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CMN574 > unit 3: rheum > Flashcards

unit 3: rheum Flashcards

1
Q

what color is non-inflammatory synovial fluid?

A

clear

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2
Q

what color is mild inflammatory synovial fluid?

A

translucent

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3
Q

what color is purulent synovial fluid?

A

opaque

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4
Q

true or false: when aspirating a knee it is ok to insert needle thru an area of cellulitis or other skin disorder?

A

false…. you dont want to introduce bacteria from outside.

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5
Q

your pt is on coumadin and you want to aspirate their joint… what do you check? what are the parameters? what gauge do you use?

A
  • INR
  • MUST BE LESS THAN 3
  • small gauge (like 22g)
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6
Q

true or false: joint aspiration falls under the APRN’s scope of practice

A

*trick question- varies by state

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7
Q

wbc count of normal synovial fluid?

A

<2k

*would indicate non-inflammatory condition

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8
Q

wbc count of inflammatory synovial fluid?

A

2k-75k

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9
Q

wbc count of purulent synovial fluid?

A

100k

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10
Q

true or false: bloody joint effusions are usually caused by traumatic aspiration

A

TRUE

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11
Q

3 clues to help you dx rheum:

  1. +/- _______
  2. # of ______ involved
  3. _______ of joint involved
A
  1. absence or presence of inflammation
  2. number of joints involved
  3. site of joint involved
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12
Q

if inflammation is present what 3 diseases should you consider?

A
  1. RA
  2. SLE
  3. gout
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13
Q

if inflammation is absent what disease should you consider?

A

OA

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14
Q

monoarticular joint involvement… what 5 diseases should you consider?

A
  1. gout
  2. trauma
  3. septic arthritis
  4. lyme
  5. OA
    Get LOST
    gout, lyme, OA, SA, trauma
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15
Q

oligoarticular involvement means what?

A

2-4 joints

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16
Q

polyarticular means what?

A

5+ joints

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17
Q

oligoarticular involvement…. what 2 diseases should you consider?

A
  1. Reactive arthritis

2. psoriatic arthritis

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18
Q

polyarticular involvement… what 2 diseases should you consider?

A
  1. RA

2. SLE

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19
Q

distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint site… what 2 diseases?

A
  1. OA

2. PA

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20
Q

metocarpophalangeal and wrist involvement… what 2 diseases?

A
  1. RA

2. SLE

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21
Q

first metatarsal phalangeal… what 2 diseases?

A
  1. OA

2. gout

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22
Q

OA def: ________ of the cartilage and ______ of the bone

A
  • degeneration of the cartilage

* hypertrophy of the bone

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23
Q

______ is the most common form of joint disease

A

OA

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24
Q

OA is more common in women or men?

A

women

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25
Q

OA usually flares ______ (#) joint at a time

A

1

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26
Q

onset of OA is abrupt or insidious?

A

insidious, gradual

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27
Q

what do you expect ESR and synovial fluid to show in a pt with OA?

A
  • ESR IS NOT ELEVATED

* syn fluid NON INFLAM

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28
Q

2 radiologic findings with OA?

A
  • narrowing of joint space

* osteophyte formation

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29
Q

2 ways to prevent OA

A
  1. weight reduction

2. normal vitamin D levels

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30
Q

first line treatment for OA?

A

tylenol

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31
Q

is exercise indicated in the treatment of OA?

A

YES, regular exercise

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32
Q

do splints and compression gloves help in treatment of OA?

A

YES

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33
Q

______ is the most common cause of gastric ulcer, perf, and hemmorhage (for the sake of this chapter…)

A

NSAIDS

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34
Q

what should you use to reduce risk of GIB in pts taking nsaids?

A

PPI

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35
Q

NSAIDS should be administered cautiously in what groups? (5)

A
  • over 70
  • anticoagulated
  • taking corticosteroids
  • hx of PUD
  • hx alcoholism (dec. clotting times due to liver dysfunx)
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36
Q

how many times a year can you give your pt intra articular steroid injections?

A

NO MORE THAN 4

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37
Q

injections of the _____ are not recommended for OA

A

hand

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38
Q

hip and knee replacements are a good choice for OA pts w what restriction

A

those who have ambulation restrictions

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39
Q

gouty arthritis is ideopathic or hereditary?

A

hereditary

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40
Q

gouty arthritis more common in men or women?

A

men

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41
Q

gouty arthritis more common in men over ______y

A

30

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42
Q

gouty arthritis acute or gradual onset?

