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Flashcards in Unit 3 Material - NEW only! Deck (69):
1

A lyssavirus that has linear, single stranded RNA and is negative sense:

rabies

2

Zoonotic and affects the CNS:

Rabies

3

What are the two serotypes of vesicular stomatitis virus?

Indiana, NJ

4

The majority of Rhabdoviridae occur in:

insects

5

What number of proteins does rabies code for?

The genome is 12 kb and codes for 5 proteins

6

Sylvatic means:

of the woods

7

Street rabies affects:

dogs and cats (domestic)

8

Why is there no street rabies in the US?

vaccines

9

How is rabies inoculated?

by the bite of an infected animals

10

Where does attachment, penetration, and uncoating occur?

locally in the myocytes

11

Where does transmission of rabies to a nerve cell occur?

at the neuromuscular junction and sensory endings of the PNS

12

Where does viral establishment of rabies occur?

in the PNS

13

Where does rabies localize once it enters the spinal cord and brain?

soma of the neurons

14

Which sections of the brain are the most heavily affected by rabies?

hippocampus, brain stem, and purkinje cells of the cerebellum

15

Where is the rabies virus released?

ONLY at the nerve endings

16

How does rabies cause death?

neural respiratory and cardiac arrest

17

What are the three routes to the CNS rabies takes?

- hematogenous
- neural pathways
- olfactory

18

Which rabies route to the CNS: "via viremia that can infect endothelium, and leukocytes, passive transport through permeable areas can occur"

hematogenous

19

Which rabies route to the CNS: "axons, Schwann cells, perineural lymphatics, and endoneural spaces"

neural

20

Which rabies route to the CNS: "cranial nerve penetrates the cribiform plate"

olfactory

21

IC inclusions in neuronal soma present in hangla of hippocampus, purkinje cells of cerebellum, and medullary ganglia:

negri bodies

22

Where are negri bodies located?

cells of the brain (purkinje cells?)

23

Small, round, structured viruses that exhibit icosahedral symmetry:

Calici virus

24

What kind of outer covering is on a Calici virus?

capsid, NOT an envelope

25

What are the genome characteristics of the Calici viruses?

non-segmented and cosists of a single molecule of linear positive send single-stranded RNA

26

Where are the virions of Calici virus found?

in the cytoplasm

27

What is San Miguel Sealion virus synonymous with?

vesciular exanthema of swine

28

What is the most common clinical manifestation of feline calici virus?

major agent of upper respiratory disease

29

List the caliciviruses that are hemorrhagic:

- San Miguel
- Vesicular Exanthema of Swine
- Feline Calici
- Rabbit Calici
AKA ALL

30

What is the vector for blue tongue?

Culicoides midges (no see-ums, biting midges)

31

When do blue tongue disease most commonly occur?

mid-summer to late fall (when vector is most active)

32

What are the only orthoreoviruses of clinical significance?

infections in rodents, chickens, and turkeys

33

What does orthoreovirus cause in chickens and poultry?

arthritis and tenosynovitis

34

What are the avian orthoreoviruses?

Avian Reovirus 1-11

35

Virion is not enveloped. Capsid shell of virion is composed of three layers, including the outer, core, and inner layer. Genome consists of a monomer with 10-12 segments of linear dsRNA.

Reoviridae virion

36

Unlike rotavirus, BTV is susceptible to:

common disinfectants and low pH

37

How many total serotypes of BTV have been identified?

25

38

How many serotypes of BTV have been identified in the US?

5

39

What does it mean when blue tongue is called a "List A disease"?

subjected to international regulation

40

Is there treatment for blue tongue? How do you control it?

No; vaccination & decreasing number of insect vectors

41

What's majorly responsible for the emergence of new orthomyxovirus pandemics?

reassortment

42

Where does reassortment of orthomyxovirus most commonly take place?

mutation of cleavage sites of HA molecule

43

All HPAIV's have ___ or ___ but few H5 or H7 AIV's are ___.

H5; H7; HP

44

Hemagglutinin types of avian influenza viruses:

HA subtypes = 1-16
NA subtypes = 1-9

45

In 2015, which of the following subtype influenza A caused outbreak in chicken/turkey operation in MW US leading to the loss of 50 mil birds?

H5N2

46

Virion contains 8 segmented single stranded, negative-sense RNA genome. All the veterinary isolates except some swine isolates; also has some human isolates.

Influenza A virus

47

What are the HA and NA subtypes of influenza A?

HA = 1-18 (seg. #4)
NA = 1-11 (seg. #6)

48

Which species serves as a mixing vessel for generation pandemic influenzas?

swine

49

What is a reservoir for influenza A viruses?

migratory waterfowl, most notably wild ducks

50

What is the vector for Western virus (WEEV)?

Culex tarsalis

51

Which subtypes of Venezuelan (VEEV) are the most virulent and epidemic?

Epizootic VEEV subtypes AB and IC

52

What are the dead end hosts for alpha viruses?

humans and horses

53

Where are the high viremias in alphaviruses?

- EEEV in passerines
- Epizootic VEEV in horses (serve as amplification host)

54

What's the clinical problem with alphaviruses?

cannot distinguish one from the other b/c clinical features of dz are all the same

55

Enveloped, positive sense, ssRNA, diploid (meaning it has two copies of RNA) with a three layered structure:

Retrovirus

56

Which retroviruses are neoplastic in poultry?

Avian leukosis groups A-D, J
Avian leukosis virus
Reticuloendotheliosis virus

57

What are the legalities surrounding equine infectious anemia?

regulated disease by state and federal agency

58

What kind of lymphomas are produced by FeLV?

alimentary, multicentric, thymic, or unclassified (skin, eyes, CNS)

59

What are the MS laws regarding EIA?

1. Equines, except nursing foals entering MS: An official copy of the EIA test negative within 12 months
2. All equidae, except nursing foals, participating in traning, breeding, exhibition, or moving, require the original copy of a current negative EIA test.
3. Sale requires a negative EIA test

60

What are the symptoms associated with acute EIA infections?

fever, weight loss, anemia, edema, weakness, death within 2-3 weeks, test may be neg.

61

What are the symptoms associated with chronic EIA?

intermediated fever, lethargic, anorexia

62

Which type of cattle has the highest infection rates of BLV in endemic areas?

dairy

63

Which virus requires repeated testing of animals over 6 months of age at 2-3 months intervals?

bovine leukemia virus

64

List out all of the lentiviruses:

1. HIV-1
2. HIV-2
3. EIAV
4. FIC
5. Visna
6. SIV-agm.

65

Proteinaceous particle that can replicate itself and has no nucleic acids:

prion

66

Pocket pets that have this disease are directly infectious to humans:

CWD

67

What is BSE originally rendered from?

carcasses of cattle with sporadic spongiform encephalopathy, and sheep with a novel form of Scrapie

68

Mad Cow Disease =

bovine spongiform encephalopathy

69

What are the clinical features of BSE?

tremors, frenzy, abnormal posture, hindlimb ataxia, hyperesthesia with kicking during milking, weight loss, and reduced milk yield