Unit 6: Ch 50 (Porth's 5th Ed) - Disorders of Musculoskeletal Function: Rheumatic Disorders Flashcards

1
Q
  1. A 68-year-old woman has had her mobility and quality of life severely affected by
    rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Place the following pathophysiological events involved in her
    health problem in the correct order that they most likely occurred. Use all the options.
    A) Inflammatory response
    B) Interaction between rheumatoid factor (RF) and IgG
    C) T-cell–mediated immune response
    D) Pannus invasion
    E) Destruction of articular cartilage
A

Ans: C, B, A, D, E
Feedback:
RA is thought to begin with a T-cell–mediated immune response that precipitates
interaction between IgG and RF that constitutes an immune response. Pannus invasion
is one consequence of this interaction, the ultimate result of which is destruction of
cartilage.

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2
Q
  1. Following a progressive onset of fatigue, aching, and joint stiffness over the last 2 years,
    a 69-year-old male has recently been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which
    of the following teaching points should his primary care physician include during the
    office visit in which this diagnosis is communicated to the client?
    A) “The symptoms you’ve been experiencing are the result of damage inside your
    joints, but I’ll start you medications that will reverse this damage.”
    B) “It’s important that you maximize your level of activity, since decreasing your
    mobility will worsen the disease.
    C) “The best treatment plan is to try all other available treatments before resorting to
    using medications.”
    D) “Steroids and anti-inflammatory drugs that I’ll prescribe will likely bring some
    relief to your symptoms.”
A

Ans: D
Feedback:
Current treatment guidelines for RA involve early and aggressive pharmacological
treatment, including NSAIDs and corticosteroids. Damage cannot be reversed, and
while therapeutic exercise plays a role in treatment, rest is also important

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3
Q
  1. The physician is considering prescribing an anti-tumor necrosis factor (TNF) like
    infliximab for a rheumatoid arthritis patient. Which of the following statements is
    accurate about the advantages of using a TNF inhibitor?
    A) “Since TNF inhibitors have few side effects, these drugs will fit well into your
    regimen.”
    B) “Your disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) methotrexate has more
    cardiovascular side effects than TNF inhibitors.”
    C) “TNF inhibitors help slow the disease progression and improve your ability to
    perform routine ADL functions.”
    D) “Not only do TNF inhibitors control your disease better but they also will
    interrupt the inflammatory cascade at several levels.”
A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Second-line antirheumatic drugs include anti-TNF drugs such as etanercept, infliximab,
and adalimumab. These drugs are biologic response–modifying agents or TNF
inhibitors that block TNF-a, one of the key proinflammatory cytokines in RA.
Anti-TNF-a agents have shown significant efficacy although they do have some
potential adverse side effects. Evidence indicates that CV side effects are not different
for TNF inhibitors than for DMARDs. The TNF inhibitor agents also have been shown
to inhibit radiologic disease progression and improve functional outcomes.

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4
Q
  1. A physician is attempting a differential diagnosis of a 30-year-old female who is
    suspected of having systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which of the following
    aspects of the physician’s assessment and the client’s history would be considered
    potentially indicative of SLE? Select all that apply.
    A) The client has a “butterfly rash” on her nose and cheeks.
    B) She complains of intermittent joint pain.
    C) The woman states that she has numerous environmental allergies.
    D) The client has been hospitalized twice in the past for pleural effusions.
    E) Blood work indicates low red cells, white cells, and platelets.
A

Ans: A, B, D, E
Feedback:
A butterfly rash, joint pain, pleural effusion, and low levels of blood cellular
components are all associated with SLE. Environmental allergies are not noted to be risk
factors or associated symptoms of the disease.

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5
Q
  1. A new patient arrives at the clinic. The physician is suspecting that the patient may have
    systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) given the clinical manifestations related to joint
    pain, skin changes, and a history of pleural effusions. The nurse should anticipate which
    of the following diagnostic test will be a priority to facilitate with the diagnosis?
    A) Anti-DNA antibody test
    B) Routine hemoglobin
    C) C-reactive protein
    D) B-cell lymphocytes
A

Ans: A
Feedback:
Ninety-five percent of people with untreated SLE have high ANA levels. However,
ANA is not specific for SLE. The anti-DNA antibody test is more specific for the
diagnosis of SLE. Hemoglobin may be low if the patient has severe anemia, but it is not
specific for SLE. C-reactive protein will show an inflammatory response but again not
specific for SLE.

