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Human Biology > Unit Two Reproduction > Flashcards

Unit Two Reproduction Flashcards

1
Q

Which cells are gametes produced from

A

Germline cells

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2
Q

What does the prostate gland and seminal vesticles do

A

Secrete fluids that maintain mobility and viability of sperm

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3
Q

What does the. Seminiferous tubules do

A

Produce, maintain and store sperm cells

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4
Q

What does the interstitial cells do (three T)

A

Produce testosterone

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5
Q

What does the prostate gland do

A

Produce seminal fluid maintain and transport sperm cells

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6
Q

What does seminal vesicles do

A

Produce seminal fluid
maintain and transport sperm cells

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7
Q

What do testes do

A

Produce sperm and testosterone

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8
Q

What does the ova do

A

Carries a set of chromosomes

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9
Q

What does a Graafian follicle do

A

Maturation and release of an egg

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10
Q

What does the corpus luteum do

A

Releases progesterone to make uterus healthy for fetus

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11
Q

What does the ovary do

A

Produces egg

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12
Q

Oviduct

A

Transports egg to uterus

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13
Q

Uterus

A

Where fetus develops
Site of implantation

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14
Q

What triggers the onset of puberty

A

When the hypothalamus in the brain produces a - releaser hormone, this hormone stimulates the pituitary glad to release FSH (in males and females)

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15
Q

What are two gonadotrophic hormones

A

Luteinising hormone (LH) in females
Interstitial cell stimulating hormone (icsh) in males

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16
Q

What is the role of FSH and ICSH

A

FSH promotes sperm production
ICSH stimulates production of testosterone

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17
Q

Describe the actions of testosterone

A

Testosterone also stimulates sperm production
in addition it activates the prostrate gland and seminal vesicles to produce their fluid secretions

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18
Q

How is testosterone self regulated

A

High testosterone levels inhibit the secretions of FSH and ICSH from the pituitary gland this results in a decrease in the production of testosterone

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19
Q

Describe the role of FSH (women)

A

Stimulates the development of the follicle around the ovum in the ovary

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20
Q

What is the role of LH

A

Triggers ovulation

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21
Q

What is the role of oestrogen

A

Stimulates proliferation of endometrium
Effects consistency of cervical mucus

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22
Q

What is the role of progesterone

A

Promotes further development and vascularisation of the endometrium
(development of blood vessels)
Preparing it for implantation if fertilisation occurs

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23
Q

What is the negative feedback which prevents further follicles from developing

A

Progesterone and oestrogen prevent FSH and LH

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24
Q

What effect does the lack of LH have on the corpus luteum

A

Stops development

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25
Q

How is menstruation initiated

A

FSH

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26
Q

How long does the menstrual cycle last

A

28 days

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27
Q

Describe the stages of the follicular phase

A

Levels of FSH is increased
High levels of oestrogen causes LH to surge causes proliferation of the endometrium

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28
Q

Briefly list some of the causes of infertility in males

A

Mobility/motility (can the sperm swim?)
Age (as the male increases in age their sperm count will lower)
Defects (abnormally large/small sperm heads,double heads)

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29
Q

Describe the cycle of fertility in females

A

Women are only fertile for a few days during each menstrual cycle
This means that women show cyclical fertility, leading to a fertile period

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30
Q

What happens during a fertile period

A

Increase in body temperature
Mucus thin and watery

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31
Q

What happens during a infertile period

A

Mucus thick
Normal body temperature

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32
Q

Describe fertility in males

A

New show continuous fertility as they continually produce sperm in their testes from puberty onwards

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33
Q

What are some causes of infertility in men

A

Mobility/motility
Age
Defects
(MAD)

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34
Q

What are some genetic reasons for infertility in men

A

Low sperm count
Xxy chromosome

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35
Q

What are some diseases that cause infertility in men

A

Mumps
Chlamydia
Gonorrhea
Testicular cancer

36
Q

What are some lifestyle reasons for infertility in males

A

Smoking
Stress
Obesity
Drug use
Alcohol

37
Q

Describe intracytoplasmic sperm injection (icsi)

A

ICSI can be used i f mature sperm are defective or are very low in number
The head of the sperm is drown into a needle and injected directly into the egg
Sperm and egg will then incubated and observed for a sign of fertilisation

38
Q

Describe calendar based methods of contraception

A

Women can only conceive for a few days each cycle

39
Q

Describe barrier methods

A

Condom or diaphragm/cervical cap
These prevent sperm entering the uterus and reaching an ovum. These cam br made more effective with the use of spermicidal cream
Can also prevent stds

40
Q

Describe sterilisation in females

A

The oviducts are cut and tied so that eggs cannot reach sperm ad be fertilised

41
Q

Describe sterilisation in males

A

The spremducts (specifically vas deferents) are cut and tied so that the sperm cannot be released

42
Q

Describe the pill

A

Oral contraceptive contains a combination of synthetic oestrogen and progesterone that mimics negative feedback and prevents the release of FSH AND LH from the pituitary gland

43
Q

Describe the mini-pill

A

This contains synthetic progesterone and causes thickening of the cervical mucus
This prevents sperm from entering the uterus and reaching out the ovum

44
Q

Describe the morning after pill

A

This contains a stronger dose of oestrogen and progesterone which prevents ovulation or implantation

