Unit5 Multiple Choice - Immunology & Vaccines Flashcards
1
Q
Bacteria have siderophores that capture iron; humans counter this by
Transferrins. Toxin production. Iron-degrading enzymes. Producing iron. None of the above
A
transferrins
2
Q
Innate immunity is
The lack of resistance.
The body’s defenses against any kind of pathogen.
The body’s defense against a particular pathogen.
The body’s ability to ward off diseases.
None of the above.
A
the body’s defenses against any kind of pathogen
3
Q
Normal microbiota provide protection from infection by all of the following except
They provide antibacterial chemicals. They produce lysozyme. They out-compete newcomers. They make the chemical environment unsuitable for nonresident bacteria. None of the above.
A
they produce lysozyme
4
Q
Several inherited deficiencies in the complement system occur in humans. Which of the following would be the most severe?
Deficiency of C3 Deficiency of C5 Deficiency of C6 Deficiency of C7 Deficiency of C8
A
deficiency in C3
5
Q
The classical pathway for complement activation is initiated by
Factors released from damaged tissues. Antigen-antibody reactions. C5-C9. Factors released from phagocytes. Polysaccharides and C3b.
A
antigen-antibody reactions
6
Q
Which of the following does not provide protection from phagocytic digestion?
Killing white blood cells Ability to grow at a low pH Lysing phagolysosomes Preventing formation of phagolysosomes None of the above
A
none
7
Q
Vasodilation is caused by all of the following except
Leukotrienes. Histamine. Prostaglandins. Complement. None of the above.
A
complement
8
Q
Which of the following does not cause vasodilation?
Prostaglandins Histamine Kinins Lysozymes None of the above
A
lysozymes
9
Q
Macrophages arise from which of the following?
Basophil Neutrophil Monocyte Eosinophil Lymphocyte
A
monocyte
10
Q
All of the following can be determined from a differential count except
The number of red blood cells. The number of white blood cells. The possibility of a state of disease. The numbers of each type of white blood cell. None of the above.
A
the number of red blood cells
11
Q
Which of the following is not an effect of histamine?
Redness Vasodilation Pain Fever Swelling
A
fever
12
Q
Which of the following is involved in adaptive immunity?
Lymphocyte Monocyte Neutrophil Eosinophil Basophil
A
lymphocyte
13
Q
Which of the following is not a characteristic of B cells?
They have antibodies on their surfaces.
They recognize antigens associated with MHC I.
They originate in bone marrow.
They are responsible for the memory response.
They are responsible for antibody formation.
A
They recognize antigens associated with MHC I.
14
Q
Class I MHC proteins are found
only within the cardiovascular system and the nervous system.
on B lymphocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells.
on all nucleated cells.
on all non-nucleated cells.
A
on all nucleated cells
15
Q
Table 18.1 Antibody Titer Day 1 Day 7 Day 14 Day 21 Patient A 0 0 256 512 Patient B 128 256 512 1024 Patient C 0 0 0 0 Patient D 128 128 128 128
In Table 18.1, who is most likely protected from the disease?
A
patient D
16
Q
Type of immunity resulting from vaccination.
Innate immunity Naturally acquired active immunity Naturally acquired passive immunity Artificially acquired active immunity Artificially acquired passive immunity
A
artificially acquired active immunity
17
Q
Clonal selection of B cells results in
production of high affinity antibodies
the destruction of self-reactive B-cells
antigen processing and presentation
production of cytokines
A
production of high affinity antibodies
18
Q
Antibodies are found
dissolved in serum.
dissolved in body fluids other than serum.
on B cells.
all of the above.
A
all of the above
19
Q
Molecularly, cytokines and chemokines are
types of immune system cells
soluble proteins.
lipid hormones
cell surface receptons
A
soluble proteins
20
Q
B cells undergo
clonal deletion but not clonal selection.
clonal selection but not clonal deletion.
both clonal selection and clonal deletion.
neither clonal selection nor clonal deletion.
A
both clonal selection and clonal deletion
21
Q
In a direct ELISA test, what are you looking for in the patient?