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6
Q
  1. A 44-year-old woman who has a long-standing diagnosis of SLE has been able to
    control her symptoms with lifestyle modifications for several years, but has presented to
    her care provider due to recent exacerbation. Which of the following pharmacological
    treatment options is her care provider most likely to rule out first?
    A) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
    B) Corticosteroids
    C) Antiplatelet aggregator
    D) Immunosuppressive drugs
A

Ans: C
Feedback:
While NSAIDs, corticosteroids, and immunosuppressives are all noted treatment
options for SLE, antiplatelet aggregators are unlikely to address the etiology or signs
and symptoms of the disease. A new drug that has shown positive effects in decreasing
inflammatory exacerbations for people with SLE is Belimumab, which is a monoclonal
antibody that inhibits B-lymphocyte stimulator.

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7
Q
  1. A 36-year-old female who has experienced diverse symptoms for several years has
    finally had her health problems attributed to scleroderma (systemic sclerosis) and has
    committed herself to learning as much about the disease as she can. Which of her
    following statements would her nurse want to correct or clarify?
    A) “I’m surprised that in this day and age, they still don’t know what causes
    scleroderma.”
    B) “I suppose this explains why I have such terrible circulation to my hands and
    feet.”
    C) “I’m scared by the damage that this could cause to my heart and lungs.”
    D) “The worst part of this so far has been learning that there aren’t any treatments for
    scleroderma.”
A

Ans: D
Feedback:
While the cause of scleroderma remains unknown, supportive treatments that address
symptoms do exist. Reynaud phenomenon is a very common accompaniment to the
disease, and cardiac and pulmonary involvement is common.

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8
Q
  1. When working with a patient with diffuse scleroderma who is exhibiting a “stone face”
    expression, the nurse should consider which of the following to be a priority nursing
    diagnosis for this patient?
    A) Ineffective tissue perfusion related to tightening of the facial skin
    B) Activity intolerance related to muscle tightening in lower extremities
    C) Oral mucous membrane, impaired due to restricted motion of the mouth
    D) Aspiration, risk related to swallowing impairments
A

Ans: D
Feedback:
Diffuse scleroderma is characterized by severe and progressive disease of the skin and
the early onset of organ involvement. The typical person has a “stone facies” due to
tightening of the facial skin with restricted motion of the mouth. Involvement of the
esophagus leads to hypomotility and difficulty in swallowing. The other NANDAs
would be of lower priority if at all given the assessment data presented.

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9
Q
  1. A 16-year-old boy has been diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis. Which of the
    following etiologies is responsible for his health problem?
    A) Infection
    B) Friction between bones
    C) Immune response
    D) Inappropriate bone remodeling
A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Ankylosing spondylitis is thought to have an etiology that suggests an immune
response. Physical wear and tear, infection, and inappropriate remodeling are not
considered primarily responsible for the disease.

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following pathophysiological phenomena would be most indicative of
    ankylosing spondylitis?
    A) Loss of motion in the spinal column and eventual kyphosis
    B) A progressive loss of range of motion in the knee and hip joints
    C) A facial “butterfly rash” and multiorgan involvement
    D) Decreased bone density in long bones
A

Ans: A
Feedback:
The characteristic trait of ankylosing spondylitis is progressive loss of the spinal ROM
and eventual kyphosis. Synovial joint involvement is not associated with the disease,
and a butterfly rash and multisystem involvement are associated with SLE. Decreased
bone density does not normally accompany ankylosing spondylitis.

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11
Q
  1. When educating the patient with ankylosing spondylitis, the nurse should emphasize
    which of the following treatment interventions? Select all that apply.
    A) Encourage sleeping supine on an extra firm mattress if possible.
    B) Prop self up in bed with extra pillows if having respiratory congestion.
    C) Try using the heating pad prior to exercise to help stretching and improve
    movement.
    D) Wear a knee immobilizer while biking to facilitate ability to exercise for longer
    periods.
    E) Modify diet to include more protein from red meats and green vegetables for
    vitamin K.
A

Ans: A, C
Feedback:
Treatment of ankylosing spondylitis is directed at controlling pain and maintaining
mobility by suppressing inflammation. Proper posture and position are important. This
includes sleeping in a supine position on a firm mattress using one small pillow.
Therapeutic exercises are important. Heat applications or a shower or bath may be
beneficial before exercise to improve ease of movement. Swimming is an excellent
exercise. Immobilizing joints is not recommended. Maintaining ideal weight reduces the
stress on weight-bearing joints. However, dietary changes are usually very
individualized.