A

acute

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43
Q

gouty arthritis mono, oligo, or poly articular?

A

MONO

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44
Q

usual site of gouty arthritis?

A

MTP

first metaphalangeal joint

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45
Q

hyperuricemia is associated with what level of uric acid?

A

> 6.8

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46
Q

pts with gout are at increased risk for what other undesired condition?

A

kidney stones. check for them

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47
Q

uric acid kidney stones are common in 5-10% of pts with uric acid level >?

A

13

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48
Q

another name for the MTP joint when gouty is?

A

podagra

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49
Q

true or false. during an acute gout attack, the WBC count is elevated

A

TRUE

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50
Q

pts with gout have a higher INCIDENCE of what 5 other DIAGNOSES/disease processes (think of vessel inflammation related dx and you’ll 4 of them…. the 4th one is partially a consequence of the remaining dx)

A
  • HTN
  • DM
  • CKD
  • atherosclerosis
  • hyperTRIGS
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51
Q

2 options for gouty arthritis treatment include?

A
  • NSAIDS

* colchicine

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52
Q

what is the two step loading dose treatment with colchicine?

A
  • 1.2mg NOW

* 0.6mg one hour later

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53
Q

2 NSAID treatments for gouty arthritis

A
  • naprosyn 500mg BID

* indomethicin 25-50mg q8h

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54
Q

undesirable side effect of colchicine?

A

diarrhea

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55
Q
  1. allopurinol starting dose?
  2. titrate up every _____ weeks?
  3. usual dose to decrease symptoms?
  4. max dose?
A
  1. 100mg daily
  2. 2-5w
  3. 300mg
  4. 800mg daily
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56
Q

allopurinol and what drug (abx) causes a rash in approx 20% of pts?

A

ampicillin

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57
Q

use allopurinol cautiously in pts with _______

A

CKD

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58
Q

true or false: allopurinol and colchicine may be taken concurrently?

A

FALSSSSSSSSE

*colcrys loading for acute attack… allo for prevention

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59
Q

all meats are high or low purine?

A

HIGH

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60
Q

organ meats are high or low purine?

A

HIGH

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61
Q

seafood is high or low purine?

A

HIGH

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62
Q

sadly…. what alcoholic bev is high purine?

A

BEEEEER (and all alc) but esp beer due to the YEAST

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63
Q

other foods high in purine: all veg with one grain

BLOP, SCAM

A

BLOP: beans, peas, lentils, oatmeal
SCAM: spinach, cauliflower, asparagus, mushroom

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64
Q

teach wants us to know high fructose corn syrup is risk factor food for?

A

gouty arthritis

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65
Q

thiazide and loop diuretics are contraindicated in gout bc??

A

*inhibit renal secretion of uric acid

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66
Q

what supplement commonly used as an alternative to statins can raise serum uric acid levels?

A

niacin

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67
Q

corticosteroid dose for gout? if using…

A

prednisone 30-40mg daily for 2-5d then taper

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68
Q

physicain may initiate urate-lowering therapy when pt has had ______+ gout attacks in one year

A

2

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69
Q

goal of urate lowering theraoy is maintain serum uric acid at or below??

A

6mg/dL

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70
Q

recheck uric acid levels about _____ weeks after initiation

A
  1. she keeps saying shell check her pts around a month of treatment…
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71
Q

RA morning stiffness lasts longer than _____min

A

30

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72
Q

palmar erythema is a hallmark of which disorder?

A

RA….. palmAR

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73
Q

name 4 extra-articular manifestations of RA… remember its an INFLAM process…

A
  1. subcu nodules
  2. interstitial lung disease
  3. pericarditis
  4. vasculitis
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74
Q

most common cause of MORTALITY in pts with RA…

A

CVD… due to chronic inflam

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75
Q

multiple joints are involved with swelling, tenderness, and pain…. which one?

A

RA

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76
Q

____% of RA pts have subcu nodules… these may also be found in other tissues such as….

A
  • 20%
  • lungs
  • sclera
  • other tissue
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77
Q

dryness of eyes, mouth, and mucous membranes is AW what disorder other than sjogrens?

A

RA

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78
Q

when and only when may you draw an ANTI CCP antibody on your pt?

A

only after a positive RA factor. if RA negative then its not RA….

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79
Q

what lab test is most specific for RA?

A

Anti CCP antibodies

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80
Q

in RA… are ESR and CRP levels elevated?