Antigen
Antibodies
Either antigen or antibodies
None of the above
A
antigen
22
Q
All of the following are true about natural killer cells except
They destroy tumor cells. They destroy cells lacking MHC I. They destroy virus-infected cells. They are stimulated by an antigen. None of the above.
A
they are stimulated by an antigen
23
Q
Which is not a dedicated antigen-presenting cell?
B lymphocytes
Macrophages
Dendritic cells
T lymphocytes
A
T lymphocytes
24
Q
Dead Bordetella pertussis can be used in a(n)
Inactivated whole-agent vaccine. Attenuated whole-agent vaccine. Conjugated vaccine. Subunit vaccine. Toxoid vaccine.
A
inactivated whole agent vaccine
25
An antibody's Fc region can be bound by
```
Macrophages.
Helper T cells.
Antibodies.
B cells.
None of the above.
```
macrophages
26
Costimulation is necessary for
T-helper activation
phagocytosis
Natural killer activation
Toll-like receptor activity
T-helper activation
27
Which of the following recognizes antigens displayed on host cells with MHC II?
```
TH cell
TC cell
Basophil
B cell
Natural killer cell
```
TH cell
28
The best definition of an antibody is
A protein made in response to an antigen that can combine with that antigen.
A serum protein.
An immunoglobulin.
A protein that inactivates or kills an antigen.
None of the above.
a protein made in response to an antigen that can combine with that antigen
29
```
Table 18.1
Antibody Titer
Day 1 Day 7 Day 14 Day 21
Patient A 0 0 256 512
Patient B 128 256 512 1024
Patient C 0 0 0 0
Patient D 128 128 128 128
```
In Table 18.1, who showed seroconversion during these observations?
patient A
30
What is apoptosis?
a new breakfast cereal
programmed cell death
the process of "popping" target cells
rapid expansion of phagocytic cells
programmed cell death
31
The specificity of an antibody is due to
Its valence.
The constant portions of the H and L chains.
The L chains.
The H chains.
The variable portions of the H and L chains.
the variable portions of the H and L chains
32
Innate immunity
A) is slower than adaptive immunity in responding to pathogens.
B) is nonspecific and present at birth.
C) involves a memory component.
D) involves T cells and B cells.
E) provides increased susceptibility to disease.
B - nonspecific and present at birth
33
All of the following protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection EXCEPT
```
A) multiple layers of cells.
B) tears.
C) saliva.
D) HCl.
E) the "ciliary escalator."
```
D - HCl
34
The function of the "ciliary escalator" is to
A) propel inhaled dust and microorganisms toward the mouth, away from the lower respiratory tract.
B) remove microorganisms from the gastrointestinal tract.
C) remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract.
D) trap microorganisms in mucus in the upper respiratory tract.
E) trap inhaled dust and microorganisms in mucus and propel it away from the lower respiratory tract.
E - trapped inhaled dust and microorganisms in mucus and propel it away from the lower respiratory tract
35
Which of the following exhibits the highest phagocytic activity?
```
A) eosinophils
B) erythrocytes
C) macrophages
D) basophils
E) neutrophils
```
C - macrophages
36
TLRs attach to all of the following EXCEPT
```
A) AMPs.
B) flagellin.
C) LPS.
D) PAMPs.
E) peptidoglycan.
```
A - AMPs
37
The complement protein cascade is the same for the classical pathway, alternative pathway, and lectin pathway after the point in the cascade where the activation of ________ takes place.
```
A) C1
B) C2
C) C3
D) C5
E) C6
```
C - C3
38
All of the following increase blood vessel permeability EXCEPT
```
A) kinins.
B) prostaglandins.
C) lysozymes.
D) histamine.
E) leukotrienes.
```
C - lysozymes
39
A child falls and suffers a deep cut on her leg. The cut went through her skin and she is bleeding. Which of the following defense mechanisms will participate in eliminating contaminating microbes?
```
A) mucociliary escalator
B) normal skin flora
C) phagocytosis in the inflammatory response
D) acidic skin secretions
E) lysozyme
```
C - phagocytosis in the inflammatory response
40
Margination refers to
A) the adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms.
