Unit 4 Review Flashcards
1
Q
True or False? Anemia, low platelet count, and low leukocytes count, usually with absolute neutropenia, are commonly present in myelodysplastic syndrome
A
True
2
Q
The level of erytrhopoietin in the urine is _______ in patients with polycythemia Vera as compared to to other types of polycythemia
A
Decreased
3
Q
The hallmark of laboratory studies in chronic myeloproliferative disorders is:
A
Cytogenetic abnormalities
4
Q
Chronic myeloproliferative disorders include which of the following:
A
- A, B, and C
- essential thrombocythemia
- chronic myelogenous leukemia
- polycythemia vera
5
Q
Periodic-acid Schaffer (PAS) reaction is:
A
Negative in myelocytes
6
Q
The hematology report for CLL looks most like which of the following:
A
Decreased WBC with 90% immature lymph’s
7
Q
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia is defined as an:
A
Malignancy of the thymus
8
Q
Periodic Acid Schiff reaction stains:
A
Glycogen
9
Q
Which of the following statements is true of Multiple myeloma?
1– The presence of the Reed-Sternberg cell
2– presence of Bence-Jones protein
3– Presence of “M” spike on electrophoresis
4– A plasma cell leukemia
A
2,3, and 4 are correct
10
Q
Sudan Black stain differentiates:
A
Acute myelogenous leukemia from ALL
11
Q
The FAB classification of leukemia is a means of:
A
*both A and B
- classifying acute leukemias
Assessing prognosis
12
Q
Leukemia secondary to Burkitt’s lymphoma is:
A
FAB L3
13
Q
50-90% of myeloblasts in a peripheral blood is typical of which of the following:
A
Acute granulocytic leukemia (MI)
14
Q
Very low levels of leukeocyte alkaline phosphatase can be found in:
A
*all of the above
- viral hepatitis
- IM
- PCH
15
Q
Patients with initial phase CML are prone to:
A
Low-grade fevers, night sweats, and splenic infarction
16
Q
A common characteristic of acute lymphoblastic leukemia is:
A
Bone and joint pain
17
Q
The most consistent chromosomal abnormality in CLL is _______?
A
Trisomy of chromosome 12
18
Q
The type of acute leukemia most commonly seen in children is:
A
Acute lymphocytic
19
Q
The nature of MDS (myelodysplastic syndromes) occurring in those older than 50 and include:
A
*all of the above
- CMML and CLL
- CML and CLL
- RA, CMML, and RARS
20
Q
What FAB classification would match the following description: large and small megakaryoblasts with high N:C ratio; pale agranular cytoplasm?
A
M7
21
Q
Oncogenes are:
A
- both B and C
- genetic targets of carcinogens
- altered versions of normal genes
22
Q
Which of the following terms as not used to refer to myelodysplastic syndromes?
A
Myeloproliferative syndrome
23
Q
AML is the ______ leukemia subtype
A
Most common
24
Q
From the list below, which are the prominent hematological findings in MDS
A
- A and B only
- Sideroblastic, Howell-Jolly bodies
- giant platelets, hypogranulation
25
What FAB classification would match the following description: small cells predominate, nuclear shape is regular with occasional cleft?
L1
26
SHORT ANSWER: What is the cytochemical stain that best separates acute myelocytic from acute monocytic leukemia?
The Naphthol Esterase stain is used for differentiating the myelocytic from monocytic leukemias
27
What FAB classification would match the followoing description: both myelogenous and monocytic cells are present, at least 20% of total WBC?
M4
28
Peripheral blood characteristics of which of the following disease has the following presentation?
RBC x 10^12/L increasing significantly
WBC x 10^9/L increasing
Platelets x 10^9/L moderately increasing
Polycythemia
29
The Philadelphia chromosome is typically associated with:
Chronic myelogenous leukemia
30
What FAB classification would match the following description: large cells with irregular nuclear shape: clefts is nucleus are common?
