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V.1 > Unit 3: Anatomy and Physiology > Flashcards

Unit 3: Anatomy and Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

-Supports surrounding tissues by providing a rigid framework within the body
-Assists in body movement by providing the site for muscle attachment
-Protects the vital internal organs and other soft tissues
-Makes the red blood cells (RBC) and white blood cells (WBC) within the marrow of some of the bones
-Stores mineral salts, especially phosphorous and calcium salts

A

functions of the skeletal system

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2
Q

What makes up the axial skeleton?

A

the skull, the hyoid bones (supports the larynx), the sternum, the 12 pairs of ribs, and the vertebrae

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3
Q

What makes up the appendicular skeleton?

A

The arms and legs

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4
Q

Which bones form the shoulder girdle?

A

The clavicle (collarbone) and the scapula (shoulder blade)

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5
Q

What makes the actual connection between a contracting muscle and a moving bone?

A

Tendons

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6
Q

Where is yellow marrow found?

A

medullary cavity in the shaft of long bones

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7
Q

Where is red bone marrow found?

A

spongy bone of long bones and in the diploë (spongy bone) of flat bones

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8
Q

The bone is broken, but does not protrude through the skin. This is
also known as a closed fracture

A

Simple fracture

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9
Q

The broken bone does protrude through the skin. This is also
known as an open fracture

A

Compound fracture

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10
Q

Exists when many small pieces and bone chips have been created

A

Comminuted fracture

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11
Q

Results from tremendous forces that cause the bone to telescope
within itself

A

Compression fracture

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12
Q

What is the first major stage in the healing process of a facture?

A

A hematoma (mass of clotting blood) forms at the facture site

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13
Q

What is the second major stage in the healing process of a facture?

A

Fibrocartilaginous callus forms

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14
Q

What is the third major stage in the healing process of a facture?

A

Bony callus forms

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15
Q

What is the fourth major stage in the healing process of a facture?

A

Bone remodeling occurs

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16
Q
  1. Moves the whole body and its appendages
  2. Moves blood throughout the body
  3. Moves food through the digestive tract
  4. Moves urine through the urinary tract.
  5. Enables us to breathe
A

functions of the muscular system

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17
Q

Is the fixed or stationary attachment of the muscle to the skeleton

A

origin

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18
Q

Is the large, fleshy prominence that forms the bulk of the muscles

A

belly

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19
Q

Is the point on which the action of the muscle is applied, resulting
in motion

A

insertion

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20
Q

What is the microscopic method of contraction involving the proteins actin and myosin called?

A

The sliding filament mechanism

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21
Q

What causes the darker meat in animals, especially the meat of working muscles?

A

High myoglobin content

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22
Q

What is another name for serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase?

A

Aspartate amino transferase

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23
Q

What is it called for the process of increasing both the size and number of muscle fibers?

A

hypertrophy

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24
Q

Wasting away of the muscle

A

atrophy

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25
Q

What are the two causes of muscle atrophy?

A

Loss of nerve supply to the muscle and lack of use

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26
Q

This type of atrophy occurs when the muscle is not used

A

disuse atrophy

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27
Q

What causes trichinosis

A

eating meat containing infective trichinella cysts

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28
Q

A disease affecting muscles of both animals and man

A

trichinosis

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29
Q

Besides transporting gases, hormones, nutrients, and waste products, what is another function of the circulatory system?

A

To help regulate body temperature

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30
Q

The top layer is called ____, which is the least dense component and is made up of 55 percent of whole blood

A

plasma

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31
Q

Is a thin, whitish layer that contains the leukocytes and platelets and makes up of less than one percent of whole blood

A

buffy coat

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32
Q

It is the densest component and makes up about 45 percent of whole blood

A

erythrocytes

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33
Q

what part of the blood has functions including: dissolving food and salts, dissolving waste that cells must get rid of, and dissolving hormones and other regulatory chemicals that help control the cells’ activities

A

plasma

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34
Q

What components make up the formed elements of blood?

A

platelets
erythrocytes
leukocytes

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35
Q

Which type of blood cells make up 99 percent of the total number of cells in the blood?

A

Red blood cells

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36
Q

What are the five different types of leukocytes?

A

Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils
Lymphocytes
Monocytes

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37
Q

Are our body’s bacteria slayers; function is to phagocytize (devour) bacteria such as meningitis and appendicitis

A

Neutrophils

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38
Q

Kill parasitic worms, also play a complex role in allergy and asthma related diseases

A

Eosinophils

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39
Q

Release histamines and other mediators of inflammation

A

Basophils

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40
Q

Mount immune response by direct cell attack or via antibodies

A

Lymphocytes

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41
Q

Phagocytic and crucial in the body’s defense against viruses, intracellular bacterial parasites, and chronic infections such as tuberculosis

A

Monocytes

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42
Q

What is the condition of having an insufficient number of RBC called?

