ventricle during a contraction is called the

stroke volume

100

each of the following factors will increase cardiac output except increased
-venous return
-parasympathetic stimulation
-heart rate
-force of contraction
-sympathetic stimulation

parasympathetic stimulation

101

which of the following would not increase heart rate?
-increased sympathetic stimulation of SA node
-decreased parasympathetic stimulation of nodal fibers
-increased levels of epinephrine
-faster depolarization of the pacemaker potential
-beta blocking drugs

increased sympathetic stimulation of SA node

102

stroke volume depends on all of the following except
-end diastolic volume
-contractility of ventricle
-pressure required to pump blood into aorta
-venous return of blood to heart
-respiratory rate

respiratory rate

103

cardiac output can be increased by all of the following except
-decreasing ejection fraction
-increasing ejection fraction
-decreasing end systolic volume
-increasing heart rate
-increasing stroke volume

decreasing ejection fraction

104

if the force of ventricular contraction increases, what will happen to the end systolic volume?

decrease

105

the (BLANK) is the difference between the resting and maximal cardiac output

cardiac reserve

106

amount of blood returning to the heart is

venous return

107

each of the following changes will result in increased blood flow to a tissue, except
-decreased peripheral resistance
-increased vessel diameter
-increased hematocrit
-increased blood pressure
-relaxation of precapillary sphincters

increased hematocrit

108

blood moves forward through veins because of all of the following except
-the pressure in the veins is lower than in the arteries
-pumping by the smooth muscle in the wall of the vein
-the respiratory pump
-valves in the veins preventing the backward flow of blood
-muscular compression

pumping by the smooth muscle in the wall of the vein

109

which part of the vascular system functions as a blood reservoir and contains 60% of the body's blood?

veins

110

the main control of peripheral resistance occurs in the

arterioles

111

the increase in effective blood volume that results from venoconstriction is the

venous reserve

112

resistance is a force that

decreases blood flow

113

total peripheral resistance is related to all of the following except the
-length of the blood vessel
-blood viscocity
-osmolarity of interstitial fluids
-blood vessel diameter
-turbulence

osmolarity of interstitial fluids

114

as blood travels from arteries to veins

pressure drops

115

blood flow to a tissue will increase if the

arterioles dilate

116

blood pressure increases with all of the following except increased
-cardiac output
-parasympathetic innervation
-peripheral resistance
-force of cardiac contraction
-blood volume

parasympathetic innervation

117

which of the following factors will increase the net filtration pressure to move fluid out of capillaries?

-both decreased plasma albumin and increased blood hydrostatic pressure

118

each of the following factors would increase peripheral resistance except
-vasodilation
-increased sympathetic stimulation
-elevated hematocrit
-elevated levels of epinephrine
-irregularities in the vessel walls caused by plaques

vasodilation

119

the blood colloid osmotic pressure mostly depends on the

concentration of plasma proteins

120

which of the following statements is false concerning the movement of fluid between capillaries and interstitial space?
-blood hydrostatic pressure forces fluid from capillary to the interstitial space
-blood osmotic pressure moves fluid from interstitial space to the capillary
-the osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid is less than the blood osmotic pressure
-the hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid is largely unimportant in determining fluid movement
-the net filtration pressure is usually zero

the net filtration pressure is usually zero

121

each of the following changes will result in increased blood flow to a tissue except
-increased hematocrit
-decreased peripheral resistance
-increased vessel diameter
-relaxation of precapillary sphincters
-increased blood pressure

increased hematocrit

122

in comparison to a vessel with a large diameter, a vessel with a small diameter has

a greater resistance to blood flow

123

the force that moves fluid out of capillaries is (BLANK) pressure whereas the opposing force that moves fluid into capillaries is (BLANK) pressure

hydrostatic; colloid osmotic

124

some of the fluid that is forced out of the capillaries is returned to the blood by the

lymphatic system

125

blood colloid osmotic pressure is produced by

large non diffusible proteins in the blood plasma

126

blood colloid osmotic pressure (BCOP) decreases in starving children because

starvation prevents the liver from producing enough protein to maintain BCOP

127

which of the following opposes the flow of blood back to the heart?
-vascular resistance
-peripheral veins have valves to prevent back flow of blood
-muscular pumps squeeze veins and move blood toward the heart
-blood pressure
-blood pressure gradient from arteries to veins

vascular resistance

128

Edema may occur when

the plasma concentration of protein is reduced, capillary hydrostatic pressure is elevated, and the capillary endothelium permeability goes up