L2
31
The alpha-naphthyl acetate esterase cytochemical staining reaction is:
Strongly positive in monocytes
32
Chemical exposure is more strongly linked to an increased risk of _______ leukemia than acute lymphoblastic leukemia
Acute myelogenous
33
SHORT ANSWER: Comparing lymphoma vs. leukemia, give 2 ways they differ from each other
A lymphoma is a solid mass that presents as a tumor within the tissues that may spill over into the blood, appearing like leukemia. Leukemia is not a mass, but a neoplastic proliferative disease characterized by overproduction of immature/mature cells of various types in the blood/bone marrow
Lymphomas are generally characterized by into 2 types (Hodgkin’s & non-Hodgkins) based on the presence/absence of Reed-Sternberg cells. Leukemias are classified either according to the FAB (AMLs: Mo-M7; ALLs: L1-L3) or WHO classification systems
34
What FAB classification would match the following description: blasts and promyelocytes predominate without further maturation?
M1
35
What FAB classifcation would match the following descriptionl: promyelocytes predominate in the bone marrow?
M3
36
What FAB classification would match the following description: known as DiGulielmo syndrome, abnormal proliferation of all cells?
M6
37
SHORT ANSWER: list 2 myelodysplastic syndromes:
1- refractory anemia (RA)
2- Refractory anemia with RInger Sideroblasts (RARS)
38
What FAB classification would match the following description: most cells are monocytic?
M5
39
SHORT ANSWER: list 3 factors related to the occurrence of leukemia:
1- genetic & immunological factors (oncogenes, translocation most common)
2- occupational/environmental exposure (ionizing radiation, insert/herb/fungicides)
3- viral agents (EBV, HIV, HTLV-1)
40
The most common disorder in patients with essential thrombocythemia is:
Thrombotic or bleeding problems
41
What FAB classification would match the following description: cells are large and homogeneous in size: nuclear shape is round with 1-3 prominent nucleoli
L3
42
The most frequent leukocytes found in peripheral blood are:
Neutrophils
43
The function of the entire leukocytuc system is to:
Defend the body against disease
44
The granulocyte cells that are believed to descend from a common multipotential stem cell in the bone marrow are:
Neutrophils and eosinophils
45
The types of granulocytic leukocytes found in the proliferative compartment of the bone marrow are:
Myeloblasts
Promyelocytes
Myelocyte
Metamyelocyte
46
The types of granulocytic leukocytes found in the maturation-storage compartment of the bone marrow are:
Metamyelocytes
Band form neutrophils
Segmented neutrophils
Mature eosinophil
Mature basophil
47
Release of neutrophils from the bone marrow is believed to be influenced by
Interleukins
48
The stages of neutrophilic granulocyte development are:
Myeloblast
Promyelocyte
Myelocyte
Metamyelocyte
Band and segemented neutrophil
49
Marginating granulocytes in the peripheral blood can be found:
Adhering to the vascular endothelium
50
The half-life of circulating granulocytes in normal blood is estimated to be:
7-10 hours
51
Identify the cell with these characteristics: prominent primary granules that are rich in myeloperoxidase and chloroacetate esterase and have a diameter of 14 to 20 um
Promyelocyte
52
The earliest granulocytic maturational stage in which secondary or specific granules appear is:
Myelocyte
53
The mature granulocytes seen in the peripheral blood of healthy persons include
*both A and B
- band form and segmented neutrophils
- eosinophil and basophil
54
The granules of segmented neutrophils contain
* all of the above
- lysosomal hydrolases
- lysozymes
- myeloperoxide
55
Which of the following are contents of basophilic granules?
*both A and B
- Heparin
- Histamine
56
The tissue basophil can be referred to as:
A mast cell
57
A leukocyte with the morphological characteristics of being the largest normal mature leukocyte in the peripheral blood and having a convoluted or twisted nucleus is the:
Monocyte
58
A cluster designation (CD) got specific lineages of cells
Indicates a known cluster of monoclonal antibodies binding to a known antigen
59
Cells of the mononuclear phagocyte system include:
* A and B
- monocytes
- macrophages
60
The immediate precursor of the macrophage is the:
Monocyte
61
Monocytes are capable of -
- phagocytosis
- synthesis of biologically important compounds
- assuming a killer role
62
Classical monocytes participate in immune body defense by:
Phagocytizing bacteria
63
The mononuclear phagocyte system consists of histiocytes. These cells can be found in the:
Loose connective tissue
64
The reference range for segmented neutrophil count in adults is:
40-74%
65
The total leukocyte count can be increased in certain states. Select the conditions when this is not true
Use of immunosuppressive agents
66
One the basis of the following data, calculate the absolute value of the segmented neutrophils. Total leukocyte count = 12 x 10^9/L; percentage of segmented neutrophils value is:
9.6 x 10^9/L
67
An adult female has a total WBC count of 5.5 x 10^9/L. Her leukocyte differential was segmented neutrophils 20%, eosinophils 4%, basophils 1%, monocytes 3%, and lymphocytes 68%. She is demonstrating:
Absolute neutropenia
68
An increase in metamyeocytes, myelocytes and promyelocytes can be referred to as:
A shift to the left
69
What is the normal reference range of the segmented neutrophil absolute value?
