Unit 8: NURSING CARE OF MALE AND FEMALE CLIENTS WITH GENERAL AND SPECIFIC PROBLEMS IN REPRODUCTION AND SEXUALITY Flashcards

(139 cards)

1
Q

Most abundant male sex hormone

A

Testosterone

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2
Q

Normal acidic pH of vagina

A

4-5

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3
Q

Oviduct is aka

A

Fallopian Tube

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4
Q

Common Fertilization Site

A

Ampulla

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5
Q

Not being pregnant after at least one year of unprotected sex

A

Infertility

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6
Q

Inability to conceive because of a known condition

A

Sterility

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7
Q

Normal BMI Range

A

18.5-24-9

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8
Q

_______ is a noncancerous condition resulting from fibrous scar tissue that develops on the penis and causes curved, painful erections

A

Peyronie’s (pay-roe-NEEZ) disease

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9
Q

Phosphodiesterase inhibitor that has a vasoconstricting effect

A

Viagra

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10
Q

Most common cause of subfertility in women

A

Anovulation

Absence of ovulation

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11
Q

A belief that the human body is not something one should be ashamed of but should be exposed in the public

A

Nudism

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12
Q

On what part of the testes is sperm made?

A

Convoluted seminiferous tubules

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13
Q

It is where the sperm is stored

A

Epididymis

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14
Q

How many days does the sperm stay in the epididymis before moving to the vas deferens?

A

2-10 days

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15
Q

Vas deferens aka

A

Ductus Deferens

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16
Q

Secrete a viscous alkaline liquid with a high sugar, protein, and prostaglandin content.

A

Seminal vesicles

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17
Q

Secretes a thin, alkaline fluid, which further protects sperm by increasing the naturally low pH level of the urethra.

A

Prostate Gland

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18
Q

Bulbourethral Glands are aka

A

Cowper’s glands

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19
Q

Supplies one more source of alkaline fluid to help ensure the safe passage of spermatozoa

A

Bulbourethral Glands

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20
Q

Consists of the seminal vesicles, the prostate gland, and the bulbourethral glands

A

Accessory Glands

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21
Q
  • Nourishes the sperm
  • Protects the sperm from the acidic environment of the woman’s vagina
  • Enhances the motility (movement) of the sperm
A

Accessory Glands

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22
Q

Is a tubular structure made of muscle and membranous tissue that connects the external genitalia to the uterus

A

Vagina

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23
Q

Normal Acidic pH of the vagina

A

4-5

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24
Q
  • Provides a passageway for sperm to enter the uterus
  • Allows drainage of menstrual fluids and other secretions
  • Provides a passageway for the infant’s birth
A