A

Anemia

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43
Q

A person having blood containing A antigens and anti-B antibodies has which blood type?

A

Type A

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44
Q

A person having blood containing B antigens and anti-A antibodies has which blood type?

A

Type B

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45
Q

A person having blood containing both A and B antigens
but no antibodies has which blood type?

A

Type AB

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46
Q

A person having blood containing no antigens, but both
anti-A and anti-B antibodies has which blood type?

A

Type O

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47
Q

What is the name of the membranous sac that surrounds the heart?

A

The pericardium

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48
Q

Which portion of the heart receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs?

A

Left atrium

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49
Q

Which blood vessel carries blood away from the heart toward the capillaries?

A

arteries

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50
Q

Which blood vessel carries blood toward the heart and away from the capillaries?

A

ventricles

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51
Q

What is the condition called where there is an insufficient volume of blood to meet the needs of the body?

A

Circulatory shock

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52
Q

What are the bones in the nose called that twist and turn the air as it enters?

A

Turbinates

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53
Q

What emergency procedures could be performed in the event of upper airway obstruction?

A

Cricothyrotomy or tracheotomy

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54
Q

What carries air into the chest cavity?

A

Trachea or windpipe

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55
Q

What is the name of the muscle separating the abdominal and thoracic cavities that creates breathing?

A

Diaphragm

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56
Q

What is the condition called where no air goes into or out of the lungs due to a penetrating chest wound?

A

Pneumothorax

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57
Q

What is the medical terminology for “dry-land drowning?”

A

Pulmonary edema

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58
Q

Is caused by a variety of agents including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and chemicals. As WBCs and fluids accumulate in the lungs, gas exchange is impaired

A

Pneumonia

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59
Q

An allergic response causing a narrowing of the small airways making it difficult to move air in and out

A

Asthma

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60
Q

The destruction of lung tissue and the blockage of small bronchioles make less lung tissue available for gas exchange and increase the labor of breathing

A

Emphysema

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61
Q

What are the three functions of the digestive tract?

A

Breakdown (mechanical and chemical)
Absorption
Elimination of wastes

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62
Q

What are the two main elements of the digestive system?

A

The alimentary canal
The accessory glands

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63
Q

How is food moved through the digestive tract to the stomach?

A

Gravity and muscular contractions

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64
Q

What are the finger-like protrusions called that line the small intestine?

A

Villi

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65
Q

Which portion of the digestive tract serves to store fecal material until expelled?

A

The large intestine

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66
Q

What salivary glands are the primary targets for the mumps virus?

A

The parotid salivary glands

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67
Q

Which organ produces blood clotting factors and detoxifies certain chemicals?

A

The liver

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68
Q

Which organ secretes digestive enzymes into the small intestine through small ducts, function in the digestion process by breaking down all three major nutrient groups, proteins, carbohydrates, and fats

A

pancreas

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69
Q

Which organ is a small pear-shaped reservoir located between two lobes of the liver, stores concentrated bile and releases it when it is needed to digest a high fat meal

A

gallbladder

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70
Q

High levels of bilirubin in the bloodstream cause what condition?

A

Jaundice

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71
Q

What makes up the urinary system?

A

two kidneys
two ureters
a bladder
a urethra

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72
Q

How much urine leaves the kidney from 125 ml of filtrate production?

A

1 ml

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73
Q

What is indicated when the kidneys are forming very concentrated urine?

A

The body is dehydrated

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74
Q

What is the external pendulous sac that contains the epididymis?

A

Scrotum

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75
Q

A tube-like structure extending from the bladder to the external meatus (opening) of the penis

A

Urethra

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76
Q

The first part of a long duct or tube leaving the testes

A

Epididymis

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77
Q

A gland that secretes nutrients for sperm

A

Seminal vesicles

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78
Q

A doughnut-shaped gland that lies below the bladder

A

Prostate

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79
Q

What is the function of the epididymis?

A

Final maturation and storage of sperm

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80
Q

What is the primary male hormone?

A

Testosterone

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81
Q

What are some examples of secondary male characteristics?

A

Facial hair
Deepening voice
Increased musculature

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82
Q

How many chromosomes do spermatids have?