B) the chemotactic response of phagocytes.
C) adherence of phagocytes to the lining of blood vessels.
D) dilation of blood vessels.
E) the movement of phagocytes through walls of blood vessels.
C - adherence of phagocytes to the lining of blood vessels
41
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) All three types of interferons have the same effect on the body.
B) Alpha interferon promotes phagocytosis.
C) Gamma interferon causes bactericidal activity by macrophages.
D) Alpha interferon acts against specific viruses.
E) Beta interferon attacks invading viruses.
C - Gamma interferon causes bactericidal activity by macrophages
42
Which of the following is found normally in serum?
```
A) complement
B) interferon
C) histamine
D) leukocytosis-promoting factor
E) TLRs
```
A - complement
43
Each of the following is an effect of complement activation EXCEPT
A) interference with viral replication.
B) bacterial cell lysis.
C) opsonization.
D) increased phagocytic activity.
E) increased blood vessel permeability.
A - interference with viral replication
44
Which of the following is an effect of opsonization?
A) increased adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms
B) increased margination of phagocytes
C) increased diapedesis of phagocytes
D) inflammation
E) cytolysis
A - increased adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms
45
Each of the following provides protection from phagocytic digestion EXCEPT
```
A) M protein.
B) capsules.
C) formation of phagolysosomes.
D) leukocidins.
E) biofilms.
```
C - formation of phagolysosomes
46
The antimicrobial effects of AMPs include all of the following EXCEPT
A) inhibition of cell wall synthesis.
B) lysis of bacterial cells.
C) destruction of nucleic acids.
D) pore formation in bacterial membranes.
E) inhibition of phagocytosis.
E - inhibition of phagocytosis
47
The swelling associated with inflammation decreases when the fluid
```
A) returns to the blood.
B) goes into lymph capillaries.
C) is excreted in urine.
D) is lost as perspiration.
E) is transported into macrophages.
```
B - goes into lymph capillaries
48
Which of the following statements about fixed macrophages is FALSE?
A) They are found in certain tissues and organs.
B) They develop from neutrophils.
C) They are cells of the mononuclear phagocytic system.
D) They are mature monocytes.
E) They gather at sites of infection.
B - they are developed from neutrophils
49
Phagocytes utilize all of the following to optimize interaction with (getting to and getting hold of) microorganisms EXCEPT
```
A) trapping a bacterium against a rough surface.
B) opsonization.
C) chemotaxis.
D) lysozyme.
E) complement.
```
D - lysozyme
50
All of the following are effects of histamine EXCEPT
```
A) destruction of an injurious agent.
B) removal of an injurious agent.
C) isolation of an injurious agent.
D) repair of damaged tissue.
E) production of antibodies.
```
E - production of antibodies
51
A chill is a sign that
```
A) body temperature is falling.
B) body temperature is rising.
C) body temperature is not changing.
D) the metabolic rate is decreasing.
E) blood vessels are dilating.
```
B - body temp is rising
52
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) There are at least thirty complement proteins.
B) All of the complement proteins are constantly active in serum.
C) Factors B, D, and P cause cytolysis.
D) Complement activity is antigen-specific.
E) Complement increases after immunization.
A - there are at least thirty complement proteins
53
Which of the following is mismatched?
A) diapedesis — movement of leukocytes between capillary walls cells out of blood and into tissue
B) chemotaxis — chemical degradation inside a phagolysosome
C) abcess — a cavity created by tissue damage and filled with pus
D) pus — tissue debris and dead phagocytes in a white or yellow fluid
E) scab — dried blood clot over injured tissue
B - chemotaxis
54
All of the following are part of the mechanism of action of alpha and beta interferons EXCEPT
A) they bind to the surface of uninfected cells.
B) they are effective for long periods.
C) they initiate manufacture of antiviral proteins.
D) they disrupt stages of viral multiplication.
E) they initiate transcription.
B - they are effective for long periods
55
The alternative pathway for complement activation is initiated by
A) lipid-carbohydrate complexes and C3.
B) C5-C9.
C) antigen-antibody reactions.
D) factors released from phagocytes.
