Unit I Flashcards
1
Q
Myology is the study of
A
muscles
2
Q
Roughly what percentage is muscle of total body weight?
A
40-50%
3
Q
The specific function of skeletal muscle is to
A
create voluntary movement
4
Q
What are the 5 main functions of skeletal muscle in general though?
A
- movement
- stability
- communication
- control of body openings and passages
- heat production
5
Q
What is the basic structural unit of a muscle?
A
the muscle fiber
6
Q
What is a fasciculi?
A
groups of muscles fibers in a bundle
7
Q
how are fasciculi and fibers bound together?
A
via connective tissue
8
Q
Describe endomysium
A
inner most layer of connective tissue
it surrounds each muscle fiber and connects adjacent ones
9
Q
Describe endomysium
A
middle layer of connective tissue
surrounds each fasciucli and compartmentalizes muscle
10
Q
Describe epimysium
A
the outer most layer
surrounds entire muscle and separates it from surrounding organs
continuous with deep fascia and will become tendon
11
Q
Describe the nuclei of muscle fibers
A
long and multinucleated and located around periphery of fiber
12
Q
Explain hypertrophy
A
increase in size of muscle due to increase in size of each muscle fiber
13
Q
Explain hyperplasia
A
increase of muscle size due to increase in number of muscle fibers.
14
Q
What causes hyperplasia?
A
muscle is subjected to high resistance exercise inducing injury and followed by a regenerative process
15
Q
What is the sarcoplasm of a muscle?
A
the cytoplasm.
16
Q
Type I muscle fibers are best suited for what sorts of activities?
A
in where long sustained contraction is required, like endurance activites.
17
Q
What type of metabolism are Type I fibers associated with?
A
aerobic metabolim
18
Q
Type II muscle fibers are best suited what sort of activites?
A
quick powerful activities that require speed and strength.
19
Q
What type of metabolism are Type II fibers associated with?
A
anaerobic metabolism
20
Q
Between Type I and Type II which has more sarcoplasm and myoglobin?
A
Type I
21
Q
Do Type I fibers have minimal capillary beds?
A
No they actually have extensive capillary beds
22
Q
Is type I or type II fast twitch?
A
type II
23
Q
Does Type II possess fatigue resistance?
A
not really. Type I is more suited for fatigue resistance
24
Q
Between Type I and Type II which has the most mitochondria?
A
Type I
25
Do type I fibers have more glycogen/less fatty acids?
no, type II does. Type I has the opposite.
26
Which fiber type, I or II, atrophies with aging?
type II. Type I atrophies with immobilization
27
Describe intermediate fibers
they exhibit characteristics of having both type I and type II fibers
they contract faster than type I but slower than II
greater resistance to fatigue but histologically similar to type II
28
The sarcolema is the ______?
cell membrane
29
Define sarcoplasmic reticulum
tubular system which stores calcium and transports it to myofibrils
30
Define transverse tubules
tubular invaginations of the sarcolemma which pass nerve impulses to muscles and myofibrils
31
Define myoglobin
a red protein pigment in the sarcoplasm that stores oxygen in the muscles and has a higher affinity for oxygen than hemoglobin
32
Myofibrils are the__________
contractile apparatus of the muscle fibers
33
myofibrils are formed from
thick and thin fibers known as myofilaments
34
I-bands are described as
the dark areas
35
A bands are described as
the light areas
36
H bands are described as
the light areas in the middle of each dark band
37
M bands are described as
the think dark like in the middle H bands
38
Z lines are described as
the think dark lines in the middle of I bands
39
what is the smallest functional unit of the muscle and where does it start and end?
the sarcomere. it runs from z line to z line
40
Actin is found where and can be desribed as what?
its found in I bands and is thin
41
Mysoin is found where and can be described as what?
its found in A bands and is thick
42
Name the two regulatory proteins in muscles
troponin and tropomysoin
43
What allows troponin and tropomysoin to interact with their respective muscle proteins?
calcium
44
Describe how calcium allows the regulatory proteins to interact
it gets rid of the inhibition caused by the proteins which allows contraction
45
When a nerve impulse reaches the T-tubules where is calcium released from?