A

23

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83
Q

A collapsed muscular tube. It is capable of tremendous amount of expansion during the birthing process

A

Vagina

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84
Q

A fibrous tube between the vagina and uterus

A

Cervix

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85
Q

A muscular organ with a glandular inner lining
Nourishes the implanted embryo during pregnancy

A

Uterus

86
Q

If sperm are present in the ____ ____, fertilization occurs and the fertilized ovum travel into the uterus for implantation

A

fallopian tubes

87
Q

Which structures produce female hormones estrogen and progesterone?

A

Ovaries

88
Q

Which female hormone is responsible for repairing the uterine lining after menstruation?

A

Estrogen

89
Q

Which female hormone is important in preparing the uterus for implantation of the fertilized ovum and in maintaining pregnancy

A

Progesterone

90
Q

The maturing of oogonia by a series of cell divisions into a mature ovum

A

oogenesis

91
Q

How long can the sperm cells survive in the female tract and fertilize the egg?

A

From 24 to 72 hours

92
Q

A substance that causes physical defects in the developing embryo

A

Teratogen

93
Q

Disrupt the cell’s DNA resulting in a genetic defect
These defects may be inherited by future generations

A

Mutagens

94
Q

Which substances is capable of causing cancer

A

Carcinogens

95
Q

Which substances reduce the number of sperm or ova?

A

Gametotoxins

96
Q

What term refers to the physical changes that can be measured and occur in a steady and orderly manner

A

growth

97
Q

What term relates to changes in psychological and social functioning

A

development

98
Q

During which stage of life does the development of stable sleep patterns occur?

A

Infant

99
Q

During which stage of life does rapid physical, psychological, and social development occur?

A

Infant

100
Q

During which infant month can they hold their head up while lying on their stomach?

A

1

101
Q

During which infant month can they smile and follow objects with their eyes?

A

2

102
Q

During which infant month can they raise their head and shoulders while lying on their stomachs, sit for a short time, and hold an object in their hand

A

3

103
Q

During which infant month can they roll over, sit up when supported, and may sleep all night, hold objects with both hands, puts objects in the mouth, and babbles when spoken to

A

4

104
Q

During which infant month can they grasp objects and play with their toes. Teeth begin to erupt.

A

5

105
Q

During which infant month can they hold a bottle for feeding and can sit alone for short periods of time, manipulate small objects
and vocalize one syllable sounds
Usually have two lower front teeth and begin to chew finger food

A

6

106
Q

During which infant month can they respond to their name and begin to show a fear of strangers. Can transfer objects from one hand to another. Begin to imitate simple acts and sounds
Upper teeth begin to erupt

A

7

107
Q

During which infant month can they stand while holding onto something, respond to the word “no,” and cry when scolded. Can feed themselves finger food and reach with open arms to be picked
up

A

8

108
Q

During which infant month can they crawl and pull to a standing position. Comply with simple verbal commands and can communicate with hand gestures (such as waving). Show a fear of being left alone, which may be evident when going to bed

A

9

109
Q

During which infant month can they walk while holding onto objects, will look under objects for a toy, and can pull into a sitting position. Are also aware of their own names by this age

A

10

110
Q

During which infant month can they stand momentarily and can play interactive games using body language. Can also communicate disapproval by shaking their head “no.”

A

11

111
Q

During which infant month can they begin to walk with help and can hold a cup for drinking. Demonstrates emotions such as anger and affection, and cling to parents in unfamiliar situations

A

12

112
Q

During which stage of life does the rate of development increase dramatically

A

Toddler

113
Q

What ages are included in the toddler stage?

A

1 to 3 years

114
Q

This stage of life is characterized by less physical growth, both gross and fine motor skills are fairly well developed, shows increased independence and intellectual development

A

Preschool

115
Q

What ages are included in the preschool stage?

A

3 to 6 years

116
Q

Physical growth during this stage is rapid. School is the greatest event that takes place during this stage

A

Middle childhood

117
Q

What ages are included in the middle childhood stage?

A

6 to 8 years

118
Q

What ages are included in the late childhood stage?

A

9 to 12 years

119
Q

During late childhood, how many words are children capable of understanding?

A

50,000

120
Q

What ages are included in the adolescent stage?

A

12 to 20 years

121
Q

What ages are included in the young adult stage?

A

20 to 40 years

122
Q

At which stage of life does physical deterioration start?

A

Young adult, after 30

123
Q

What ages are included in the middle adult stage?

A

40 to 65 years

124
Q

During which stage of life do people often look back at the goals they have accomplished so far?

A

Middle adult

125
Q

What ages are included in the late adult stage?

A

65 years and older

126
Q

What process controls the secretion of hormones?

A

Negative feedback

127
Q

Which organ produces growth hormone?