E) factors released from damaged tissues.
A - lipid-carbohydrate complexes and C3
56
Activation of C3a results in
```
A) acute inflammation.
B) increased blood vessel permeability.
C) opsonization.
D) attraction of phagocytes.
E) cell lysis.
```
A - acute inflammation
57
Neutrophils with defective lysosomes are unable to
A) undergo chemotaxis.
B) migrate.
C) produce toxic oxygen products.
D) attach to microorganisms and other foreign material.
E) engulf microorganisms and other foreign material.
C - produce toxic oxygen products
58
Innate immunity includes all of the following EXCEPT
```
A) phagocytosis.
B) inflammation.
C) production of antibody.
D) production of interferon.
E) activation of complement.
```
C - production of antibody
59
After ingesting a pathogen, lysosomal enzymes produce all of the following EXCEPT
```
A) complement.
B) O2-.
C) H2O2.
D) OH.
E) HOCl.
```
A - complement
60
Activation of C5-C9 results in
```
A) activation of C3.
B) fixation of complement.
C) lysis of microbial cells.
D) phagocytosis.
E) inflammation.
```
C - lysis of microbial cells
61
All of the following are true regarding NK cells EXCEPT
A) they are a type of lymphocyte.
B) they are found in tissues of the lymphatic system.
C) they have the ability to kill infected body cells and some tumor cells.
D) they destroy infected body cells by phagocytosis.
E) they release toxic substances that cause cell lysis or apoptosis.
D - they destroy infected body cells by phagocytosis
62
Which of the following is involved in resistance to parasitic helminths?
```
A) basophils
B) eosinophils
C) lymphocytes
D) monocytes
E) neutrophils
```
B - eosinophils
63
Macrophages arise from which of the following?
```
A) basophils
B) eosinophils
C) lymphocytes
D) monocytes
E) neutrophils
```
D - monocytes
64
all of the following pertain to fever EXCEPT that it
A) accelerates microbial growth by increasing iron absorption from the digestive tract.
B) stimulates T lymphocyte activity.
C) is caused by interleukin-1 and TNF-alpha coming into contact with the hypothalamus.
D) intensifies the effect of antiviral interferons.
E) can be initiated by specific types of pathogens.
A - accelerates microbial growth by increasing iron absorption from the digestive tract.
65
All of the following are iron-binding proteins found in humans EXCEPT
```
A) lactoferrin.
B) transferrin.
C) hemoglobin.
D) siderophorin.
E) ferritin
```
D - siderophorin
66
All of the following occur during inflammation. What is the first step?
```
A) diapedesis
B) margination
C) phagocyte migration
D) repair
E) vasodilation
```
E - vasoldilation
67
The lectin pathway for complement action is initiated by
```
A) mannose on host membranes.
B) mannose on the surface of microbes.
C) lectins of the microbe.
D) gram-negative cell walls.
E) gram-positive cell walls.
```
B - mannose on the surface of microbes
68
All of the following are components of the inflammatory process EXCEPT
```
A) dilation of blood vessels.
B) release of histamines and prostaglandins.
C) chemotaxis.
D) diapedesis.
E) antibody synthesis.
```
E - antibody synthesis
69
Which of the following statements about the classical pathway of complement activation is FALSE?
A) C1 is the first protein activated in the classical pathway.
B) The C1 protein complex is initiated by antigen-antibody complexes.
C) C3 is not involved in the classical pathway.
D) Cleaved fragments of some of the proteins act to increase inflammation.
E) C3b causes opsonization.
C - C3 is not involved with the classical pathway
70
Lysozyme and the antibiotic penicillin have similar mechanisms of action in that they both cause damage to the bacterial
```
A) cell membrane.
B) capsule.
C) cell wall.
D) DNA.
E) ribosomes.
```
C - cell wall
71
Which non-specific defense mechanism is mismatched with its associated body structure or body fluid?
A) lysozyme — tears and saliva
B) mucociliary escalator — intestines
C) very acidic pH — stomach
D) keratin and tightly packed cells — skin
E) cerumen and sebum — ear
B - mucociliary escalator
72
Bacteria are first ingested into a _____ during phagocytosis.