the sarcoplasmic reticulum
46
What is troponin located on?
actin
47
what happens to troponin once calcium reaches it?
calcium binds to it and causes a change in the shape of tropomysoin
48
what is tropomyosin located on?
mysoin
49
what does the change in shape of tropomyosin do?
it moves the molecule aside and exposes the myosin binding site on actin so the two proteins can interact and contract
50
Where does the aerobic pathway take place and what does it produce?
it takes place in the mitochondria and produces ATP
51
What does the aerobic pathway prefer to make ATP?
fatty acids from triglycerides
52
What form does excess ATP created take?
the form of heat
53
What substances does the anaerobic pathway depend on?
creatine phosphate and glycogen
54
which substances is used first in the anaerobic pathway?
creatine phosphate
55
what about the second substance used in anaerobic metabolism?
glycogen
56
what process is used to make ATP from glycogen?
glycolysis
57
Where in the body is glycogen stored?
muscle and liver cells
58
what is the by-product of glycolysis that is the cause of the pathway being so short?
lactic acid
59
From a metabolic POV of exercise describe phase one
within the first few minutes creatine phosphate and glycogen are the main fuel sources. up to 20% of stored muscle glycogen may be used during this time
60
From a metabolic POV of exercise describe phase two
metabolism shifts to the use of aerobic pathways and fatty acids to make ATP
61
From a metabolic POV of exercise describe phase three
as exercise intensifies metabolism shifts back to anaerobic pathways and uses up the remaining glycogen. its here the lactic acid builds up
62
Describe carbohydrate/glycogen loading
a diet trick that increases the store of glycogen in muscles
63
Describe Day one of carb loading
work to exhaustion to deplete glycogen stores
64
Describe day 2-4 of carb loading
continue exercise and eat meals high in fat and protein, and low in carbs
65
Describe day 5-7 of carb loading
no exercise and eat meals high in carbs
66
What is the theory behind carb loading?
its that the body thinks that there is a problem with glycogen storing and begins storing more glycogen than normal
67
What are some reported side effects of carb loading?
light headedness, impairment of mental acuity, and for every stored gram of glycogen 3 grams of water accompany it.
68
How many cups of coffee may help an endurance athlete in a competition?
about two cups an hour before their competition
69
What effect does the caffeine in the coffee have?
it may help burn fatty acids better and increase calcium permeability
70
How does the better burning of fatty acids from the use of caffeine have an impact?
it should delay the use of glycogen
71
What is limit set by the IOC for the use of caffeine?
1000mg
72
Describe induced erythrocythemia/blood doping
by increasing the amount of RBC's one can increase their oxygen carrying capacity which can increase their endurancecpacity
73
What are some risks of blood doping?
rash, fever, acute hemolysis, transmission of viruses, and kidney damage due to fluid overload
74
What is erythropoietin and what is it used for?
its a natural hormone made by the kidneys that helps make RBC's. but it can be synthesized to use for blood doping or for anemics
75
What is the main danger of erythropoietin?
it can thicken blood to lethal levels
76
What are anabolic steroids and their use?
a synthetic form of testosterone that attempts to utilize the anabolic effects with minimal androgenic effects
77
what does anabolic mean?
the stimulation of protein synthesis
78
what does androgenic mean?
development of secondary sexual characteristics
79
Describe the oil based form of steroids
an injection with fewer side effects but is detectable for several months in the body
80
Describe the water based form of steroids
pill form, has more side effects, and is cleared from the body in 3-4 weeks
81
What does the term stacking mean when referring to steroids?
taking several forms of steroids
82
What does pyramiding mean when using steroids?
begin using low doses then ascend to a peak and taper off
83
What is the typical time cycle of steroid use?
6-8 weeks
84
List some of the short term side effects of steroid use
headaches, back acne, testicle shrinkage, aggressiveness, gynecomastia, and tendon damage.
85
List some long term side effects of steroid use
cardiovascular issues, GI issues, the reproductive system, and endocrine system are affected
86
List short term side effects in women who use steroids
larger clitoris, smaller mammary glands, facial hair, deeper voice, tendon damage, and better androgenic effects
87
How do steroids physiologically work
they increase the amount of growth hormones, and activate protein synthesis, while inhibiting protein breakdown
88
What are some clinical reasons to prescribe steroids?
restore hormonal levels, improve mood, increase appetite, and body weight in terminally ill patients
89
What is the chemical composition of a muscle?
