Unit 4 Kahoot (ALL)

Question 1

What are the general characteristics of Staphylococcus and Micrococcus species?

Answer 1

Gram Positive
Catalase Positive
Pairs and Clusters

Question 2

What is the primary reservoir or habitat for Staphylococci?

Answer 2

Human Nares
Axillae, vagina, pharynx

Question 3

What can be differentiated by the coagulase test?

Answer 3

Staphylococcus Aureus from other species
Positive is formed in plasma due to staphylocoagulase

Question 4

What are heat stable exotoxins that cause diarrhea and vomiting?

Answer 4

Enterotoxins

Question 5

What causes nearly all cases of menstruating associated Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS)?

Answer 5

Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin -1 (TSST-1)

Question 6

What is known to cause Scalded Skin Syndrome or Ritter’s disease?

Answer 6

Exfoliative Toxin (Epidermolytic Toxin)

Question 7

What is a bullous exfoliative dermatitis that occurs primarily in newborns and previously healthy children?

Answer 7

Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSS)
Caused by Staph Exfoliative or Epidermolytic Toxin

Question 8

What is a rare but potentially fatal multi system disease?

Answer 8

Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS)
Menstrual/non menstrual related

Question 9

Which Coagulase Negative Staphylococcus (CoNS) predominantly causes nosocomial infections?

Answer 9

Staphylococcus Epidemidis
Small-medium size
Non hemolytic
Gray/white color

Question 10

Which Coagulase Negative Staphylococcus (CoNS) causes community acquired UTIs in young sexually active women?

Answer 10

Staphylococcus Saprophyticus

Question 11

What is more virulent than S. Aureus, mimics S. aureus infections, and carriers the mecA gene? What does this gene cause?

Answer 11

Staphylococcus Lugdunensis
Causes resistance to oxacilin

Question 12

What can Staphylococcus simulans, hominis, capitis, warneri, and schleiferi be classified as?

Answer 12

Opportunistic pathogens

Question 13

What are the two most clinically significant and commonly recovered coagulase negative staphylococci?

Answer 13

Staphylococcus Epidermidis and Saprophyticus

Question 14

What kind of specimen do we need to test for S. Saprophyticus?

Answer 14

Urine culture from a female

Question 15

What test can be used to differentiate Staphylococci from Micrococci?

Answer 15

Modified Oxidase

Question 16

What is considered the hallmark test for Staphylococcus aureus?

Answer 16

Coagulase test

Question 17

When differentiating CoNS species, we can use novobiocin for identification. What are the expected results?

Answer 17

Resistant: S. Saprophyticus
Susceptible: Considered CoNS

Question 18

What has been a serious concern for the medical community?

Answer 18

Vancomycin resistance

Question 19

What are the four groups that streptococcal species are divided into?

Answer 19

Pyogenic
Lactococci
Enterococci
Viridans
The ones that got an i in them

Question 20

What are the 17 genes of catalase negative, gram positive cocci?

Answer 20

They got a U in em I aint typin that shi out cuh

Question 21

What is a key test for the differentiation of Streptococci and Enterococci from Staphylococci?

Answer 21

Catalase negative

Question 22

What is encoded by the emm genes and is essential for virulence?

Answer 22

M protein

Question 23

What are the most common clinical manifestations of GAS infection?

Answer 23

Pharyngitis and Tonsillitis
M1 serotype is most commonly seen

Question 24

What is responsible for hemolysis on blood agar plates that are incubated anaerobically?

Answer 24

Streptolysin S
Destroys WBC, PLT, RBC

Question 25

What are characteristics of Streptolysin S?

Answer 25

Oxygen stable Lyses luekocytes Non-immunogenic Hemolysis seen around colonies Aerobic incubation

Question 26

What is known as a formerly erythrogenic toxin, causes a red spreading rash and has four immunologically distinct exotoxins: A, B, C & F

Answer 26

Streptococcal Pyrogenic Exotoxins (SPEs)

Question 27

What is Streptococcus agalactiae clearly associated with in regards to virulence?

Answer 27

Capsules prevents phagocytosis but ineffective after opsonization

Question 28

What is an invasive disease in newborns that is the leading cause of death in infants in the US?

Answer 28

Streptococcus agalactiae

Question 29

What is the most common cause of sub acute bacterial endocarditis?

Answer 29

Viridans Streptococci

Question 30

Which organism is a frequent cause of nosocomial infections?

Answer 30

Enterococcus

Question 31

What are the classification schemes in laboratory diagnosis?

Answer 31

Hemolytic Pattern on SBA Physiologic Characteristics Lancefield Classification Biochemical Characteristics

Question 32

What is used for the presumptive identification of S. pyogenes (GAS) and is helpful in screening for GAS in throat cultures?

Answer 32

Bacitracin Susceptibility

Question 33

What is used for the presumptive identification of GBS?