A. phagosome
B. lysosome
C. phagolysosome
D. peroxisome
A - phagosome
73
Which of the following is not a physical factor to protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection?
A. Layers of cells
B. Tears
C. Saliva
D. Lysozyme
D - lysozyme
74
Which of the following exhibits highest phagocytic activity?
A. neutrophils
B. basophils
C. eosinophils
D. monocytes
A - neutrophils
75
Which of the following is not a chemical factor to protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection?
A. Mucus
B. Sebum
C. Gastric juices
D. Lysozyme
A - mucous
76
Which of the following is not a physical factor to protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection?
A. Keratin
B. Tears
C. Saliva
D. Lysozyme
D - lysozyme
77
Inflammation is a ____ response to infection.
A. local
B. systemic
C. adaptive
D. specific
A - local
78
One of the responses against bacterial infection is the overproduction of white blood cells, which is also known as ________
A. complement activation.
B. histamine generation.
C. leukopenia.
D. leukocytosis.
D - leukocytosis
79
One of the responses against bacterial infection is the decrease in production of white blood cells, which is also known as ________
A. complement activation.
B. histamine generation.
C. leukopenia.
D. leukocytosis.
C - leukopenia
80
What is the effect of interferons?
A. Interferes with host cell replication.
B. Interferes with phagocytosis.
C. Interferes with viral multiplication.
D. Interferes with bacterial multiplication.
answer is:
C - interferes with viral multiplication
81
Which of these is not a characteristic of innate immunity?
A. Always present, always
available
B. Has memory component
C. Acts against all microbes the same way
D. First to respond to infection
B - has a memory component
82
Which of the following white blood cells is most likely to be involved in the destruction of a tumor cell?
A. Macrophages
B. Lymphocytes
C. Neutrophils
D. Basophils
B - lymphocytes
83
```
Where in the phagocyte does the microbe get digested?
A. Phagosome
B. Lysosome
C. Phagolysosome
D. Pseudopod
```
C - phagolysosome
84
The first step of inflammation is vasodilation. What is the purpose of vasodilation?
A. To repair the damaged tissue.
B. To remove the
injurious agent.
C. To make the skin red at the site of infection.
D. To increase the flow of blood to the area.
D - increase blood flow
85
Figure 17.2 could be all of the following except
IgD.
IgM.
IgG.
IgE.
None of the above.
IgM
86
The antibodies found in mucus, saliva, and tears are
IgG
IgM
IgA
IgD
IgE
IgA
87
Purified protein from B. pertussis is a(n)
Conjugated vaccine
Subcellular vaccine
DNA vaccine
Attenuated live organism vaccine
Inactivated whole organism vaccine
subcellular vaccine
88
Antigens coated with antibodies are susceptible to
B cells.
Further antibody attack.
Helper T cells.
Phagocytosis.
None of the above.
phagocytosis
89
In Figure 17.2, which areas are similar for all IgG antibodies?
a and b
a and c
b and c
c and d
b and d
c and d
90
Immunoglobulins and T-Cell receptors are similar in that both
bind to processed antigens
can be secreted from a cell
can be found on the surface of T-cells
have antigen binding regions
have antigen binding regions
91
Newborns' immunity due to the transfer of antibodies across the placenta.
Innate immunity
Naturally acquired active immunity
Naturally acquired passive immunity
Artificially acquired active immunity
Artificially acquired passive immunity
naturally acquired passive immunity
92
Antibodies that are associated with "degranulation" of mast cells
IgE
IgG
IgA
IgE
93
```
If a person's bone marrow were destroyed by radiation, which of the following cells could still be produced?
A) B cells
B) neutrophils
C) T cells
D) erythrocytes
E) None of the above could be produced.
```
E - none
94
```
Which of the following cells are the major producers of histamine?