75% water, 20% protein, 5% others
90
Will a single muscle fiber contract by itself?
no, instead several fibers will contract at the same time
91
Describe a motor unit
a nerve fiber and the group of muscle fibers it supplies
92
What is the smallest part of muscle that can contract by itself?
the motor unit
93
What makes a contraction stronger?
the number of motor units being contracted at once
94
What makes a motor unit capable of precise control?
having a smaller amount of motor fibers
95
What portions does a neuromuscular junction possess?
presynaptic, postsynaptic, and synaptic cleft.
96
What is the presynaptic portion of a neuromuscluar junction?
the nerve ending
97
What is the postsynaptic portion a a neuromuscular junction?
the sarcolemma of a muscle fiber
98
what is the synaptic cleft of a neuromuscular junction?
the space between post and pre synaptic portions
99
Desribce how a nerve impulse makes it's way across a neuromuscular junction
when a nerve impulse reaches the presynaptic portion acetylcholine is released and diffuses across the cleft to bind on to receptors of the postsynaptic portion.
100
Describe what happens once the nerve impulse has reached the postsynaptic portion
Once acetylcholine has binded, an action potential is sent down the T-tubules allow muscle proteins to contract.
101
What breaks down acetylcholine from the binding site?
acetylcholinesterease
102
What is myasthenia gravis?
a common autoimmune disorder in which the ACH receptor sites are destroyed by abnormal antibodies that leads to the atrophy of T-tubules
103
Is myasthenia gravis genetic?
no
104
What does myasthenia gravis affect first?
cranial nerves and progresses to the extremities
105
what gland is commonly affected by those who have myasthenia gravis?
the thymus gland is enlarged or tumorous
106
What is transitional neonatal myasthenia gravis?
a 25% chance of a mother passing abnormal antibodies to the fetus thru the placenta
107
What effect does nicotine have on ACH?
it binds to receptor sites instead of ACH, and because nicotine cant be degraded by ACHe it creates a more prolonged action potential
108
What effect does snake venom have?
it prevents ACH from from binding to receptors and prevents action potentials from occurring
109
what effect does organophosphate have?
it inactivates ACHe meaning ACH builds up at the postsynaptic portion causing muscles to stay contracted
110
What effect does botulin toxin have?
it blocks ACH from being released from the presynaptic portion
111
Which bacteria releases botulin?
clostridium botulinum
112
Define proprioception
conscious awareness of the orientation of the body and its parts
113
What happens when one loses proprioception?
a loss of conscious and unconscious information as to what the muscles are doing and where they are in space resulting in uncoordinated movement
114
What are proprioceptors?
sense organs in the musculoskeletal system
115
Describe muscle spindles
fluid filled sacs that detect stretch in muscles
116
What are intrafusal muscle fibers located in and what innervates them?
they are in muscle spindles and both afferent and efferent innervate them
117
what are extrafusal muscle fibers associated with?
efferent nerve fibers
118
Describe golgi tendon organs
they are in tendons and trigger a reflex to inhibit muscle contractions that could cause injury
119
Define tensile strength
the load necessary to rupture a given material when pulled in the direction of its length
120
List some advantages of tendons
improve leverage, small and size and maintain limb conformity, act as a shock absorber, and flexible
121
What is an avulsion fracture?
the tendon pulls a piece of bone out
122
What types of injuries can cause avulsion fractures?
traction injuries
123
What type of innervation do tendons have?
only afferent
124
What is the function of bursa?
to act as a lubricating device between a tendon and another structure.