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following individuals is most likely to develop a form of reactive arthritis?
    A) A 24-year-old male who completed treatment for a chlamydial infection 1 year
    ago
    B) A 46-year-old female who has a long-standing diagnosis of systemic lupus
    erythematosus
    C) A 3-year-old girl who was born with a 20-degree congenital scoliosis
    D) A 79-year-old male who had a total hip replacement 2 months prior
A

Ans: A
Feedback:
Reactive arthritis and Reiter syndrome, in particular, are precipitated by time-distant
bacterial infections; Chlamydia trachomatis is frequently implicated. SLE, scoliosis, and
hip fractures and/or surgery are not noted risk factors for the health problem.

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13
Q
  1. While speaking to a senior citizen club about osteoarthritis (OA), which of the following
    facts are accurate to share? Select all that apply.
    A) By the time you are in your 70s, about 85% of adults will have some form of OA
    B) Men usually get OA in their hands, whereas women get OA primarily in their hips
    C) Obesity in women has been correlated to having OA in the knees
    D) Heredity does not play a significant role in the development of OA
A

Ans: A, C
Feedback:
Eighty-five percent of people with OA are in their 70s. Men are affected more
commonly at a younger age. Heredity influences the occurrence of hand OA in the DIP
joint. Hand OA is more likely to affect white women, whereas knee OA is more
common in black women. Obesity is a particular risk factor for OA of the knee in
women.

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14
Q
  1. Due to her progressing osteoarthritis (OA), an 80-year-old woman is no longer able to
    perform her activities of daily living without assistance. Which of the following
    phenomena most likely underlies the woman’s situation?
    A) Inappropriate T-cell–mediated immune responses have resulted in articular
    cartilage degeneration.
    B) Loss of articular cartilage and synovitis has resulted from inflammation caused
    when joint cartilage attempted to repair itself.
    C) Excessive collagen deposits have accumulated in the woman’s synovial joints.
    D) Bone overgrowth in synovial joints has resulted in fusing of adjacent bones that
    normally articulate.
A

Ans: B
Feedback:
The joint changes associated with osteoarthritis, which include a progressive loss of
articular cartilage and synovitis, result from the inflammation caused when cartilage
attempts to repair itself, creating osteophytes or spurs. These changes are accompanied
by joint pain, stiffness, limitation of motion, and in some cases by joint instability and
deformity. Immune etiology is more associated with rheumatoid arthritis, and collagen
deposits are characteristic of scleroderma. Bones do not tend to fuse in the pathogenesis
of OA.

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15
Q
  1. A 64-year-old man was diagnosed 19 months ago with bilateral osteoarthritis (OA) in
    his knees, and has come to his family physician for a checkup. The client and his
    physician are discussing the effects of his health problems and the measures that the man
    has taken to accommodate and treat his OA in his daily routines. Which of the following
    statements by the client would necessitate further teaching?
    A) “I’m really trying to lose weight, and I’ve been able to lose 15 lb this year so far.”
    B) “I’ve been doing muscle-strengthening exercises twice a week at the community
    center near my house.”
    C) “Even though I don’t like it, I’ve been using my walker to take some of the weight
    off my knees.”
    D) “I’ve been avoiding painkillers because I know they can mask damage that I might
    be inflicting on my knees.”
A

Ans: D
Feedback:
Analgesics are a common and appropriate treatment for OA, and it would be
unnecessary and inappropriate to forego pain control in order to maximize pain signals
from affected joints. Weight loss, the use of assistive devices, and muscle-strengthening
exercises are appropriate treatments for OA.

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16
Q
  1. While reviewing the following diagnostic findings on a group of patients with joint
    complaints, which finding would be a priority for further investigation and possible
    medical intervention?
    A) A male client has elevated levels of serum uric acid but lacks symptoms.
    B) Synovial fluid aspiration indicates the presence of monosodium urate crystals.
    C) A man reveals that he eats organ meat two to three times weekly.
    D) A 55-year-old male reveals that it takes a day or two for oral colchicines to relive
    his attacks of gout
A

Ans: B
Feedback:
The presence of crystalline deposits in synovial fluid confirms a diagnosis of gout and
would necessitate further investigation and/or treatment. Hyperuricemia is not
necessarily indicative of gout, and while diet can contribute to gout, this would not
necessarily require modification in the absence of gout. Oral colchicine often takes 48
hours to take effect during an acute attack of gout.