129

each of the following will lead to a decrease in blood pressure except
-release of renin
-decreased peripheral resistance
-decreased levels of aldosterone
-decrease in blood volume
-increased levels of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide)

release of renin

130

each of the following will cause an increase in blood pressure except
-increased levels of aldosterone
-increased blood volume
-increased levels of ADH
-increased levels of angiotensin II

increased levels of ANP

131

elevated levels of the natriuretic peptide hormones ANP and BNP will produce increased

salt and water loss through kidneys

132

increased levels of carbon dioxide in the blood will result in decreased

parasympathetic stimulation of the heart

133

Vickie has a tumor that secretes excess amount of the hormone aldosterone. Because of the elevated level of hormone, she exhibits

both an increase in blood pressure and an increase in stored sodium ions

134

the regulation of blood flow by local mechanisms within a capillary bed is called

auto regulation

135

in response to hemorrhage, there is

mobilization of the venous reserve

136

hemostatic mechanisms in response to blood loss include all the following except
-uptake of interstitial fluid due to reduced capillary pressure
-inhibition of EPO secretion
-activation of ADH secretion
-activation of aldosterone secretion
-increased thirst and water intake

inhibition of EPO secretion

137

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of smooth muscle?
Striations are due to the orderly arrangement of actin and myosin
Neurons that innervate smooth muscles are under involuntary control
Smooth muscles do not contain sarcomeres
The thin filaments of smooth muscle fibers are attached to dense bodies

Striations are due to the orderly arrangement of actin and myosin

138

Which skeletal muscle fiber type contains more mitochondria?

slow

139

True or false, Intermediate fibers can be changed into fast fibers through exercise

False, fast can become more like intermediate

140

True or false, All smooth muscle cells have direct contact with at least one motor neuron

false

141

An individual who is Type B+ has which of the following antibodies in their plasma?

Anti A

142

Which of the following is not true of monocytes?

Release histamine

143

The production of erythropoietin is stimulated when

Blood flow to the kidney declines

144

Erythropoietin is a hormone

Released by the kidneys to stimulate red blood cell production

145

Type A blood has (BLANK) antibodies in the blood plasma

Anti B

146

You have type B positive blood. What are all the types of packed RBCs you can receive?

B positive, negative, O positive, negative

147

TRUE OR FALSE
The shape of red blood cell means that it has low surface area to volume ratio

false

148

true or false
Activated mast cells release histamine, which increases

true

149

True or false
Most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is excreted by the kidneys

False

150

Which of the following combinations may result in the hemolytic disease of the newborn

Mother RH negative, baby RH positive

151

• Which of the following is true regarding red blood cells?

◦ They are anucleate.

152

persons blood type is determined by the

◦ Presence of specific glycoproteins on the cell membrane

153

Which of the following statements about red blood cell formation is true?

most of the hemoglobin is synthesized during the reticulocyte

154

Which of the following does not occur during the platelet phase?

Blood clot is formed

155

Which white blood cell is most effect against parasitic infections?

Eosinophils

156

Eosinophils function in

Destroying antibody labeled antigens

157

Anti-Rh antibodies are present in the blood of

Rh negative individuals who have been exposed to the Rh surface antigen

158

Collectively, the conducting cells that carry the impulse from the SA node to the AV node is known as the

Internodal pathway

159

The AV node delay is beneficial because

It allows time for the atria to contract

160

During ventricular systole, the

AV valves are closed

161

With each ventricular systole,

Blood pressure increases

162

The (BLANK) is the volume of blood in a ventricle at the beginning of systole

End diastole volume

163

During the beginning of ventricular systole when the muscle is contracting but not enough pressure has built up to open semilunar valves the heart is said to be in

Isovolumetric contraction

164

Which factor directly influences preload?

Venous return

165

Which ion’s entry causes rapid depolarization?

Sodium

166

Which ion’s entry causes the plateau?

Calcium

167

Which ion’s exit causes repolarization?

potassium

168


During hemorrhaging, the drop in capillary hydrostatic pressure will (BLANK) NFP, thus (BLANK) reabsorption

Decrease; increasing

169

Which is not an effect of angiotensin II to increase blood pressure?
Increasing production of aldosterone
Increasing secretion of ADH
Vasoconstriction increasing total peripheral resistance
Increasing thirst
Increasing atrial natriuretic peptide

Increasing atrial natriuretic peptide

170

To defend blood volume against dehydration, the body

Releases antidiruretic hormone (ADH)

171

Which of these is not a short term response to a decrease in blood pressure?

Release of EPO

172

What hormones are released as a short term response to a decrease in blood pressure and blood volume?

Aldosterone

173

hormone short response

epinephrine and norepinephrine

174

what hormones are released as a short term response to a decrease in blood pressure and blood volume?

epinephrine and norepinephrine