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Flashcards in Upgrade Test Deck (183):

What is the mechanical advantage of tackle number 2?

A. 1:1

B.  2:1

C.  3:1

D. 4:1

B. 2:1


What is the name of tackle number 7?


A.  Runner

B.  Inverted Whip


C.  Whip

D.  Single Purchase

A.  Runner


What is the name of tackle number 1?


A.  Single Whip

B.  One-fold purchase


C.  Gun Tackle

D.  Runner

A.  Single whip


What is the name of tackle number 2?


A.  Single Whip

B.  One fold purchase

C.  Single purchase

D.  Gun tackle

D.  Gun Tackle


You are using tackle number 1 in illustration D029DG to lift a weight of 100 lbs. If  you include 10 percent of the weight for each sheave for friction, what is the pull on the  hauling part required to lift the weight?

A.  50 lbs.

B.  55 lbs.

C.  100 lbs.

D.  110 lbs.

D.  110 lbs.


River currents tend to ...

A. pick up speed where the channel widens

B. run slower in the center of the channel

C. hug the inside of a bend

D. cause the greatest depth of water to be along the outside of a bend

D. cause the greatest depth of water to be along the outside of a bend


In order to reduce your wake in a narrow channel you should ...


A. apply enough rudder to counter the effect of the current

B. change your course to a zigzag course


C. reduce your speed

D. shift the weight to the stern

C. reduce your speed



A wedge of water building up between the bow and nearer bank which forces the bow out and away describes ...

A. bank cushion  

B. bank suction

C. combined effect

D. bend effect

A. bank cushion 



A V-shaped ripple with the point of the V pointing upstream in a river may indicate a ...

A. submerged rock, not dangerous to navigation

B. sunken wreck, not dangerous to navigation  

C. towed-under buoy

D. All of the above

C. towed-under buoy



The effect known as "bank cushion" acts in which of the following ways on a single- screw vessel proceeding along a narrow channel?


A. It forces the bow away from the bank.

B. It forces the stern away from the bank.


C. It forces the entire vessel away from the bank.

D. It heels the vessel toward the bank.

A. It forces the bow away from the bank.



Two vessels are abreast of each other and passing port to port in a confined waterway. What should you expect as your bow approaches the screws of the other vessel?


A. Your speed will significantly increase.

B. Your draft will significantly decrease.


C. Your bow will sheer towards the other vessel.

D. Your bow will sheer away from the other vessel.

C. Your bow will sheer towards the other vessel.



A vessel proceeding along the bank of a river or channel has the tendency to ...

A. continue in line with the bank

B. hug the bank

C. sheer away from the bank

D. increase speed

C. sheer away from the bank



For the deepest water when rounding a bend in a river, you should navigate your vessel ...

A. toward the inside of the bend

B. toward the outside of the bend

C. toward the center of the river just before the bend, then change course for the
river's center after the bend

D. in the river's center

B. toward the outside of the bend


A condition where two currents meet at the downstream end of a middle bar can be determined by a ...

A. small whirlpool

B. smooth patch of water

C. V-shaped ripple with the point of the V pointing downstream

D. V-shaped ripple with the point of the V pointing upstream

C. V-shaped ripple with the point of the V pointing downstream



A snag or other underwater obstruction may form a ...

A. V-shaped ripple with the point of the V pointing upstream

B. V-shaped ripple with the point of the V pointing downstream

C. small patch of smooth water on a windy day

D. smoothing out of the vessel's wake

A. V-shaped ripple with the point of the V pointing upstream



An inflatable life raft should be lifted back aboard the ship by using ...

A. the single hook at the top of the raft

B. two lines passed under the raft

C. the towing bridle

D. All of the above

C. the towing bridle



What is the best procedure for picking up a lifeboat at sea while utilizing the lifeboat’s 

A. Place the lifeboat ahead and to windward of your vessel with the wind broad on the bow of your ship

B. Place the lifeboat ahead and to leeward of your vessel with the wind broad on the bow of your ship  

C. Place the ship ahead and to windward of your lifeboat with the on the quarter to allow your ship to drift down to the lifeboat.

D. Place the lifeboat ahead and to windward of your ship with the on the quarter to allow your ship to drift down to the lifeboat.

B. Place the lifeboat ahead and to leeward of your vessel with the wind broad on the bow of your ship  


In order to retrieve an inflatable life raft and place it on deck, you should heave on the ...

A. lifelines  

B. righting strap

C. sea anchor

D. towing bridle

D. towing bridle


When operating gravity davits, the ...

A. gripes should be released after the boat is moving

B. davits should always be hand cranked the last 12 inches into the final stowage position

C. boats are generally lowered by surging the falls around cruciform bitts

D. tricing pendant should be tripped prior to releasing the gripes

B. davits should always be hand cranked the last 12 inches into the final stowage position


When a rescue vessel approaches a survival craft in heavy seas, the person in charge of 
the survival craft should ...

A. tie up to the rescue vessel

B. transfer only those personnel who are not seasick

C. wait for calmer weather before transferring personnel

D. transfer all personnel immediately

C. wait for calmer weather before transferring personnel



To safely anchor a vessel there must be sufficient "scope" in the anchor cable. Scope is the ratio of ...

A. weight of cable to weight of vessel  

B. weight of cable to weight of anchor

C. length of anchor to depth of water

D. length of cable to depth of water

D. length of cable to depth of water


Conventional anchors are least likely to hold in a bottom consisting of ...

A. soft clay

B. hard mud

C. very soft mud  

D. sand

C. very soft mud 



Which type of bottom is best suited for holding an anchor of a small boat?

A. Mud and clay  

B. Rocky

C. Sandy

D. Gravel

A. Mud and clay 



By paying out more anchor cable, you ...