1.4 x 6 x 10^9/L
70
The absolute value of segmented neutrophils can be an unreliable indicator of overwhelming infection because:
It drops in many patients because the circulating granulocytes are mobilized into the tissue site of infection
71
The functions of monocytes and macrophages include all of the following functions except:
Synthesize growth inhibitory factors
72
MI macrophages mainly:
Secrete proinflammatory cytokines
73
The major function of neutrophilic granulocytes is:
Phagocytosis
74
The major function of eosinophils is:
Suppression of inflammatory reactions
75
The principle leukocyte type involved in phagocytosis is the:
Neutrophil
76
The correct sequences of events in successful phagocytosis is are:
Chemotaxis
Opsonization
Phagosome formation
The action of antibacterial substances
77
Neutrophils function as phagocytic cells in the circulating blood
When the bacteria enter the circulation
78
Why are mature neutrophils more easily able to enter the circulating blood from the bone marrow than immature neutrophils?
They have plasticity that allows them to squeeze through the endothelial cells that line bone marrow sinusoids
79
The value of the LAP stain is to
Differentiate malignant disorders from leukemoid reactions
80
Lymph nodes are:
Secondary lymphoid tissue
81
Liver is
Not a lymphoid tissue
82
Spleen is:
Secondary lymphoid tissue
83
Red Bone Marrow is:
Primary lymphoid tissue
84
The thymus is
Primary lymphoid tissue
85
Peyers patch is:
Secondary lymphoid tissue
86
The T cells are found in the
* all of above
- perifollicular areas of the lymph nodes
- paracortex regions of the lymph nodes
- periarteriolar regions of the spleen
87
A major site of B-lymphocyte localization and proliferation is:
Lymphoid follicles
88
The process of lymphocyte recirculation is important in:
Commitment of lymphocytes to T and B cells
89
T lymphocytes constitutes ______ % of the blood lymphocytes pool in adults.
60-85%
90
Lymphocytes represent approximately _______% of the total circulating leukocytes in adults
35
91
The percentage of lymphocytes as compared with the other types of leukocytes in the peripheral blood ______ as humans age
Decreases
92
If an adult patient has a total leukocyte count of 20 x 10^9/L and a 50% lymphocyte count on the differential count, the absolute lymphocyte value is ________ x 10^9/L
10
93
If an adult has a percentage of lymphocyte exceeding the normal reference range this is called:
Relative lymphocytosis
94
If an adult female has a total WBC count of 4.6 x 10^9/L and a leukocyte differential on segmented neutrophils 24%, eosinophils 4%, monocytes 8%, and lymphocytes 64%, she is demonstrating
Relative lymphocytosis
95
As a lymphocyte matures, the nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio
Increases
96
As a lymphocyte matures, the overall size generally ________ in older cells.