Answer 33

CAMP (Christie, Atkins, and Munch-Petersen) test

Question 34

What is useful for differentiating S. agalactiae from other B-hemolytic streptococci?

Answer 34

Hippurate Hydrolysis 2 hour rapid test

Question 35

What provides a high probability for the presumptive identification of ß-hemolytic GAS & nonhemolytic group D?

Answer 35

PYR test

Question 36

What is the only species of Strep that is PYR positive?

Answer 36

S. Pyogenes

Question 37

What have been mainstays in identification schemes for nonhemolytic, catalase-negative, gram-positive cocci?

Answer 37

Bile Esculin Hydrolysis test Salt Tolerance test Differential for Group D and Enterococcus

Question 38

What is the most commonly used method to differentiate and identify S.pneumonia from other a-hemolytic Streptococcus?

Answer 38

Optochin Susceptibility

Question 39

What do S. Pyogenes (GAS) colonies show when grown?

Answer 39

Small, transparent, smooth Wide zone of B hemolysis

Question 40

Which microorganism appears as grayish-white surrounded by a small zone of B hemolysis?

Answer 40

S. agalactiae (GBS)

Question 41

How do S. pneumoniae colonies appear when grown?

Answer 41

Older colonies appear as a coin with a raised rim Large zone of A hemolysis on SBA

Question 42

What are the key tests for S. pneumoniae?

Answer 42

Optochin Bile solubility

Question 43

Described in the late 1980s, what is Enterococci resistant to?

Answer 43

Glycopeptides: Vancomycin/Teicoplanin

Question 44

What has VRE become in recent years?

Answer 44

A global problem

Question 45

What is an example of Non spore forming, nonbranching, catalase negative Bacilli?

Answer 45

Gardnerella Vaginalis Also includes E. rhusiopathiae Arcanobacterium & Trueperella

Question 46

What does the major virulence factor exotoxin of C. diphtheria produce?

Answer 46

Diphtheria Toxin

Question 47

What can enhance the microscopic morphology of C. diphtheria?

Answer 47

Loeffler's Serum Agar

Question 48

How do C. diphtheria colonies appear on a Tinsdale agar?

Answer 48

Brown/black with a gray-brown halo

Question 49

How do C. diphtheria colonies appear on a Cystine Tellurite Blood Agar (CTBA)?

Answer 49

Black colonies with brown halos around colonies

Question 50

Which microorganism is the most common cause of prosthetic valve endocarditis in adults and is usually associated with patients who are immunocompromised?

Answer 50

C. jeikeium

Question 51

What can L. monocytogenes cause?

Answer 51

Serious infections in neonates, pregnant women, and immunocompromised

Question 52

How can we differentiate L. Monocytogenes

Answer 52

Motility Test Umbrella Tumbling (end over end) in wet mount preps

Question 53

What can A. haemolyticum, pyogenes, and bernardiae be classified as?

Answer 53

Arcanobacterium clinical infections

Question 54

What effects do we see in A. haemolyticum?

Answer 54

Rash with desquamation of the skin of the hands and feet

Question 55

What do we see in those with A. pyogenes?

Answer 55

Sepsis and wound infections in those with animal contact

Question 56

Which Arcanobacterium do we see bacteriemia, wound infections, UTIs, and septic arthritis?

Answer 56

A. bernardiae

Question 57

What involves drainage and surgery with antimicrobials and is susceptible to sulfonamides?

Answer 57

Treatment of Nocardiosis

Question 58

What are the culture characteristics of Nocardia?

Answer 58

Aerobic Slow growers Grow well on non selective media Morphologically resemble fungi

Question 59

What is commonly associated with bioterrorism and is considered the most abundant lab contaminant?

Answer 59

Bacillus species

Question 60

What are square ended, gram positive large rods that grow aerobically and are found singly or in chains?

Answer 60

Bacillus Species

Question 61

What is a common disease among livestock worldwide?

Answer 61

Bacillus anthracis Causative agent of anthrax

Question 62

How is inhalation anthrax or "wool sorter's disease" acquired?

Answer 62

Acquired through inhalation of spores Handling fibers, hides, or other animal products

Question 63

What are the sypmtoms of sudden respiratory distress?

Answer 63

Dyspnea Cyanosis Pleural effusion Disorientation, coma, death (24 hrs)

Question 64

What are the culture characteristics of Bacillus anthracis?

Answer 64

Medusa head/beaten egg whites Raised, large, gray-white, irregular, fingerlike

Question 65

What percent of anthrax cases in the world are cutaneous?

Answer 65

99%

Question 66

What two genes of Bacillus are very similar morphologically and metabolically?

Answer 66

B. anthracis B. cereus

Question 67

What is a relatively common cause of food poisoning and opportunistic infections in susceptible hosts?

Answer 67

B. cereus