A) Lymphocytes
B) Erythrocytes
C) Eosinophils
D) Neutrophils
E) Mast Cells
```
E - mast cells
95
```
A new therapeutic blocks production of chemokines. This therapeutic might be useful in treatment of
A) viral infections
B) chronic inflammation
C) antibiotic resistance
D) bacterial infections
E) natural killer cell dysfunctions
```
C - chronic inflammation
96
```
The lacrimal apparatus most closely resembles a
A. dishwasher
B. windshield wiper (and spritzer)
C. food processor
D. washing machine
E. espresso maker
```
B - windshield wiper
97
Which of the following does not match a cell to a cell from which it is derived?
A) monocytes: hematopoietic stem cells
B) plasma cell: B cell
C) memory cell: B cell
D) macrophage: hematopoietic stem cells
E) all of the above are correctly matched
E - all
98
which of the following statements is false?
A) clonal selection of B cells occurs in the bone marrow
B) antibody: antigen interactions occur in secondary lymphoid organs
C) lymph nodes are lymphoid organs
D) lymph nodes contain B-cells, T-cells, and APCs
E) antigens are often "transported" to lymph nodes
A - clonal selection of B cells occurs in the bone marrow
99
```
Antibodies passed through the placenta
A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgE
D) IgM
E) IgG
```
E - IgG
100
The best definition of an epitope is
A) A chemical that binds to an antigen
B) the portion of the MHC which binds to a peptide
C) part of an antigen that binds to an antibody
D) a molecule which binds to a T-cell receptor
E) the molecule recognized by NK cells
C - part of the antigen that binds to the antibody
101
Why is the secondary immune response typically stronger than the primary response?
A) all classes of antibody are activated
B) memory B cells are poised to react to antigen
C) macrophages and dendretic cells become involved
D) the antigen is weakened by the primary response
E) histamine release attracts greater number of phagocytic cells
B - memory cells are poised to react to antigen
102
```
A dendritic cell with defective MHC molecules is unable to
A) cause apoptosis
B) move by chemotaxis
C) present antigens to T-cells
D) Process antigens after ingestion
E) ingest microbes
```
C - present antigen to the T-cells
103
```
The binding of a CD8 T-cell to an infected cell causes
A) apoptosis
B) production of antibodies
C) costimulation
D) T-cell activation
E) All of the above
```
A - apoptosis
104
Which of the following are incapable of binding directly to a microbe?
A) dendritic cells
B) macrophages
C) B-cells
D) NK cells
E) All of the above can bind directly to microbes
D - NK cells
105
Dendritic cells
A) cause virally infected cells to undergo apoptosis
B) process antigens and present them to T-cells
C) are important for NK cell activity
D) are also called macrophages
E) all of the above
B - process antigens and present them to T-cells
106
```
Antibodies and complement component C3b are similar in that both
A) function as chemoattractants
B) help induce phagocytosis
C) can be found by Fc receptors
D) suppress inflammation
E) are proteins produced by B-cells
```
B - help induce phagocytosis
107
An antibody's antigen binding site is formed by
A) the constant regions of the antibody
B) the heavy chain variable
C) the light chain variable region
D) the variable regions of the light and heavy chains
E) interaction with the MHC molecules
D - the variable regions of the light and heavy chains
108
which of the following is false?
A) MHC molecules are on all of our nucleated cells
B) MHC molecules differ from person to person
C) MHC molecules are involved in activation of complement
D) CD4 T-cells bind to MHC molecules on other cells
E) MHC molecules bind to T-cell recptors
C - MHC molecules are involved in the activation of complement
109
```
T-cell maturation (selection and clonal deletion) occur in the
A) Spleen
B) thyroid
C) thymus
D) bone marrow
E) lymphoid nodes
```
C -thymus
110
the first serum (secreted) antibodies produced after initial exposure to an antigen
A) IgM
B) IgA
C) IgG
D) IgE
E) trick question- all types of antibodies are produced simultaneously
A - IgM
111
```
Antibodies bind to antigens on a virus and inhibit it from infecting a cell
A) neutralization
B) agglutination
C) complement activation
D) opsinization
E) primary response
```
A - neutralization
112
An IgG antibody is found that binds antigen but is ineffective at initiating the complement cascade. Which of the following is a plausible explanation?