125
Describe the fusiform/parallel arrangement of muscle fibers
fibers run parallel to the long axis
126
Describe the arrangement of unipennate muscle fibers
fibers run obliquely
127
describe the arrangement of bipennate muscle fibers
tendon lies in the center and fibers run to it from each side
128
What arrangement do endurance (type I) muscle fibers have?
typically pennate
129
what arrangement do power and speed (type II) fibers have?
typically parallel/fusiform
130
Muscles that are responsible for carrying out a particular movement
primer move/agonist
131
assits prime mover, gives more force to a movement, stabilizes a joint,or keeps a bone of originof the mover steady
synergist
132
muscle that produces the opposite effect of the agonist
antagonist
133
Define reciprical innervation
when a muscle contracts its antagonist relaxes
134
Cofreflex phenomenon
both agonist and antagonist contract
135
A pathology of the CNS
ALS
136
what affect does ALS have?
both upper and lower motor neurons are destroyed
137
A pathology of the PNS
Guillan-Barre syndrome
138
What affect does Guillan-Barre syndrome have?
it demyelinates the PNS
139
A pathology of the neuromuscular junction
myasthenia gravis, botulism,and meurotoxins
140
A pathology of muscle fibers
muscular dystrophy, duschanne disorder
141
When a muscle remains in a contracted state for a longtime that can sometimes be permanent it is called
contracture
142
What helps to some degree with muscle regeneration?
satellite cells
143
where are satellite cells located?
between the endomysium and sarcolemma
144
What pathology prevents satellite cells from their function?
muscular dystrophy
145
What comprises the upper extremity?
the shoulder girdle and free limb
146
What comprises the shoulder girdle?
the scapula and clavicle
147
What makes the free limb?
the arm, forearm, and hand
148
Describe intramembranous ossification
bone cells replace mesenchyme
149
Describe endochondral ossification
bone cells replace hyaline cartilage
150
What is the first bone to undergo ossification?
the clavicle usually around the 5th-6th week of development
151
How many ossification centers does the clavicle have?
two
152
The centers appear near the center of the bone around when?
5th-6th week and its intramembranous
153
When and where does the secondary ossification center appear?
around 17 y/o at the sternal end and its endochondral
154
what is the last bone to ossify?
the clavicle around 25 y/o
155
What is the most commonly broken bone?
the clavicle
156
what part of the clavicle is usually broken?
the first lateral 3rd
157
A hereditary condition in which ossification fails or is defective of the clavicle
cleidocranial dysostosis
158
Where does the clinical arm start and end?
starts at the acromion process and ends at the distal part of the humerus
159
An undescended scapula brought about by attachment to cervical vertebrae by either bone, cartilage, or fibrous attachment
Sprengel'sdeformity
160
Failure of acromion to fuse with the rest of the bone
Os Acromidae
161
Primary functions of female mammary glands
provide nourishment and immune benefits
162
Describe estrogens affect on lactation
after being secreted by the ovaries and placenta it promotes growth of the duct system of glands
163
Describe progesterones affect on lactation
after being secreted by the placenta and ovaries promotes growth of secretory cells
164
Describe prolactins affect on lactation
after being secreted by the anterior pituitary it promotes production of milk after birth
165
Describe oxytocins affect on lactation
after being secreted by the posterior pituitary it promotes the release of milk
166
A creamy white yellowish fluid that is secreted during the first week of pregnancy
colostrum
167
What benefits does colostrum provide?
its rich in immunoglobulins and lactoferrin as well as growth factors to help with the infants GI tract
168
Describe transitional milk
from about day 6-15 its produced and is higher in lactose and fat than colostrum with lower immunoglobulin
169
Describe Mature Milk
present from day 15 to weaning and is 88%water, 7% lactose, 4% fat, and 1% protein
170
Inverted nipples
may be a carcinoma pulling in underlying lactiferous ducts
171
Supernumerary nipples
extra nipples
172
What type of tumor is breast cancer most common?