Vagina

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25
is a hollow muscular Organ in which a fertilized ovum is implanted, an embryo forms, and a fetus develops
Uterus
26
3 parts of the Uterus
Fundus Corpus Cervix
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The neck of the uterus
Cervix
28
Inner or mucosal layer that is functional during menstruation and implantation of the fertilized ovum
Endometrium
29
The fallopian tube is aka ____ and _____
Uterine Tube | Oviduct
30
4 sections of the fallopian tube
Interstitial portion
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Section of the fallopian tube that extends into the uterine cavity and lies within the wall of the uterus
Interstitial portion
32
Section of the fallopian tube which is a narrow area near the uterus
Isthmus
33
Section of the fallopian tube which is the wider area of the tube and is the usual site of fertilization
Ampulla
34
Section of the fallopian tube which is the funnel-like enlarged distal end of the tube
Infundibulum
35
How frequent does one ovum mature and released from the ovary?
Every month
36
Are two almond-shaped glands, each about the size of a walnut
Ovaries
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- Production of hormones, chiefly estrogen and progesterone | - Stimulation of an ovum’s maturation during each menstrual cycle
Ovaries
38
Inability to conceive a child or sustain a pregnancy to birth
Infertility
39
A couple is said to be ____if they have not become pregnant after at least 1 year of unprotected sex
infertile
40
Infertility is considered to be a diagnosis for couples who have not achieved pregnancy after 1 year of regular, unprotected intercourse when the woman is less than ____years of age or after____ months when the woman is older than ____
35 6 35
41
Term more often used rather than Infertility
Subfertility
42
Type of subfertility when there have been no previous conceptions
Primary Subfertility
43
Type of subfertility for when there has been a previous viable pregnancy but the couple is unable to conceive at present
Secondary Subfertility
44
The chance of achieving pregnancy and subsequent live birth within one menstrual cycle
Fecundity
45
Is a condition related to infertility and refers to women who have difficulty getting pregnant or carrying a pregnancy to term.
Impaired fecundity
46
If a woman is younger than 35 years of age, it is usually suggested she have an evaluation after ____ of subfertility
1 year
47
If a woman is older than 35 years, she should be seen after ____ of subfertility
6 months
48
Fertility testing can be scheduled, such as not before age ___years and not after age ___years
18 | 45
49
3 Assessments for Subfertility Investigation (SOT)
``` Semen analysis (M) Ovulation monitoring (F) Tubal patency (F) ```
50
sperm count is the number of sperm in a single ejaculation or in a ____ of semen
milliliter
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The minimum sperm count considered normal has: | ___ to ___ million sperm per ml of seminal fluid, or ___million per ejaculation
33 46 50
52
The minimum sperm count considered normal has: | ____ of sperm that are motile
50%
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The minimum sperm count considered normal has: | ___ of sperm that are normal in shape and form
30%
54
Type of sperm motility where the sperm swims in mostly straight line or large circles.
Progressive Motility
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Type of sperm motility where the sperm do not travel in straight lines or that swim in very tight circles.
Non-Progressive Motility
56
Healthy sperm motility -sperm with forward progressions of at least ___micrometers per second
25
57
Is diagnosed when less than 32 percent of the sperm are able to move efficiently
Poor sperm motility or asthenozoospermia
58
- absence of sperm | - absence of spermatozoa in the semen or the inability to ejaculate semen.
Aspermia
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-fewer than 20 million sperm per milliliter
Oligospermia-
60
Basic test for male infertility
Semen Analysis
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In semen analysis, a male should produce a minimum of ___ to ____ of semen
1.4-1.7 mL
62
Medical treatment for premature ejaculation
Dapoxetine
63
2 phosphodiesterase inhibitors for the treatment of Premature ejaculation
Sildenafil (Viagra) | Tadalafil (Cialis)
64
Most common cause of subfertility in women
Anovulation
65
The most frequent cause of anovulation is the naturally occurring variations in _____ or _____
Ovulatory patterns | Polycystic Ovary Syndrome
66
a sonographic examination of the fallopian tubes and uterus using an ultrasound contrast agent introduced into the uterus through a narrow catheter inserted into the uterine cervix followed by intravaginal scanning
Sonohysterosalpingogram
67
a radiopaque contrast medium is used and the fallopian tubes are revealed by X-ray
Hysterosalpingogram
68
allows direct visualization of the female peritoneal cavity
Transvaginal Hydrolaparoscopy
69
most effective therapy in younger women with distal tubal damage
laparoscopic surgery
70
fibroids that grow within the muscular uterine wall
Intramural fibroids
71
fibroids that bulge into the uterine cavity
Submucosal fibroids
72
fibroids that project to the outside of the uterus.
Subserosal fibroids
73
refers to the implantation of uterine endometrium, or nodules, that have spread from the interior of the uterus to locations outside the uterus
Endometriosis
74
most common type of abnormal uterine development
Septate Uterus
75
therapy to increase mucus production during days 5 to 10 of the cycle
low-dose estrogen therapy
76
is the instillation of sperm from a masturbatory sample into the female reproductive tract by means of a cannula to aid conception at the time of ovulation
IUI
77
Instead of waiting for fertilization to occur in the laboratory, both ova and sperm are instilled, within a matter of hours, using a laparoscopic technique, into the open end of a patent fallopian tube.
Gamete intrafallopian transfer
78
the egg is fertilized in the laboratory, and the fertilized egg is transferred by laparoscopic technique into the end of a waiting fallopian tube.
zygote intrafallopian transfer
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the oocyte is fertilized in the laboratory by the recipient woman’s partner’s sperm (or donor sperm) and placed in the recipient woman’s uterus by embryonic transfer
surrogate embryo transfer
80
Donor sperm are used to inseminate the female partner.
Therapeutic donor | insemination (TDI)
81