Decreases
97
As a lymphocyte matures, the number of nucleoli
Decreases
98
As a lymphocyte matures, the chromatin clumping
Increases
99
As a lymphocyte matures, the quantity of cytoplasm
Decreases
100
The most characteristic morphological features of variant lymphocytes include:
Increased overall size, possibly one to three nucleoli, and abundant cytoplasm
101
Rieder’s cells are associated with:
CLL
102
Vacuolated lymphocytes are associated with
Niemann-Pick disease and Burkitt’s lymphoma
103
Crystalline inclusions are associated with:
B-cell lymphoproliferative disorder
104
Smudge cells are associated with:
CLL
105
Antibody production is associated with
Lymphocytes
106
T cells are responsible for:
* all of the above
- humoral immunity
- cell-mediated immunity
- growth and differentiation
107
Functions of sensitized T lymphocytes include:
*both A and B
- protection against intracellular pathogens
- chronic rejection in organ transplantation
108
A major function of CD4+ (Th2 subset) lymphocytes is
Extracellular bacteria defense
109
A patient with AIDS most likely has a decrease in
CD4+ cells
110
The CD markers including CD4 and CD8 are associated with:
T lymphocytes
111
The subset of B lymphocytes thta can produce light levels of IL-10 is
Regulator B cells
112
Antibody-independent role for B cells in immune reposes include:
Production of cytokines to shape type and strength of immune response
113
The effect of IL-21 on B lymphocytes is
Promoting differentiation of B cells to become plasma cells
114
One of the CD markers that distinguishes early-B cells from other maturational stages of B-cell development is:
CD10
115
Lymphocyte development in the thymus and bursal equivalent are:
Antigen independent
116
A characteristic feature of a early or immature B cell is
* both A and B
- cytoplasmic (cIg) immunoglobulin chains
- surface immunoglobulin (sIg) as IgM
117
The surface marker associated with B lymphocytes is
IgM
118
Mature B cells produces surface immunoglobulin (sIg)
* both A and B
- IgM
- IgD
119
A phenotypic marker of a distinct subset of NK cells is
CD56^bright
120
B lymphocytes
* both A and B
- are activated by antigens
- can secrete antibodies
121
Plasma cell are:
Terminally (end stage) of differentiated B cells
122
Long-lived plasma cells are generated in:
T-dependent germinal centers
123
An abnormal plasma cell with red-staining cytoplasm is a
Flame cells
124
Leukocytosis can be caused by
Increased movement of immature cells out of the bone marrow’s proliferative compartment
125
Neutrophilia can be related to a variety of conditions or disorders. Select the appropriate conditions:
Burns
126
A laboratory assay that can be used to differentiate a leukemoid reaction from chronic myelogenous leukemia is:
Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) stain
127
Charcot-Leyden crystals can be found in ______ of patients with active eosinophilic inflammation
* all of the above
- sputum
- tissues
- stool
128
Monocytosis can be observed in
*all of the above
- TB
- fever of unknown origin
- RA
129
Neutropenia can be observed in
* All of the above
- bone marrow injury
- nutritional deficiency
- increased destruction and utilization
130
Cyclic neutropenia is characterized by:
- early manifestation in infants
131
Pseudo-Pegler-Huet anomaly may be associated with the clinical condition of:
Acute infection
132
Which of the following is characteristic of Pelger-Huet anomaly?
Failure of the nucleus to Segment
133
Pelger-Huet anomaly may be
Related to a maturational arrest in some acute infections
134
Pelegrín-Huet anomaly can be differentiated from conditions with an increased percentage of
Hyposegmentation of neutrophils
135
Which of the following is characteristics of hypersegmentation?
Five or more nuclear segments
136
Hypersegmentation may be:
Associated with a deficiency of vitamin B12 of folic acid
137
Which of the following is characteristic of Dohle Body inclusions?
Single or mulitple pale-blue staining inclusions
138
Dohle bodies may be:
Associated with viral infections and burns
139
Which of the following is characteristic of of toxic granulation?
Dark blue-black precipitates RNA
140
In the United Sates, human diseases caused by Ehrlichia species can be caused by:
*All of the above
- E. Chaffeensis
- E. Ewing II
- E. Phagocytophilia
141
Ehrlichiosis is transmitted by ________
Ticks
142
Which of the following is characteristic of May-Hegglin anomaly?
Dohle body-like inclusions and giant platelets
143
May-Hegelian can be differentiated from similar conditions by:
Presence of abnormally large platelets
144
Which of the following is characteristic of Chekiak-Higashi syndrome?
Gigantic peroxidase-positive deposits
145
Cheddar Higashi syndrome may be
Associated with frequent infections in children or young adults
146
Chediak-Higashi syndrome is associated with the:
Neutrophilic series
147
Chediak-Higashi syndrome can be differentiate from other intracellular inclusions by:
Abnormal inclusions in neutrophils and lymphocytes
148
Which of the following is characteristic of Alder-Reilly inclusions?