adenocarcinoma
173
Describe chronic cystic mastitis
benign cysts
174
Secretions from the breasts that are not associated with pregnancy or lactation
galactorrhea
175
Origin of Pectoralis Major
Clavicle, sternum and upper ribs, and external oblique muscle
176
Insertion of Pectoralis major
lateral aspect of intertubercular groove
177
Actions of Pectoralis Major
Adduction and medial rotation of the humerus
Forced inspiration when rib cage is raised and humerus stabilized
178
Nerve supply to Pectoralis Major
medial (C8-T1) and lateral (C5-C7) pectoral nerves
179
Origin of Pectroalis Minorr
Upper ribs
180
Insertion of Pectoralis Minor
coracoid proccess
181
Actions of Pectoralis Minor
Involved with protraction/retraction
Forced expiration
182
Nerve Supply of Pectoralis Minor
Medial Pectoral (C8-T1)
183
Describe Poland Syndrome
Unilateral condition in which both the pectoralis minor and major are missing accompanied by atrophy by mammary glands, missing ribs, and hand of affected side shows webbing
184
Origin of Subclavius
first rib
185
Insertion of Subclavius
subcclavian grooce
186
Actions of Subclavius
Pulls clavicle medialy and stabilizes SC joint
serves as cushion between fractured clavicle and ruptured blood vessels
187
Nerve supply to Subclavius
nerve to the subclavius (C5-C6)
188
The anterior wall of the axilla is formed by
the pectoralis major
189
the posterior wall is formed by
the latissimus dorsi and teres major
190
the medial wall is formed by
the serratus anterior and upper ribs
191
the lateral wall is formed by
the proximal medial aspect of the arm
192
The upper trunk of the brachial plexus is formed from
C5 and C6
193
The middle trunk of the brachial plexus is formed from
C7
194
The lower trunk of the brachialplexus is formed from
C8 and T1
195
The lateral cord of the brachial plexus is formed from
the anterior division ofthe upper and middle trunks and fibers from C5-C7
196
The medial cord of the brachial plexus is formed from
the anterior division of the lower trunk and fibers from C8-T1
197
The posterior cord of the brachial plexus is formed from
the posterior division of all three cords and fibers from C5-T1
198
Two nerves directly from spinal nerves
the dorsal scapular and long thoracic
199
Nerves from upper trunk
suprascapular and subclavius
200
Nevres from the lateral cord
lateral pectoral, musculocutaneous, and part of median
201
Nerves from medial cord
medial pectoral, medial brachial cutaneous, medial antebrachial cutaneous, ulnar, and part of median
202
Nerves from the posterior cord
upper subscapular, lower subscapular, thoracodorsal, axillary, and radial
203
The segmental innervation of Dorsal scapular nerve
C5
204
The motor supply of dorsal scapular nerve
rhomboid major and minor, and levator scapula
205
The articular supply of the dorsal scapular nerve
acromioclavicular nerve
206
The segmental innervation of long thoracic nerve is
C5-C7
207
The motor supply of long thoracic nerve is
serratus anterior
208
The segmental innervation of the suprascapular nerve is
C5-C6
209
the motor supply of the suprascapular nerve is
the supraspinatus and infraspinatus
210
the articular supply of the suprascapular nerve is
the shoulder joint
211
The segmental innervation of the subclavius is
C5-C6
212
The motor supply of the subclavius is
the subclavius and diaphragm
213
The articular supply of the subclavius is
the sternoclavicular joint
214
The segmental innervation of the lateral pectoral nerve is
C5-C7
215
the motor supply of the lateral pectoral nerve is
the pectoralis major
216
The musculocutaneous nerve continues into the forearm as the
lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve
217
the segmental innervation of the musculocutaneous nerve is
C5-C7
218
the motor supply of the musculocutaneous is
the coraobrachialis, biceps brachii, and brachialis
219
the articular supply of the musculotaneous nerve is
the elbow joint
220
the cutaneous supply of the musculocutaneous nerve is
the lateral aspect of the forearm
221
the segmental innervation of medial pectoral nerve is
C8-T1
222
the motor supply of medial pectoral nerve is
the pectoralis major and minor
223
the segmental innervation of the medial brachial cutaneous is
T1
224
the cutaneous supply of medial brachial cutaneous nerve is
the medial aspect of the arm
225
the segmental innervation of the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve is
C8-T1
226
the cutaneous supply of the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve is the
medial aspect of the forearm
227
Segemental innervation of Ulnar nerve
C8-T1
228
Motor supply of the Ulnar nerve
flexor carpi ulnaris and half flexor digitorum profundus, and hypothenar muscles
229
Articular supply of the Ulnar nerve
elbow and wrist joints
230
Cutaneous supply of the Ulnar nerve
1/4 medial aspect of the palm and dorsum of the hand; skin of digit 5 and part D4
231
What nerve is formed from more than one cord of the brachial plexus?
