Unit 3 Material - NEW only! Flashcards

(69 cards)

1
Q

A lyssavirus that has linear, single stranded RNA and is negative sense:

A

rabies

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2
Q

Zoonotic and affects the CNS:

A

Rabies

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3
Q

What are the two serotypes of vesicular stomatitis virus?

A

Indiana, NJ

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4
Q

The majority of Rhabdoviridae occur in:

A

insects

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5
Q

What number of proteins does rabies code for?

A

The genome is 12 kb and codes for 5 proteins

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6
Q

Sylvatic means:

A

of the woods

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7
Q

Street rabies affects:

A

dogs and cats (domestic)

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8
Q

Why is there no street rabies in the US?

A

vaccines

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9
Q

How is rabies inoculated?

A

by the bite of an infected animals

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10
Q

Where does attachment, penetration, and uncoating occur?

A

locally in the myocytes

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11
Q

Where does transmission of rabies to a nerve cell occur?

A

at the neuromuscular junction and sensory endings of the PNS

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12
Q

Where does viral establishment of rabies occur?

A

in the PNS

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13
Q

Where does rabies localize once it enters the spinal cord and brain?

A

soma of the neurons

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14
Q

Which sections of the brain are the most heavily affected by rabies?

A

hippocampus, brain stem, and purkinje cells of the cerebellum

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15
Q

Where is the rabies virus released?

A

ONLY at the nerve endings

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16
Q

How does rabies cause death?

A

neural respiratory and cardiac arrest

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17
Q

What are the three routes to the CNS rabies takes?

A
  • hematogenous
  • neural pathways
  • olfactory
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18
Q

Which rabies route to the CNS: “via viremia that can infect endothelium, and leukocytes, passive transport through permeable areas can occur”

A

hematogenous

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19
Q

Which rabies route to the CNS: “axons, Schwann cells, perineural lymphatics, and endoneural spaces”

A

neural

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20
Q

Which rabies route to the CNS: “cranial nerve penetrates the cribiform plate”

A

olfactory

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21
Q

IC inclusions in neuronal soma present in hangla of hippocampus, purkinje cells of cerebellum, and medullary ganglia:

A

negri bodies

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22
Q

Where are negri bodies located?

A

cells of the brain (purkinje cells?)

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23
Q

Small, round, structured viruses that exhibit icosahedral symmetry:

A

Calici virus

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24
Q

What kind of outer covering is on a Calici virus?

A

capsid, NOT an envelope

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25
What are the genome characteristics of the Calici viruses?
non-segmented and cosists of a single molecule of linear positive send single-stranded RNA
26
Where are the virions of Calici virus found?
in the cytoplasm
27
What is San Miguel Sealion virus synonymous with?
vesciular exanthema of swine
28
What is the most common clinical manifestation of feline calici virus?
major agent of upper respiratory disease
29
List the caliciviruses that are hemorrhagic:
- San Miguel - Vesicular Exanthema of Swine - Feline Calici - Rabbit Calici AKA ALL
30
What is the vector for blue tongue?
Culicoides midges (no see-ums, biting midges)
31
When do blue tongue disease most commonly occur?
mid-summer to late fall (when vector is most active)
32
What are the only orthoreoviruses of clinical significance?
infections in rodents, chickens, and turkeys
33
What does orthoreovirus cause in chickens and poultry?
arthritis and tenosynovitis
34
What are the avian orthoreoviruses?
Avian Reovirus 1-11
35
Virion is not enveloped. Capsid shell of virion is composed of three layers, including the outer, core, and inner layer. Genome consists of a monomer with 10-12 segments of linear dsRNA.
Reoviridae virion
36
Unlike rotavirus, BTV is susceptible to:
common disinfectants and low pH
37
How many total serotypes of BTV have been identified?
25
38
How many serotypes of BTV have been identified in the US?
5
39
What does it mean when blue tongue is called a "List A disease"?
subjected to international regulation
40
Is there treatment for blue tongue? How do you control it?
No; vaccination & decreasing number of insect vectors
41
What's majorly responsible for the emergence of new orthomyxovirus pandemics?
reassortment
42
Where does reassortment of orthomyxovirus most commonly take place?
mutation of cleavage sites of HA molecule
43
All HPAIV's have ___ or ___ but few H5 or H7 AIV's are ___.
H5; H7; HP
44
Hemagglutinin types of avian influenza viruses:
HA subtypes = 1-16 | NA subtypes = 1-9
45
In 2015, which of the following subtype influenza A caused outbreak in chicken/turkey operation in MW US leading to the loss of 50 mil birds?
H5N2
46
Virion contains 8 segmented single stranded, negative-sense RNA genome. All the veterinary isolates except some swine isolates; also has some human isolates.
Influenza A virus
47
What are the HA and NA subtypes of influenza A?
``` HA = 1-18 (seg. #4) NA = 1-11 (seg. #6) ```
48
Which species serves as a mixing vessel for generation pandemic influenzas?
swine
49
What is a reservoir for influenza A viruses?
migratory waterfowl, most notably wild ducks
50
What is the vector for Western virus (WEEV)?
Culex tarsalis
51
Which subtypes of Venezuelan (VEEV) are the most virulent and epidemic?
Epizootic VEEV subtypes AB and IC
52
What are the dead end hosts for alpha viruses?
humans and horses
53
Where are the high viremias in alphaviruses?
- EEEV in passerines | - Epizootic VEEV in horses (serve as amplification host)
54
What's the clinical problem with alphaviruses?
cannot distinguish one from the other b/c clinical features of dz are all the same
55
Enveloped, positive sense, ssRNA, diploid (meaning it has two copies of RNA) with a three layered structure:
Retrovirus
56
Which retroviruses are neoplastic in poultry?
Avian leukosis groups A-D, J Avian leukosis virus Reticuloendotheliosis virus
57
What are the legalities surrounding equine infectious anemia?
regulated disease by state and federal agency
58
What kind of lymphomas are produced by FeLV?
alimentary, multicentric, thymic, or unclassified (skin, eyes, CNS)
59
What are the MS laws regarding EIA?
1. Equines, except nursing foals entering MS: An official copy of the EIA test negative within 12 months 2. All equidae, except nursing foals, participating in traning, breeding, exhibition, or moving, require the original copy of a current negative EIA test. 3. Sale requires a negative EIA test
60
What are the symptoms associated with acute EIA infections?
fever, weight loss, anemia, edema, weakness, death within 2-3 weeks, test may be neg.
61
What are the symptoms associated with chronic EIA?
intermediated fever, lethargic, anorexia
62
Which type of cattle has the highest infection rates of BLV in endemic areas?
dairy
63
Which virus requires repeated testing of animals over 6 months of age at 2-3 months intervals?
bovine leukemia virus
64
List out all of the lentiviruses:
1. HIV-1 2. HIV-2 3. EIAV 4. FIC 5. Visna 6. SIV-agm.
65
Proteinaceous particle that can replicate itself and has no nucleic acids:
prion
66
Pocket pets that have this disease are directly infectious to humans:
CWD
67
What is BSE originally rendered from?
carcasses of cattle with sporadic spongiform encephalopathy, and sheep with a novel form of Scrapie
68
Mad Cow Disease =
bovine spongiform encephalopathy
69
What are the clinical features of BSE?
tremors, frenzy, abnormal posture, hindlimb ataxia, hyperesthesia with kicking during milking, weight loss, and reduced milk yield