A

The pituitary gland

128
Q

Which hormone controls the secretion of thyroxine from the thyroid gland?

A

Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

129
Q

Which hormone promotes mammary gland development and milk production in the female?

A

Prolactin

130
Q

Which hormone influences the adrenal glands?

A

Corticotropin

131
Q

Which hormones both influence the reproductive organs in the male and the female?

A

Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
Luteinizing hormone (LH)

132
Q

Which hormone controls the amount of water excreted by the kidney into the urine?

A

Antidiuretic hormone

133
Q

Which hormone promotes milk let down and uterine contractions?

A

Oxytocin

134
Q

Which hormone causes growth of all body tissues?

A

Growth hormone

135
Q

What disease is characterized by the swelling of the thyroid gland and can result from a dietary deficiency of iodine?

A

goiter

136
Q

What is the condition that produces too much thyroxine, where the person becomes excitable, nervous, exhibits a rapid pulse, and in some cases the eyes protrude slightly?

A

Hyperthyroidism

137
Q

What is the condition that produces too little thyroxine, where the person always feels cold, has no energy, and is mentally sluggish?

A

Hypothyroidism

138
Q

Which organ produces epinephrine?

A

Adrenal glands

139
Q

What layer of the adrenal glands is absolutely essential to life? Its
secretions influence salt absorption by the kidneys and the metabolism of sugars

A

Outer layer (cortex)

140
Q

What layer of the adrenal glands produces epinephrine and norepinephrine?

A

Inner layer (adrenal medulla)

141
Q

Which hormone in males controls secretion of the male hormone testosterone?

A

Luteinizing hormone

142
Q

Which hormone in females causes the development of the
secondary sex characteristics at puberty?

A

Estrogen

143
Q

Which hormone in females is necessary for implantation and to
maintain the state of pregnancy during fetal development?

A

Progesterone

144
Q

Which hormone secreted from the pancreas enables the tissues of the body to metabolize sugar circulating in the bloodstream; thus lowering blood sugar levels?

A

Insulin

145
Q

Which hormone secreted from the pancreas increases
blood sugar levels when they are too low?

A

Glucagon

146
Q

What are the three main functions of the nervous system?

A

sensory input
integration
motor output

147
Q

Which structure of a neuron carries impulses away from the cell body?

A

Axons

148
Q

Which structure of a neuron carries impulses toward the the cell body?

A

Dendrites

149
Q

What are the three types of neurons?

A

Sensory
Motor
Interneurons

150
Q

What are the two divisions of the nervous system?

A

Central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system

151
Q

What are the two parts to the central nervous system?

A

Brain and spinal cord

152
Q

Name the four lobes in the cerebrum

A

Frontal
Parietal
Temporal
Occipital

153
Q

What is a multilayered protective membranous covering around the spinal cord underneath the bony protection?

A

The meninges

154
Q

Which division of the PNS is responsible to provide input from
the body into the CNS?

A

Sensory division

155
Q

Which division of the PNS carries impulses to a muscle or gland?

A

Motor division

156
Q

Which division of the motor division is responsible for conducting impulses from the CNS to the skeletal muscles; it is often referred to as the voluntary nervous system?

A

Somatic nervous system

157
Q

Which division of the motor division is responsible for conducting impulses from the CNS to cardiac and smooth muscles and the glands; it is often referred to as the involuntary nervous system?

A

Autonomic nervous system

158
Q

The autonomic nervous system is broken down into what two divisions?

A

sympathetic (fight or flight responses)
parasympathetic nervous system (rest and digest)

159
Q

Which chemical crosses the synapse of a neuron to enable an electrical impulse to move from one neuron to the next?

A

Acetylcholine

160
Q

Which substance stops the chemical stimulation action in the neuron?

A

Acetylcholine esterase

161
Q

What are the four main functions of the skin?

A

(1) Sensation
(2) Protection
(3) Secretion (sebum and sweat)
(4) Temperature regulation.

162
Q

Under very hot conditions, how much sweat can a person lose?

A

Up to 4 liters per hour

163
Q

What term is used for inflammation of the skin?

A

Dermatitis

164
Q

What term is used for swelling?

A

Induration

165
Q

What term is used for reddening of the skin?

A

erythema

166
Q

What term is used for a blister filled with pus?

A

Pustule

167
Q

What term is used for an erosion of the skin surface?

A

Ulcer

168
Q

What term is used for a reddened, flat spot on the skin?

A

Macule

169
Q

What term is used for a blister or elevation filled with fluid, not pus?

A

vesicle

170
Q

What term is used when the reddened, solid elevation of the skin occurs?