the median nerve (lateral and medial cord)
232
Segmental innerveation of the Median nerve
C6-T1
233
Motor supply of the Median Nerve
prontor teres, flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor pollicus longus, pronator quadratus, and halfof the flexor digitrum profundus, and thenar muscles
234
Articular supply of the Median nerve
elbow and wrist joint
235
Cutaneous supply of the Median nerve
lateral 3/4 of palmar surface and skin of first 3 1/2 digits
236
Segmental innervation of upper subscapular nerve
C5
237
motor supply of the upper subscapular nerve
subscapularis
238
Segmental innervation of the lower subscapular nerve
C6
239
motor supply of the lower supscapular nerve
subscapularis and motor supply
240
Segemtnal innervationof thoracodorsal nerve
C6-C8
241
motor supply of thoracodorsal nerve
latissumus dorsi
242
Segmental innervation of axiallary nerve
C5-C6
243
motor supply of axiallary nerve
deltoid and teres minor
244
articular supply of axillary nerve
shoulder joint
245
cutaneous supply of axillary nerve
lateral aspect of arm
246
Segmental innervation of radial nerve
C5-T1
247
motor supply of radial nerve
triceps brachii and aconeus; allposterior forearm muscles
248
articular supply of radial nerve
elbow and wrist joints
249
cutaneous supply of radial nerve
posterior arm and forearm; dorsum of hand and small area below thumb on palmar sider
250
What is a prefixed brachial plexus?
instead of C5 being first and T1 last, C4 is first and C8 last
251
What is a postfixed brachial plexus?
instead of C5 being first and T1 last, C6 is first and T2 last.
252
Define pararlysis
complete loss of muscular movement
253
Define Paresis
movement can be performed but is weak
254
Define anesthesia
partial or complete loss of sensation w/ or w/o loss of consciousness
255
Define paresthesia
loss of cutaneous sensation
256
Describe Erb-duchenne palsy
comes from a traction injury that damages C5/C6 and one will have impaired shoulder movement along with loss of sensation in C5/C6 deratomes
257
What could cause Erb-duchennes?
Difficult birth that stretches infants neck, falling blow to shoulder, or heavyweight hitting shoulder
258
Describe Klumpke's Palsy
comes from a traction injury to C8/T1 in which one will have issues moving hand and digits and a loss of sensation along C8/T1 deratomes
259
What could cause Klumpke's Palsy
an individual falling and catching themselves or forced pulling on should of infant during birth; forceful abduction of humerus
260
What is a longer than normal cervical transverse process called?
Cervical rib
261
What issues could a cervical rib pose?
interferencer with bracial plexus
262
Describe Thoracic Outlet Syndrome (TOS)
a compression of the cords of the brachial plexus and axillary artery
263
List some synptoms of TOS
pain, paresthesia, decreased skin temp, and fatigue of limb
264
What is the first branch of the axillary artery?
the superior thoracic which emerges just as the axillary artery comes out from under the clavicle
265
What muscles does the superior thoracic supply?
Pectoralis major and minor, subclavius, and wall of thorax
266
Which branch of the axillary artery curls around the upper border of the pec. major?
the thoracoacromial
267
List the branches of thoracoacromial
acromial, pectoral, clavicular, and deltoid
268
Which branch of the axillary artery is along the lateral border of the pec. major?
the lateral thoracic
269
Whart muscles does the lateral thoracic artery supply?
serratus anterior, both pecs, mammary glands, and intercostal muscles
270
What is the largest branch of the axillary artery?
the subscapular
271
List the two branches of the subscapular artery
thoracodorsal and circumflex scapular
272
What muscles does the thoracodorsal supply?
latissumus dorsi and subscapularis
273
What muscles does the circumflex scapular artery supply?
supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres major and minor, triceps brachii, and part of deltoid
274
Which branch of the axiallary artery forms a circle around the surgical neck of the humerus?
the anterior and posterior humeral circumflex arteries
275
What structures do the humeral circumflex arteries supply?
deltoid, shoulder joint, teres muscles. and proximal part of humerus