A

YES, its inflammatory process

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81
Q

in RA is the platelet count elevated or decreased?

A

elevated

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82
Q

____% of deaths in pts w RA is attributed to ______ due to _______ (3 words)

A
  • 40%
  • CVD
  • small vessel vasculitis
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83
Q

initial labs to be drawn on someone you suspect to have RA? 7, maybe 8… not a trick question

A 
CBC
CMP
TSH
ESR
ANA
RA factor
uric acid
maybe CRP
(CC TEARum)
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84
Q

methotrexate was initially used as a ______ drug

A

cancer, chemo

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85
Q

treatment of RA and similar diseases requires high or low doses of methotrexate to be effective?

A

*lower

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86
Q

methotrexate works to decrease ______ and limit ________

A
  • inflam

* joint damage

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87
Q

how often is methotrexate taken?

A

weekly

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88
Q

true of false: methotrexate comes in pill, liquid, and injection form

A

*true

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89
Q

tell me the lab monitoring for methotrexate. what and when

A
  • CBC, CMP
  • baseline
  • q4-6w for first 3mo
  • then q8-12w
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90
Q

what blood abnormality does methotrexate cause?

A

*pancytopenia

=low count of reds, whites, and platelets (yes I had to google the def lol)

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91
Q

methotrexate can cause ______ and ______ failure (hint… this is why we draw a CMP)…

A
  • liver

* renal

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92
Q

other side effects of methotrexate include _____ upset and ____ sores

A
  • GI

* mouth

93
Q

what other medication is required when prescribing methotrexate? and what is the dose?

A
  • FOLIC ACID

* 1mg PO daily

94
Q

when you read FOLIC ACID….. what medication are you supposed to remember?

A
  • methotrexate.

* PTS MUST BE ON SUPPL

95
Q

can methotrexate be combined with other DMARDs?

A

yes

96
Q

what is the starting dose of methotrexate? (assuming your pt cant get to rheum)

A
  1. 5mg

* start low and try to maintain low dose

97
Q

what allergy to you think you might want to look out for when prescribing SULFAsalazine?

A

*sulfa allergy lol

98
Q

what is the other name for sulfasalazine?

A

azulfidine

99
Q

other than RA what else is sulfasalazine indicated for?

A
  1. ankylosing spondylitis
    (AS&raquo_space; sulfASalazine)
  2. IBD (crohn’s/UC)
    (sulfasalazIne) or (azUlfidine)
100
Q

2 sensory side effects of sulfasalazine, 1 blood one, 1 weird one

A

*nausea/vom
*photosensitivity
*cytopenia
(one or more blood counts down)
*MAY TINT BODILY FLUIDS ORANGE AND IT STAINS AND DOESNT WASH OUT

101
Q

whats the weird side effect of sulfasalazine?

A
  • may tint Sweat, tears, urine, etc… and it Stains…..

* S’s… think of SulfaSalazine

102
Q

can sulfasalazine be used with other Dmards?

A

YES

103
Q

how often is sulfasalazine taken?

A

BID (two S’s)

104
Q

whats the other name for hydroxychloroquine?

A

plaquenil

105
Q

What was plaquenil originally developed for?

A

malaria

106
Q

what do we use plaquenil for?

A

SLE

107
Q

what is THE BIG side effect of plauenil?

A

*retinal damage in higher doses

108
Q

remember the BIG SIDE EFFECT of plaquenil?…… therefore what evaluation do we require before initiating treatment and then YEARLY after?

A
  • SE = retinal damage (in higher doses)

* opthalmology

109
Q

teach wants us to know plaquenil is not approved to treat _______

A

covid 19

110
Q

plaquenil can exacerbate what cardiac condition?

A

CHF. can possibly cause cardiac tamponade

111
Q

plaquenil can possible cause what arrythmia?

A

*tamponade

think of it as a topping like red pepper tapenade… “a little plaquinil tamponade please”

112
Q

due to one of the side effects of leflunomide (arava)… what must you screen for prior to intiation?

A
  • elevated LFTs

* screen for hepatitis (bc how could you know once you start them on the med…)

113
Q

what labs do you need to monitor leflunomide (arava)

A
  • CBC (causes pancytopenia)

* CMP (monitor LFTS/renal)

114
Q

side effects of azathioprine (imuran)

A

*N/V
*anorexic effect
*leukopenia
*elevated LFTs
(NALE. thats why we NALED it to the wall and use the newer stuff now)

115
Q

_____ salts (medication for RA) is not commonly used anymore

A

*gold

116
Q

85% of pts with SLE are ____ what age/gender?