45
Q

Describe the main purpose of antenatal care

A

Techniques to monitor the health of the mother developing the foetus and baby

46
Q

What is the role of height and wheigt measurements

A

Often taken to calculate te BMI of the women showing under/overwieght

47
Q

What is the role of blood pressure

A

Up to 149/190 is normal in pregnancy

48
Q

Describe the role in blood tests

A

Used to determine blood group also to check cholesterol and glucose levels

49
Q

What is the role of urine tests

A

Over 100 for a wide variety of reasons usually looking for hormones or chemicals

50
Q

What is the role of medical history’s

A

Any issues which could affect pregnancy or be inherited by a baby

51
Q

What is the two ultrasound imaging scans called

A

Dating scans and an anomaly scan

52
Q

At what stage is a dating scan preformed and what can it tell us

A

8 weeks and 14 weeks
Determines stage of pregnancy and the due date

53
Q

At what stage is an anomaly scan preformed and what it can tell us

A

Between 18 and 20 weeks
Detect serious physical abnormalities in the foetus

54
Q

What chemical markers are used to detect problems with either the foetus or the mother

A

Routine blood and urine tests are carried out throughout pregnancy to monitor the concentration of marker chemicals
Measuring a marker chemical of the wrong time could lead to a false positive result
An atypical chemical concentration can lead to diagnostic testing to determine if the fetid had a medical condition

55
Q

Why is it important that the recorded levels be matched to the age of the foetus if tests are taken

A

Lead to a false positive

56
Q

What is the difference between screening and diagnostic tests

A

Routine screening for those of a high risk category further tests may be carried out
Can confirm the presence of specific conditions

57
Q

What is a karyotype

A

A picture of all the chromosome found in a cell

58
Q

Describe the process of aminocentesis

A

Carried out later in pregnancy (15-18 weeks)
Small sample of amniotic fluid removed by a needle(small risk of a miscarriage)
DNA extracted from the sample (cultured to make more copies) then biochemically tested and karyotyped

59
Q

What advantage and disadvantage does chorionic villus sampling over amniocentesis

A

It is more dangerous than amniocentesis it can be preformed quicker as the cells are actually dividing

60
Q

What is one of the many functions of progesterone during pregnancy

A

Suppress the mothers immune response to the fetus

61
Q

Why would a mothers immune system react to cells from the fetus if they were to enter the mothers blood circulation

A

The WBC will find them and respond rapidly as the immune system views these cells as forgine and dangerous

62
Q

What is the Guthrie test screening for

A

Is a diagnostic tool to test infants for phenylketonuria (pku) a few days after birth

63
Q

What what is an inborn error of metabolism

A

Inherited or spontaneous, leads to issues in the substitution mutation

64
Q

What is phenylketonuria

A

Post natal tests aimed at detecting disorders inability to breakdown phenylalanine

65
Q

How is phenylketonuria treated

A

People w/ high levels of phenylanine are put on a restricted diet that lacks the amino acids phenylalanine

66
Q

What is incomplete dominance

A

The dominant and allele may not fully express itself

67
Q

What is codominance

A

A Hetrozygous organum will actually express both alleles
It doesn’t have a blend of traits but shows both

68
Q

When a condition has more than two alleles it is called multiple alleled. Described the inheritance of the ABO blood groups

A

There are more possible genotypes and phenotypes for this characteristic.

69
Q

What is a pedigree analysis

A

Illustrating inheritance patterns and is a good way to follow the inheritance of genetic disorders through generations.

70
Q

Describe an autosomal recessive trait

A

Autosomal recessive gene disorder can skip generations as people can be carriers

71
Q

Describe an ausomal dominant trait

A

, you only need one copy of the dominant allele
Homo+ Hetro will be affected

72
Q

Describe the incomplete dominant trait

A

Both incomplete dominance alleles are shown with uppercase letters in genetic diagram, but diff letters used

73
Q

Describe the features of inheritance for a recessive trait controlled by a gene on the X chromosome

A

Alleles present on the X chromosome but not on the y are referred to as sex linked alleles

74
Q

Describe some facts about recessive disorders

A

Males are affected more than females
Fathers cannot pass the condition to their sons because it is not present in the Y chromosome
Carrier females do not show the trait but can pass it onto sons

75
Q

Some facts about dominant disorders

A

All daughters of affected males
All Hetrozygous individual traits
Will be affected

76
Q

With a sex linked recessive condition why are men more likely to get the condition

A

Because the only need one coy of the recessive gene to be affected

77
Q

I’m next what circumstances would he offered preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD)

A

Family history of genetic disorders or a previous child has been born with one, they may opt for IVF

78
Q

What condition can be detected by pre-implantation genetic diagnosis

A

Chromosomal abnormalities
Cystic fibrosis
Sickle cell disease
Huntingtons disease
Duchenne muscular dystrophy

79
Q

What is the part of menstruation up to the ovulation called

A

Follicular phase

80
Q

What is the part of menstrual cycle after ovulation called?

A

The luteal phase

81
Q

Describe artificial insemination

A

This involves collecting and inserting semen into the female reproductive tract without intercourse taking place

82
Q

Describe stimulating ovulation

A

Stimulated by drugs to prevent the negative feedback effect of oestrogen on fsh secretion
It mimics the action of fsh and lh cause super ovulation and result on multiple births

83
Q

What does FSH and LH control

A

The production of gametes throughout the reproductive life

84
Q

What is an iud

A

Flexible plastic fitted into the uterus to prevent an embryo implanting
Could release a low dose of progesterone so it will work like a contraceptive

85
Q

What is chronic villus sampling (cvs)

A

Carried out earlier in pregnancy 11-14 weeks
A sample of placental tissue is taken. This contains some genetical materials. High risk of miscarriage. Small sample of cells are taken from placental using ultrasound guided needle. Then It is biochemically tested and karyotyped quicker as cells are dividing

86
Q

Describe Pgd

A

Remove 2 cells from 8 call stage of embryo. Chromosomes are examined and DNA analysed
Transfer to uterus is delayed until 5th day after fertilisation allowing time for the analysis to be completed before choice of embryos is made

Human Biology (5 decks)

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