Precipitated mucopolysaccharides
149
Cytoplasmic inclusion in Alder-Reilly anomaly can resemble
Very coarse toxic granulation
150
The granulocyte disorder most closely associated with cytoplasmic granule fusion is:
Alder-Reilly anomaly
151
Chronic granulomatous disease is associated with the Cells of the
Neutrophilic series
152
Lazy leukocyte syndrome is associated with the:
Neutrophilic serious
153
Gaucher’s disease is associated with
Monocytic-macrophage series
154
Niemann-Pick disease associated with
Monocytic-macrophage series
155
Gaucher’s cells have:
A deficiency of Beta-glucocerebrosidase
156
Lymphocytopenia means a
Total decrease in lymphocytes
157
Radiation exposure results in
Lymphocytopenia
158
Cytotoxic drugs results in
Lymphocytopenia
159
Examples of viral diseases with lymphocyte involvement include:
*all of the above
- IM
- CMV
- AIDS
160
The IM results in:
Lymphocytosis
161
Whooping cough results in:
Lymphocytosis
162
Toxoplasmosis results in
Lymphocytosis
163
The helper subset of T lymphocytes is _______ in AIDS
Decreased
164
Immune deficiency disorders result in:
Lymphocytopenia
165
Which of the following characterizes IM?
Etiology: EBV
166
The laboratory findings in IM are generally characterized by:
An increase in variant lymphocytes
167
EBV infects lymphocytes by attaching to what receptor?
CD4
168
On a peripheral blood smear examination, the variant (atypical) lymphocytes have the characteristics of ________origin
T-cell
169
The EBV virus infects
B cells
170
Which of the following are characterizes reactive lymphocytosis?
Lymphocyte counts of 20-50 x 10^9/L
171
Which of the following are characteristics of CMV infection?
Etiology: a herpes family virus
172
AIDS is caused by:
HIV-1
173
Which of the following generally characterize(s) toxoplasmosis?
* all of the above
- symptoms may resemble IM
- occurrence in pregnant women who own cats
- etiology: parasitic
174
Which antibody test has replaced the LE cell preparation in the diagnosis of SLE?
ANA test
175
Whatis the appropriate reagent for the reticulocyte count?
New methylene blue
176
What is the appropriate procedure and characteristics for the Westergren methods?
The procedure measures the rate of of erythrocyte settling
177
What source of error will have the greatest effect on test results?
Excessive anticoagulants will produce shrinkage of cells
178
In a platelet count, what error will have the greatest effect on the test result?
Specimens stored at room temperature for more than 5 hours will produce inaccurate results
179
In a reticulocyte count, what error will have the greatest effect on the test result?
Refractile bodies can produce a false-positive observations
180
The correct reference value for erythrocyte count for adult male is:
4.5-5.9 x 10^9/L
181
The correct reference value for Hb assay for adult females?
12.0-16.0 g/dL
182
The correct reference value for absolute lymphocyte (adult) is
1.2-3.4 x 10^9/L
183
The reference value for the leukocyte count is:
4.5 x 11.0. X 10^9/L
184
The reference value for PCV in adult females is:
36-45%
185
The reference value for direct platelet count is
150 x 400 x 10^9/L
186
The reference value for the reticulocyte count (newborn infants)
2.5-6.5%
187
The reference value for the Westerngren ESR method (adult male over 50) is
Up to 15 mm/h
188
What clinical or specimen condition will produce an increased total leukocyte count?
Inflammation
189
Which clinical or specimen condition will produce an increased PCV?
Polycythemia
190
Which clinical or specimen condition will produce an increased reticulocyte count test results?
Hemolytic anemia crisis
191
Which clinical specimen or condition will produce an increased Westergren ESR method test results?
Rouleaux formation
192
Which clinical conditions will produce an increased value of neutrophils?
Bacterial infections
193
What clinical condition will produce an increased value of lymphocytes?
Viral infection
194
What clinical condition will produce an increased value of monocytes?
TB
195
What clinical condition will produce an increased value of eosinophils?
Invasive parasites
196
What clinical condition will produce a decreased reticulocyte count?
Megaloblastic anemia
197
What clinical conditions will produce a decreased Westergren ESR values?
Polycythemia Vera
198
A normal blood smear should have no more than approximately________ (max) number for platelets per oil immersion field in an area where the erythrocytes are just touching each other
20
199
The PCV procedure can be affected by the:
*all of the above
- speed of the centrifuge
- length of time centrifuged
- ratio of anticoagulant to whole blood
200
Which of the following erythrovytic inclusions contain RNA and can be observed by staining with new methylene blue?
Reticulocytes
201
The sedimentation rate of erythrocytes can be affected by the:
* all of them
- ratio of anticoagulant to whole blood
- position of tube
- temperature of the specimen or laboratory
202
Cellulose acetate at pH 8.6 separates the Hb fractions
*both A and C
S
A
203
If an alkaline (pH 8.6) electrophoresis is performed, Hb E has the same mobility as Hb?