A

young women

117
Q

the classic butterfly malar rash only occurs in _____% of pts

A

50%

118
Q

in SLE _______ will be positive on labs along with _______

A
  • ANA

* anemia

119
Q

HIM are the most common drugs to cause SLE. what are they?

A
  • Hydralazine
  • Isoniazid
  • minocycline
120
Q

pts with SLE should get retinal exams how frequently?

A

*annually

121
Q

what is the dose range of hydroxychloroquine?

A

*200-400

122
Q

hypercoagulability with recurrent arterial &/or venous thrombus = what dx?

A

anti-phospholipid syndrome

123
Q

your pt has 3 or more miscarriages in the first trimester… what should you test her for?

A

anti-phospholipid syndrome

124
Q

your pt has recurrent fetal loss after first trimester… you should test them for what?

A

anti-phopholipid syndrome

125
Q

anti-phospholipid syndrome may ONLY be anticoagulated with which med?

A

coumadin. old trusty. goal INR 2-3

126
Q

distal ischemia of the fingers due to vasconstriction of the arterioles in response to cold or stress…. what dx am I?

A

raynaud phenomenon

127
Q

raynauds phenomenon mostly affects what areas?

A

fingers, toes, nose, ears

128
Q

raynauds occurs in _____% of the popn, mostly _______ age/gender

A
  • 2-6%

* young women

129
Q

pts with raynauds should avoid what class of meds?

A

sympathomimetics (nasal decongestants, appetite suppressants, stimulants, bronchodilators…)

130
Q

raynauds responds well to what two classes of meds?

A
  • CCBs

* vasodilators

131
Q

cervical _______ can be performed for severe and frequent attacks of what disorder?

A
  • sympathectomy

* raynauds

132
Q

diffuse fibrosis of the skin and internal organs….. what dx am I?

A

scleroderma

133
Q

what are the two categories of scleroderma? and what is the distribution of pts in these cats?

A
  • limited (80%)

* diffuse (20%)

134
Q

what does CREST stand for in relation to scleroderma?

A 
C = calcinosis cutis (calcium deposits on the skin)
R = raynauds
E = esophageal motility disorder
S = sclerodactyly (thickening and tightening of the skin on the hands)
T = telangiectasia (small, widened blood vessels of the skin)
135
Q

in limited scleroderma the hardening of the skin is limited to the ______ & ________s

A
  • face

* hands

136
Q

diffuse scleroderma involves hardening of the skin to the face and hands AND the ______ and _______s

A
  • trunk

* proximal extremities

137
Q

what does sclerodactyly mean?

A

thickening and tightening of the skin on the hands

138
Q

what does telangiectasia mean?

A

small, widened blood vessels of the skin. gotta google this one prob for a visual.

139
Q

what does calcinosis cutis mean?

A

calcium deposits on the skin

140
Q

symptoms of diffuse scleroderma include _______, weight loss, and malaise

A

*polyarthralgia

141
Q

symptoms of diffuse scleroderma include poly_______, weight_______, and _______

A
  • polyarthralgia
  • weight loss
  • malaise
142
Q

a clinical finding of scleroderma is ulcerations around the ________

A

*finger tips

143
Q

a clinical finding of scleroderma is _______ of the GI tract due to fibrosis

A

*hypomobility

144
Q

a clinical finding of scleroderma is pulmonary ______

A

*fibrosis

145
Q

a clinical finding of sclerdoerma is _____ and ______ crisis due to proliferation of the small arteries

A
  • HTN

* renal

146
Q

due to damage to the renal arteries what clinical finding would you expect on UA in a pt w scleroderma?

A

*proteinuria

147
Q

scleroderma results in _______ due to the RBC’s experiencing trauma as they attempt to pass thru diseased small arteries

A

*anemia

148
Q

what is the #1 cause of mortality in pts w scleroderma?

A
  • pulmonary fibrosis

* pulmonary HTN

149
Q

what are 2 other common cause of death in pts w scleroderma?

A
  • CKD

* HF

150
Q

due to GI hypomotility, pts w scleroderma might suffer from _______. you can rx a PPI to reduce symptoms

A
  • GERD

* esophagitis

151
Q

low dose _____ can help increase GI motility in pts w scleroderma

A

*reglan

152
Q

treat pulm fibrosis ST scleroderma with?