17
Q
  1. A male patient in his 50s has just been diagnosed with hyperuricemia. He has had
    multiple flare-ups of his first metatarsophalangeal joint pain and swelling. The pain is so
    severe that he cannot sleep with any covers/sheets over his feet at night. The nurse
    should anticipate that the patient will likely be prescribed: Select all that apply.
    A) Tylenol (acetaminophen) for the pain.
    B) allopurinol (Zyloprim) to decrease uric acid levels.
    C) calcium carbonate used to increase the intake of of calcium.
    D) Anturane (sulfinpyrazone) to increase excretion of urate.
    E) sevelamer (Renagel) to reduce the absorption of phosphate.
A

Ans: B, D
Feedback:
Treatment of hyperuricemia is aimed at maintaining normal uric acid levels and is
lifelong. One method is to reduce hyperuricemia through the use of allopurinol.
Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase, an enzyme needed for the conversion of
hypoxanthine to xanthine and xanthine to uric acid as does a newer medication,
Febuxostat. The uricosuric drugs (sulfinpyrazone) prevent tubular reabsorption of urate
and increase its excretion in the urine. NSAIDs, not Tylenol, are usually prescribed for
the pain. Calcium does not play a factor in gout. Sevelamer (Renagel), to reduce the
absorption of Phosphate, is primarily used in renal failure patients.

18
Q
  1. A 7-year-old boy has been diagnosed with juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA), and his
    parents are anxious to know how his health problem will affect his short-term and
    longer-term future. What can his health care provider most accurately tell the family?
    A) “Because JIA is an autoimmune disease, the long-term prognosis is quite poor and
    his mobility is likely to decline over time.”
    B) “The earlier that we can schedule joint replacement surgeries, the better his
    prognosis will be.”
    C) “With appropriate use of anti-inflammatory drugs along with lifestyle
    modifications, your son stands a good chance of leading a normal life.”
    D) “We can relieve many of the symptoms or JIA and ensure his mobility, but there
    is a risk he’ll develop a systemic immune response beyond his joints.”
A

Ans: C
Feedback:
NSAIDs, biologic response modifiers, and lifestyle modifications allow for a positive
prognosis with most cases of JIA. Surgery is not necessarily indicated, and JIA is not
noted to precipitate a systemic immune response.

19
Q
  1. An 8-year-old child has just been diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).
    The parents wonder what the child’s prognosis is going to be. Which of the following
    findings would be considered a good prognostic indicator of the extent/seriousness of
    the disease?
    A) Complaints of arthralgias and arthritis in joints with movement
    B) Ligaments and tendons hurt during passive ROM
    C) Has a rash on the nose and cheeks
    D) Swelling in the face and eyes and rust/blood-colored urine
A

Ans: D
Feedback:
The clinical manifestations of SLE in children reflect the extent and severity of systemic
involvement. The best prognostic indicator in children is the extent of renal
involvement, which is more common and more severe in children than in adults with
SLE. Edema and rusty or bloody urine are classic signs of glomerulonephritis. It is
expected that people/children with SLE have arthralgias/arthritis in joints, sore
ligaments and tendons, as well as integumentary signs and symptoms like a rash on the
nose and cheeks (butterfly rash).

20
Q
  1. Although the client’s primary care provider has downplayed the symptoms, a
    geriatrician suspects that an 82-year-old female has polymyalgia rheumatica. Which
    characteristic symptomatology would most likely have led the specialist to suspect this
    health problem?
    A) Extended periods of walking cause pain that extends from her ankles, knees, and
    sciatic nerve.
    B) The woman complains of aching and morning stiffness in her neck, shoulder, and
    pelvis.
    C) Range of motion in the woman’s wrists and ankles is greatest in the morning and
    decreases over the course of a day.
    D) The woman’s metatarsal joints are inflamed and sensitive to touch.
A

Ans: B
Feedback:
Polymyalgia rheumatica is an inflammatory condition of unknown origin characterized
by aching and morning stiffness in the cervical regions and shoulder and pelvic girdle
areas. Lower limb pain, wrist and ankle stiffness, and pain in the joints of the foot would
not be as clearly suggestive of polymyalgia rheumatica