One sperm cell is selected to be injected directly into the | egg to achieve fertilization. It is used with IVF.
Intracytoplasmic sperm | injection
82
The zona pellucida is penetrated chemically or manually to create an opening for the dividing embryo to hatch and implant into the uterine wall.
Assisted hatching
83
an individually expressed and highly personal phenomenon that evolves from life experiences.
Sexuality
84
how one values oneself as a sexual being
Sexual self-concept
85
a central part of the sense of self
Body image
86
one’s self-image as a | female or male
Gender identity
87
is the outward expression of a person’s | sense of maleness or femaleness as well as the expression of what is perceived as gender-appropriate behavior
Gender-role behavior
88
flexibility in gender roles is the belief that most characteristics and behaviors are human qualities that should not be limited to one specific gender or the other.
Androgyny
89
one’s attraction to people of the same sex, other sex, or both sexes
Sexual orientation
90
strong and persistent feelings of discomfort with one’s assigned gender or gender identity disorder
gender dysphoria
91
involves emotionally committed romantic partners engaging in sex with others, typically in the presence of one’s partner
swinging
92
constant, unremitting burning that is localized to the vulva with an acute onset.
Vulvodynia
93
causes severe pain only on touch or attempted vaginal entry
Vestibulitis
94
Counseling for Altered sexual Function (PLISSIT)
P -Permission giving LI -Limited information SS -Specific suggestions IT -Intensive therapy
95
more frequent chlamydia screening at __ intervals is indicated for MSM,
3-month
96
all pregnant women should be screened for chlamydia at their __prenatal visit
first
97
pregnant women under 25 and those at increased risk for chlamydia (e.g., women who have a new or more than one sex partner) should be screened again in their __trimester
third
98
pregnant women with chlamydial infection should be retested __weeks and __months after completion of recommended therapy.
3 ...3
99
an inflammation of the liver capsule and surrounding peritoneum, which is associated with right upper quadrant pain
PID that develop perihepatitis, or “Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome"
100
triad of symptoms (reactive arthritis, urethritis and conjunctivitis)
Reiter’s Syndrome
101
caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum
Syphilis
102
transmitted from person to person by direct contact with a sore, known as a chancre
Syphilis
103
Type of Syphilis has a sore or sores at the original site of infection
Primary Syphilis
104
Type of Syphilis | sores are usually firm, round, and painless.
Primary Syphilis
105
Type of Syphilis | sore usually lasts 3 to 6 weeks and heals regardless of whether or not the person received treatment
Primary Syphilis
106
Type of Syphilis | the rash can look like rough, red, or reddish brown spots on the palms of hands and/or the bottoms of feet
Secondary Syphilis
107
Type of Syphilis the rash usually won’t itch and it is sometimes so faint fever, swollen lymph glands, sore throat, patchy hair loss, headaches, weight loss, muscle aches, and fatigue (feeling very tired)
Secondary Syphilis
108
is a period of time when there are no visible signs or symptoms of syphilis
Latent Stage
109
Type of Syphilis can affect many different organ systems (heart and blood vessels, and the brain and nervous system) very serious and would occur 10–30 years after the infection began damages the internal organs and can result in death
Tertiary Syphilis
110
most common curable STD
Trichomoniasis
111
Trichomoniasis is caused by infection with | a protozoan parasite called _____
Trichomonas vaginalis
112
white, yellowish, or greenish copious watery, frothy vaginal discharge. is a sign of ____ in females
Trichomoniasis
113
Trichomoniasis is treated with ___ or ____
Metronidazole | Tinidazole
114
thick, white, cheesy or curd-like discharge in females is a sign of ___
candidiasis
115
plaque of cheesy material under foreskin of males is __
candidiasis
116
type of VVC which is not usually acquired through sexual intercourse
Uncomplicated VVC
117
type of VVC can occur concomitantly with STDs
Uncomplicated VVC
118
Vaginal cultures should be obtained from women with complicated VVC to confirm clinical diagnosis and identify unusual species, including nonalbicans species, particularly ___
Candida glabrata
119
first line maintenance regimen for RVVC
Fluconazole
120
Oral herpes is usually caused by the virus ____
HSV-1
121
Gonorrhea an STD caused by infection with the _____
Neisseria gonorrhoeae bacterium
122
white, yellow, or green discharge from the penis that usually appears one to fourteen days after infection is a sign of
Gonorrhea
123
urethritis with watery white discharge, which may become purulent. in men is a sign of ___
Gonorrhea
124
yellowish vaginal discharge painful or burning sensation when urinating vaginal bleeding between periods is a sign of
Gonorrhea
125
most common sexually transmitted infection (STI)
human papillomavirus infection
126
most recognized sign of genital human papillomavirus (HPV) infection
Genital warts
127
Genital warts is aka
Condyloma Acuminatum
128
HPV types___and ___are usually associated with genital warts
6 | 11
129
on dry skin areas, lesions are hard and yellow-gray in males
HPV
130
on moist areas, lesions are pink orred and soft with a cauliflower-like appearance in males
HPV
131
caused by Chlamydia trachomatis serovarsL1, L2, or L3
Lymphogranuloma Venereum
132
Most common clinical manifestation among heterosexuals is tender inguinal and/or femoral lymphadenopathy that is typically unilateral
Lymphogranuloma Venereum | Pathognomonic Sign
133
LGV rectal exposure in women or MSM can result in ___mimicking inflammatory bowel disease (mucoid and/or hemorrhagic rectal discharge, anal pain, constipation, fever, and/or tenesmus)
proctocolitis
134
if it is not treated early, LGV proctocolitis can lead to ___and ___
chronic colorectal fistulas | strictures
135
What stage of LGV? a self-limited painless papule in the genital mucosa or in the rectum, which can often go unnoticed
Initial Stage
136
What stage of LGV? a florid and painful inguinal or femoral lymphadenopathy, or an acute hemorrhagic proctitis
Secondary
137
What stage of LGV? rectal discharge or pain, feel an urge to defecate or incomplete defecation, or have rectal bleeding and anal itching
Secondary
138
What stage of LGV? Systemic symptoms such as fevers, chills or malaise
Secondary
139
What stage of LGV? chronic inflammatory changes, such as lymphatic obstruction causing genital elephantiasis
Tertiary