A

albuterol
o2
nebs

153
Q

polymositis is defined as progressive ______ muscle weakness over _____ to _____

A
  • proximal

* weeks to months

154
Q

polymoysitis does NOT involve the ______ or ______

A
  • face

* eyes

155
Q

what effect of polymyositis increases pts risk for aspiration?

A

*dysphagia

156
Q

muscle _____ and contractures occur _____ in the polymyositis disease process

A
  • atrophy

* late

157
Q

which muscle related lab is elevated in polymyositis?

A

CKMB

158
Q

respiratory muscle weakness in polymyositis can lead to ______ retention and thus ________

A
  • Co2

* mechanical ventilation

159
Q

are you more likely to see polymyositis or dermatomyositis?

A

*derm

160
Q

what does “mechanics hands mean and what disorder is it a consequence of?

A
  • hyperkeratosis to radial and palmar aspects of hand

* dermatomyositis

161
Q

a purplish stain over the eyelid is called? and is a consequence of what disorder?

A
  • heliotrope

* dermatomyositis

162
Q

what labs are elevated in dermatomyositis that may lead a clinical to misdx?

A
  • liver (ALT & AST)

* might think its hepatitis

163
Q

the rash AW dermatomyositis is ____ red and appears on the _____ region…. and therefore may be mistaken for SLE rash

A
  • dusky

* malar

164
Q

what does a “shawl sign” mean and what disorder is it AW?

A
  • dusky red rash extending to neck, back, chest wall, and shoulders
  • dermato
165
Q

idiopathic inflammatory myopathies include?

A
  • polymyositis

* dermatomyositis

166
Q

IIM (idiopathic inflam myopathies) labs: H&H high or low? ESR & CRP high or low? ANA positive or negative?

A
  • H&H low- anemia
  • ESR & CRP elevated- inflam
  • ANA +
167
Q

what is the only specific test for IIMs

A

muscle biopsy

168
Q

malignancies are more commonly AW poly or dermato?

A

dermato

169
Q

pt of asian descent w dermato are more prone to what kind of CA?

A

*nasopharyngeal

170
Q

“westerner” pts w dermato are more prone to what 3 types of cancer?

A
  • lung
  • colorectal
  • breast
171
Q

caucasian pts w dermato are more prone to what CA?

A

*ovarian

172
Q

sjogren syndrome occurs mostly in women around what age?

A

50

173
Q

pts w sjogren’s complain of ______ and ______?

A
  • dry eyes

* cotton mouth

174
Q

_________ is a condition that results from decreased tear production and is AW the sensation of a grain of sand in the eye

A

*keratoconjunctivitis

175
Q

dry mouth related to sjogren may cause 4 issues. name them

A

*difficulty speaking
*dysphagia
*dental caries
*parotid enlargement
(dddp)

176
Q

RA factor will be positive in ____% of pts w sjogrens

A

70

177
Q

ANA will be positive in ______% of pts w sjogrens

A

95

178
Q

___ biopsy will reveal lumphoid foci in accessory salivary glands. what disorder is this AW?

A

LIP

*sjogrens

179
Q

treatment for sjogrens? think of the symptoms…

A
  • artificial tears
  • mouth lubricants
  • good oral hygiene to prevent dental caries
180
Q

sjogrns is AW increased incidence of what malignancy?

A

lymphoma

*specifically non-hodgkins

181
Q

rhabdo is defined as?

A

*acute necrosis of skeletal muscle

182
Q

ATN stands for ? and is a result of increased myoglobin in a hypovolemic state and is AW what what dx?

A
  • acute tubular necrosis

* rhabdo

183
Q

rhabdo is AW what causes?

A
  • immobility
  • crush injuries
  • hypothermia exposure
  • statins if pt has compromised liver or kidney
184
Q

what is the treatment for rhabdo?

A

aggressive IVF

185
Q

vasculitis is defined as?

A

*inflammation within the walls of affected blood vessels

186
Q

vasculitis involves arteries, veins or both?

A

all of the above

187
Q

when you encounter vasculitis, first determine the ____ of the vessels involved. then consider what _____ may be affected?

A
  • size of the vessels- large, med or sm?

* ORGANS

188
Q

read tbls 20-11

A

bc she loves tables

189
Q

what type of antibodies are present in vasculitis?

A

*anti-neutrophil cytoplastic antibodies

190
Q

temporal arteritis is diagnosed thru _______ only

A

*biopsy

191
Q

3 symptoms of temporal arteritis

A
  • HA
  • malaise
  • vision changes
192
Q

giant cell (temporal artery) arteritis. what inflammatory marker is elevated? and over what number?