A) the antibody is mutated in it's Fc (constant region)
B) the antibody variable region has changed shape
C) the antibody's light chain is not doing its job
D) the IgG is a monoclonal antibody
E) trick question- antibodies are not involved in initiation of the complement cascade
A - the antibody is mutated in it's Fc (constant region)
113
Which of the following does not match a cell with a cell from which it is derived?
A) B-cells and plasma cells
B) hematopoietic stem cells and T-cells
C) monocytes and mast cells
D) hematopoietic stem cells and granulocytes
E) B-cells and memory cells
C - monocytes and mast cells
114
Type of immunity resulting from "catching" a cold
A) artificially acquired active immunity
B) artificially acquired passive immunity
C) naturally acquired active immunity
D) innate resistance
E) naturally acquired passive immunity
C - naturally acquired active immunity
115
Which of the following statements is false?
A) ELISA uses both antibodies and enzymes
B) a direct ELISA is useful for detection of antigens in test serum
C) ELISA is a serological test
D) ELISA tests involve antibody: antigen interactions
E) All of the above statements are true
E - all are true
116
```
Which macromolecule provokes the strongest immune responses?
A) lipid
B) Nucleic acid
C) protein
D) polysaccharides
E) carbohydrates
```
C - protein
117
```
Which of the following is the least likely component of a vaccine?
A) inactivated viruses
B) live weakened viruses
C) parts of bacterial cells or viruses
D) purified viral spike proteins
E) antibodies
```
E - antibodies
118
Monoclonal antibodies
A) can activate T-cells
B) are much more specific than polyclonal antibodies
C) are produced only during the primary immune response
D) are always IgE
E) are produced by cells called eosinophils
B - are much more specific than polyclonal antibodies
119
Which of the following statements is false?
A) ELISA uses both antibodies and enzymes
B) a direct ELISA is useful for detection of antigens in test serum
C) ELISA is a serological test
D) ELISA tests involve antibody: antigen interactions
E) All of the above statements are true
e - all are TRUE
120
Legionella uses C3b receptors to enter monocytes. This
prevents phagocytosis.
degrades complement.
inactivates complement.
prevents inflammation.
prevents cytolysis.
prevents phagocytosis
121
Chlamydia can prevent the formation of phagolysosomes and therefore can
avoid being phagocytized.
avoid destruction by complement.
prevent adherence.
avoid being digested.
none of the above
avoid being digested
122
If the following are placed in the order of occurrence, which would be the third step?
diapedesis
digestion
formation of a phagosome
formation of a phagolysosome
margination
formation of a phagosome
123
If the following are placed in the order of occurrence, which would be the third step?
activation of C5 through C9
cell lysis
antigen–antibody reaction
activation of C3
activation of C2 through C4
activation of C3
124
A human host can prevent a pathogen from getting enough iron by all of the following except
reducing dietary intake of iron.
binding iron with transferrin.
binding iron with hemoglobin.
binding iron with ferritin.
binding iron with siderophores.
binding iron with siderophores
125
A decrease in the production of C3 would result in
increased susceptibility to infection.
increased numbers of white blood cells.
increased phagocytosis.
activation of C5 through C9.
none of the above
increased susceptibility to infection
126
In 1884, Elie Metchnikoff observed cells collected around a splinter inserted in a sea star embryo. This was the discovery of
blood cells.
sea stars.
phagocytosis.
immunity.
none of the above
phagocytosis
127
Helicobacter pylori uses the enzyme urease to counteract a chemical defense in the human organ in which it lives. This chemical defense is
lysozyme.
hydrochloric acid.
superoxide radicals.
sebum.
complement.
hydrochloric acid
128
Which of the following statements about IFN-α is false?
It interferes with viral replication.
It is host-cell–specific.
It is released by fibroblasts.
It is virus-specific.