A

a papule

171
Q

What term is used to describe a very narrow frequency band within the electromagnetic spectrum?

A

Visible light

172
Q

What is the white protective layer on the outside of the eyeball called?

A

The sclera

173
Q

What is the clear protective layer on the front of the eyeball?

A

The cornea

174
Q

Which portion of the eye contains the receptor cells known as rods and cones?

A

The retina

175
Q

What is another name for nearsightedness?

A

Myopia

176
Q

Which type of lens is used to correct nearsightedness?

A

A biconcave lens

177
Q

What is another name for farsightedness?

A

Hyperopia

178
Q

Which type of lens is used to correct farsightedness?

A

A biconvex lens

179
Q

What eye condition consist of a cornea or lens that is not evenly curved?

A

Astigmatism

180
Q

What can be a corrective action for cataracts?

A

Removing the clouded lens

181
Q

What term is used for immunity dependent on some special anatomical or physiological property of an animal species rather than a specific antibody

A

Natural Resistance

182
Q

What are white blood cells called that engulf foreign substances?

A

Phagocytes

183
Q

Give three examples of anatomic natural defense mechanisms

A

(1) Physical barrier of the skin
(2) Phagocytes
(3) Sweeping action of the cilia in the respiratory tract

184
Q

Give three examples of chemical natural defense mechanisms

A

(1) Lysozyme (enzyme)
(2) Interferon (antiviral agent)
(3) High acid content of stomach fluids

185
Q

When does acquired immunity occur?

A

Develops before birth and throughout the lifetime of the individual

186
Q

In naturally acquired passive immunity, how does the fetus acquire antibodies from its mother?

A

Across the placental barrier and through the mother’s milk

187
Q

Why is passive immunity especially important to the newborn?

A

The newborn is incapable of producing antibodies of its own for a few months after birth

188
Q

Why are passive immunizations used in conjunction with active immunizations?

A

For immediate temporary protection against diseases such as rabies and hepatitis B until the body can produce its own antibodies

189
Q

Which type of immunity is where the body actively produces antibodies in response to an exposure of an agent

A

active immunity

190
Q

Which type of immunity is the result of a natural infection?

A

Naturally acquired active immunity

191
Q

Give two examples of diseases that produce a short-lived immunity and two examples of those producing life-long immunity

A

Influenza and gonorrhea = short-lived immunity
Smallpox, mumps, measles, and chickenpox = life-long immunity

192
Q

Name three diseases that can be diagnosed by serology

A

Any three of the following:
(1) Syphilis.
(2) Hepatitis A or B.
(3) Rubella.
(4) Rubeola

193
Q

Define antibody titer

A

It is the antibody level

194
Q

What happens to the antibody titer in response to infection?

A

The titer rises or reaches a specific level

195
Q

What two patterns of an antibody titer are characteristic of active infection?

A

An increase in titer over a period of weeks or a single sample that is a very high titer

196
Q

What is an antigen?

A

Any foreign substance that stimulates the body to produce an immune response

197
Q

What is a synonym for antibody?

A

Immunoglobulin

198
Q

What are the five identified classes of immunoglobulin?

A

(1) IgG
(2) IgM
(3) IgA
(4) IgD
(5) IgE

199
Q

Most antibody activity in human serum is due to what three classes of immunoglobulin?

A

IgG, IgM, and IgA

200
Q

On the first contact with a particular antigen, what antibody is mainly produced?

A

IgM

201
Q

On a second or subsequent contact with an antigen, what antibody usually predominates?

A

IgG

202
Q

Which antibody crosses the placenta and is responsible for protection of the newborn?

A

IgG

203
Q

Which immunoglobulin is the primary responder to entry of pathogens through the respiratory or gastrointestinal tracts?

A

IgA

204
Q

Which two classes of immunoglobulin are found in minute quantities in the serum?

A

IgD and IgE

205
Q

Lymphocytes develop into what two types of cells?

A

B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes (B- and T-cells)

206
Q

The B-lymphocyte can further differentiate into what two types of cells?

A

Plasma or memory cells

207
Q

What does a B-lymphocyte produce in response to an antigen?

A

Antibodies

208
Q

Cellular immunity is the basis of which type of cell?

A

T-cell

209
Q

Which cell is destroyed by the human immunodeficiency virus?

A

T helper cell

210
Q

Which cell is involved in the tuberculosis skin test positive reaction?

A

T-cell

211
Q

What are the structures of the lymphatic system?

A

Lymph capillaries
Lymph vessels
Lymph nodes
Lymphatic ducts

V.1 (4 decks)

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