A
  • ESR

* 100

193
Q

temporal arteritis is urgent bc it can cause _____

A

blindness

194
Q

treatment for temporal arteritis?

A

*high dose steroids

195
Q

temporal arteritis is urgent and may require admission to ______ until the pt is cleared of ______

A
  • ICU

* organ involvement

196
Q

giant cell arteritis can lead to _____

A

*aneurysms

197
Q

in temporal arteritis, ESR returns to normal after about ______ of ______

A
  • one month

* steroids

198
Q

polymyalgia rheumatica is characterized by?

A
  • many pains
  • wide spread
  • flu-like s/s
199
Q

_____ (lab) is elevated in polymyalgia rheum

A

*ESR

200
Q

_______ of chronic disease can also be present in Poly rheum

A

anemia

201
Q

treatment of poly rheum?

A

oral prednisone 10-20mg for 6-12mo

202
Q

in poly rheum, when dosing steroids what is the goal?

A

as low as they can go w symptom control

*teach says slowly decrease prednisone to 5mg or 2.5mg and then see how they do w/o it

203
Q

polyarteritis nodosa is defined as? what organ does it spare?

A
  • necrotizing arteritis of medium sized vessels

* LUNGS

204
Q

polyarteritis nodosa is commonly associated with hep ____?

A

hep B

*10% of cases

205
Q

labs polyarteritis nodosa: ESR? CRP? ANCA?

A
  • elevated
  • elevated
  • Negative
206
Q

in polyarteritis angiography will show?

A

aneurysmal dilations

207
Q

polyartertis is only dx’d by two tests. what are they?

A
  • angiography

* biopsy

208
Q

treatment for polyarteritis nodosa?

A
  • REFER TO ED if acutely ill

* high dose corticosteroids- up to 60mg prednisone/day

209
Q

early clues to presence of underlying vasculitis (pre-polyarteritis nodosa)

A

*mononeuritis multiplex (commonly foot drop) + features of systemic illness

210
Q

s/s polyartertitis nodosa

A
  • fever
  • abd pain
  • extremity pain
  • anemia
211
Q

in psoriatic arthritis _______ precedes arthritis by up to 2y in 80% of pts

A

psoriasis

212
Q

psoriatic arthritis is symmetrical or asymmetrical? and resembles what other arthritis?

A
  • symmetrical

* rheumatoid

213
Q

psoriatic arthritis will have an elevated? but a negative?

A
  • ESR

* rheumatoid factor

214
Q

psoriatic arthritis results in severe deformity of the _____ joints

A

DIP

215
Q

______ can be added if NSAIDS arent effective for psoriatic arthritis

A

methotrexate

216
Q

in moderate to severe cases of psoriatic arthritis, what class of meds can be used?

A

DMARDS

217
Q

nail pitting is a classic sign of which arthritis?

A

*psoriatic

218
Q

it is essential to do a thorough physical exam for arthritis of new onset to search for what?

A

psoriasis patch

219
Q

labs of psoriatic arthritis?

A
  • ESR elevated
  • HIGH uric acid
  • reduced iron stores
220
Q

your pt has psoriatic arthritis. what is your plan?

A

start NSAIDS and refer to rheum. start methotrexate if needed at 7.5mg weekly

221
Q

acute onset of inflammatory monoarticular arthritis, swelling and pain often in weight bearing joints is indicative of?

A

septic arthritis

222
Q

WBC of synovial fluid in septc arthrtis is usually over _____? and can be up to____?

A
  • 50k

* 100k

223
Q

do we encourage or discourage “tapping” of septic arthritis in the hand?

A

NO MAAM/SIR. DONT FKN DO IT

224
Q

what pathogen is responsible for 50% of septic arthritis cases?

A

staph aureus

225
Q

septic arthritis…. what test do we get to look for bony erosion?

A

CT or MRI

226
Q

osteomylitis…

A
  • bone infection
  • Ct or MRI will show extension of bone involvement
  • elevated ESR
  • debride necrotic bone and give IV ABX
227
Q

drug of choice for fibro?

A

lyrica… check the forum too

228
Q

most common site of osteonecrosis is the?

A

Proximal and distal femur heads

229
Q

treatment for osteonecrosis?

A
  • vascularized and non vascularized bone grafting procedures.
  • total hip replacement is usually needed

CMN574 (6 decks)

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