It is released by lymphocytes.
it is virus-specific
129
Match the following choices to questions 1–4:
a. innate resistance
b. naturally acquired active immunity
c. naturally acquired passive immunity
d. artificially acquired active immunity
e. artificially acquired passive immunity
1. The type of protection provided by the injection of diphtheria toxoid.
2. The type of protection provided by the injection of antirabies serum.
3. The type of protection resulting from recovery from an infection.
4. A newborn’s immunity to yellow fever.
1. d
2. e
3. b
4. c
130
Match the following choices to the statements in questions 5–7:
a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgE
d. IgG
e. IgM
5. Antibodies that protect the fetus and newborn.
6. The first antibodies synthesized; especially effective against microorganisms.
7. Antibodies that are bound to mast cells and involved in allergic reactions.
5. d
6. e
7. c
131
Put the following in the correct sequence to elicit an antibody response: (1) TH cell recognizes B cell; (2) APC contacts antigen; (3) antigen fragment goes to surface of APC; (4) TH recognizes antigen digest and MHC; (5) B cell proliferates.
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
5, 4, 3, 2, 1
3, 4, 5, 1, 2
2, 3, 4, 1, 5
4, 5, 3, 1, 2
2, 3, 4, 1, 5
132
A kidney-transplant patient experienced a cytotoxic rejection of his new kidney. Place the following in order for that rejection: (1) apoptosis occurs; (2) CD8+ T cell becomes CTL; (3) granzymes released; (4) MHC class I activates CD8+ T cell; (5) perforin released.
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
5, 4, 3, 2, 1
4, 2, 5, 3, 1
3, 4, 5, 1, 2
2, 3, 4, 1, 5
4, 2, 5, 3, 1
133
Patients with Chédiak-Higashi syndrome suffer from various types of cancer. These patients are most likely lacking which of the following?
Treg cells
TH1 cells
B cells
NK cells
TH2 cells
NK cells
134
a. hemolysis
b. hemagglutination
c. hemagglutination inhibition
d. no hemolysis
e. precipitin ring forms
1. Patient’s serum, influenza virus, sheep red blood cells, and anti-sheep red blood cells are mixed in a tube. What happens if the patient has antibodies against influenza?
2. Patient’s serum, Chlamydia, guinea pig complement, sheep red blood cells, and anti-sheep red blood cells are mixed in a tube. What happens if the patient has antibodies against Chlamydia?
3. The examples in questions 1 and 2 are
a. direct tests.
b. indirect tests.
1. c - hemagglutination inhibition
2. d - no hemolysis
3. b - indirect
135
In an immunodiffusion test, a strip of filter paper containing diphtheria antitoxin is placed on a solid culture medium. Then bacteria are streaked perpendicular to the filter paper. If the bacteria are toxigenic,
the filter paper will turn red.
a line of antigen–antibody precipitate will form.
the cells will lyse.
the cells will fluoresce.
none of the above
a line of antigen-antibody precipitatate will form
136
The mechanism of action of interferon includes all of the following except
It inactivates viruses.
It initiates manufacture of another antiviral protein.
It works in cells not producing INF.
It binds to the surface of uninfected cells.
None of the above.
it inactivates viruses
137
The function of the "ciliary escalator" is to
Kill microorganisms.
Remove microorganisms from the upper respiratory tract.
Remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract.
Remove microorganisms from body cavities.
All of the above.
remove from lower respiratory tract
138
```
Leukocidins lyse _____ and ______ lyse red blood cells.
A) red blood cells, exotoxins
B) white blood cells, hemolysins
C) leukocytes, endotoxins
D) lymphocytes, superantigens
```
B - white blood cells; hemolysins
139
```
TCR binds to
A) an MHC protein
B) a foreign peptide
C) an MHC protein with foreign peptide
D) toll-like receptor
```
C - an MHC protein with foreign peptide
140
```
Specific antibodies are secreted by
A) T-helper cells
B) macrophages
C) stem cells
D) plasma cells
```
D- plasma cells
141
```
Which of the following is likely to bind to a toll-like receptor?
A) processed antigen
B) LPS
C) MHC molecules
D) cytokines
```
B - LPS
142
```
Chemical signals sent between leukocytes are
A) Interleukins
B) Interferons
C) Colony- stimulating factor
D) Tumor necrosis factor
E) TCRs
```
A - interleukins
143
```
Molecules secreted by phagocytes which attract more phagocytic cells
A) interleukins
B) complement
C) cytokines
D) chemokines
```
C - cytokines