A
204
Heinz bodies are:
Denatured by crystal violet stain
205
Prussian Blue stain produces:
Precipitation of free iron into blue or blue-green granules
206
Periodic acid-Schaffer produces
Intense cytoplasmic granular staining particles in erythroleukemia
207
Peroxidase stain produces
Non-staining in lymphocytes
208
The result for an Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) stain is:
Normal, if the result is 32-182 with fast blue RR dye
209
Leukocytes that demonstrate a positive reaction in tartaric acid-resistant phosphatase cytochemical staining are the lymphocytes seen in
Hairy cell Leukemia
210
LAP blood smears should be stained with ______ of specimen collection
8 hours
211
What is the white cell with at LEAST two lobes?
Polysegmented neutrophil
212
A WBC with red/orange granules
Eosinophils
213
What carries blood histamine?
Basophil
214
Describe a Promyelocyte
Size = 14-20 um
N:C ratio = 3.1
Nucleus = oval
Nucleoli = 1-5
Chromatin = smooth
Cytoplasm = non-specific granules, moderate blue
215
What are the steps of phagocytosis?
- engulfment
- formation of phagosome
- formation of phagolysosome
- digestion
216
Chemical stains to differentiate leukemoid reaction from CML
LAP (leukocyte alkaline phosphatase)?
217
How is an absolute count obtained?
Multiplying the total WBC by the % of the type of cell question
218
Describe ESR
- nonspecific indicator of infection
- that must be set up within 2 hours of collection
- that sits undisturbed for an hour
- that cannot be moved or jarred during its hour resting
- normal values for men: 0-10; women: 0-20
219
What are three conditions that would increase eosinophils?
- allergy
- drug reaction
- parasitic infections
- collagen disease
- Hodgkins disease
- myeloproliferative diseases
220
When are LE cells seen?
When blood cells are ruptured and nuclear material is released, which interacts with specific antibody by phagocytosis
221
Where do T-cells mature and differetiate?
Thymus
222
What is the cell that is fully differentiated B cells and its function?
- plasma cells
- making antibodies
223
What is the % of T and B cells in circulation?
- 80-85% —> T-cells
- 10-15% —> B cells
224
What organs are primary lymphoid tissue?
Thymus and bone marrow
225
What are the organs of secondary lymphoid tissue?
- Spleen
- Lymph nodes
- Peyers patch
- GALT
226
What is the increase of white cells?
Leukocytosis
227
What is the decrease of white cells?
Leukocytopenia
228
What are the 4 reasons for neutrophilia?
- inflammation conditions
- infection
- surgery
- Burns
- Stress
- Drug/Hormones
- Malignant - Leukemia
229
Describe Pelegrín-Huet anomaly
Genetic, benign anomaly where 90% of the neutrophils are bi-lobed.
230
Describe Psuedo-Pelegrín Huet
May be drug induced or may occur in a maturational arrest associated with some acute infection
231
Describe May-Hegglin Anomaly
Genetic condition characterized by the presence of Dohle-like bodies in neutrophils, eosinophils and monocytes
232
What condition are toxic granulation and Dohle bodies seen in?
- neutrophils in infectious state
—> burns
—> malignant disorders
—> drug therapy
- monocytes in viral infections
—> burns
—> certian drugs
—> May-Hegglin (Dohle body)
233
What are 5 causes of lymphocytosis?
- IM
- Infectious hepatitis
- CMV
- mumps
- varicella
- rubeola
- rubella
- atypical pneumonia
- TB
- toxoplasmosis
234
Describe infectious lymphocytosis
An acute poorly defined mild benign condition caused by a virus (probably Coxsackie) seen in mainly in children
235
Describe Toxoplasmosis
A widespread disease that occurs in humans and animals whose definitive host is cats. Pregnant women who get this parasite can pass it along to their unborn child
236
What are the disease conditions are caused by EBV
- IM
- Burkett’s lymphoma
- Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
- Neoplasm’s of the thymus, parotid gland and Supra-glottic larynx
237
What are 2 conditions that cause leukocpenia?
- DiGeorge syndrome
- AIDS
- SLE
238
Decribe Bordetalla pertussis
- also called whooping cough
- causes leukocytosis as high as 100,000.
- caused by a gram-negative bacillus
- More than one million deaths a year and people are the only natural host