A. decrease the holding power of your anchor

B. decrease the swing of your vessel while at anchor

C. increase the holding power of your anchor

D. increase the possibility that your vessel will drag anchor

C. increase the holding power of your anchor



What is the normal length of anchor cable used to anchor a vessel?

A. An amount equal to the depth of the water

B. Two times the depth of water

C. Three to four times the depth of water

D. Five to seven times the depth of water

D. Five to seven times the depth of water


A sufficient amount of chain must be veered when anchoring a vessel to ensure ...

A. the vessel has enough room to swing while at anchor

B. the anchor flukes bite into the ocean bottom

C. there is a sufficient scope of chain to keep the anchor on the bottom

D. there is more chain out than there is in the chain locker

B. the anchor flukes bite into the ocean bottom


When anchoring in a current, you should ...

A. drop the anchor with the bow headed downstream

B. back your vessel into the current

C. anchor while stemming the current

D. All of the above

C. anchor while stemming the current



While anchoring your vessel, the best time to let go the anchor is when the vessel is ...

A. dead in the water

B. moving slowly astern over the ground

C. moving fast ahead over the ground

D. moving fast astern over the ground

B. moving slowly astern over the ground


The best method to stop a vessel from dragging anchor in a sand bottom is to ...

A. reduce the length of the cable

B. pay out more anchor cable

C. back the engines

D. swing the rudder several times to work the anchor into the  bottom

B. pay out more anchor cable


The best method of determining if a vessel is dragging anchor is to note ...

A. the amount of line paid out

B. how much the vessel sheers while at anchor

C. any change in the tautness of the anchor chain

D. changes in bearings of fixed objects onshore


D. changes in bearings of fixed objects onshore


You are being towed by one tug. As you lengthen the bridle legs you ...


A.  increase your chances of breaking the towing hawser

B.  reduce the yawing of your vessel


C.  reduce the spring effect of the tow connection

D.  increase your chances of breaking the bridle legs

B.  reduce the yawing of your vessel



The catenary in a towline is ...


A.  a short bridle

B.  the downward curvature of the hawser


C.  another name for a pelican hook

D.  used to hold it amidships

B.  the downward curvature of the hawser



When towing astern, increased catenary will ...

A.  increase control of the tow

B.  prevent the towing vessel from going in irons

C.  make the towing vessel less maneuverable

D.  reduce shock stress on the towing hawser

D.  reduce shock stress on the towing hawser


How many legs does the bridle for an ocean tow have? 

A.  One

B.  Two

C.  Three

D.  Four

B.  Two


Which statement is TRUE concerning hawser towing?


A.  The catenary in a hawser should be sufficient so that the hawser just touches the bottom.

B.  The hawser is of sufficient length for towing when taut between tug and tow.


C.  Increasing speed usually increases the catenary in the hawser.

D.  Shortening the tow hawser generally decreases the maneuverability of the tug.

D.  Shortening the tow hawser generally decreases the maneuverability of the tug.


What term indicates the outward curvature of the hull above the waterline?

A. sheer

B. tumble home

C. deadrise

D. flare

D. flare


The fittings used to secure a watertight door are known as ...

A. clamps

B. clasps

C. dogs

D. latches

C. dogs



Which term refers to a transverse curvature of the deck?


A. Deadrise

B. Camber

C. Freeboard

D. Flare

B. Camber



What term indicates a curvature of the decks in a longitudinal direction?

A. Deadrise

B. Camber

C. Sheer

D. Flare

C. Sheer



In ship construction, frame spacing is ...


A. greater at the bow and stern

B. reduced at the bow and stern


C. uniform over the length of the vessel

D. uniform over the length of the vessel, with the exception of the machinery spaces, where it is reduced due to increased stresses

B. reduced at the bow and stern



The upward pressure of displaced water is called ...

A. buoyancy

B. deadweight

C. draft

D. freeboard

A. buoyancy



What is NOT a motion of the vessel?


A. Pitch

B. Roll


C. Trim

D. Yaw

C. Trim



The tendency of a vessel to return to its original trim after being inclined by an 
external force is ...


A. equilibrium

B. buoyancy


C. transverse stability

D. longitudinal stability

D. longitudinal stability


What is the principal danger from the liquid in a half full tank onboard a vessel?


A. Corrosion from the shifting liquid

B. Rupturing of bulkheads from the shifting liquid


C. Loss of stability from free surface effect

D. Holing of the tank bottom from the weight of the shifting liquid

C. Loss of stability from free surface effect



A vessel is "listed" when it is ... 

A. inclined due to an off-center weight

B. inclined due to the wind

C. down by the head

D. down by the stern


 A wind has caused a difference between drafts starboard and port. This difference is ...  

A. list

B. heel

C. trim

D. flotation

B. heel


The principal danger from ice collecting on a vessel is the ...

A. decrease in capabilities of radar

B. decrease in displacement

C. adverse effect on trim

D. loss of stability

D. loss of stability


Reserve buoyancy is the ...

A. unoccupied space below the waterline

B. volume of intact space above the waterline

C. excess of the buoyant force over the gravity force

D. difference in the buoyant force in salt and fresh waters

B. volume of intact space above the waterline


For an upright vessel, draft is the vertical distance between the keel and the ...

A. waterline

B. freeboard deck

C. plimsoll mark

D. amidships section


A. waterline



Stability is determined principally by the location of two points in a vessel: the center 
of buoyancy and the ...

A. meta center

B. geometric center of the water plane area

C. center of gravity

D. center of flotation

C. center of gravity



Which operation should be done when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand?


A. Open the liferaft casing.

B. Turn the valve on the CO2 cylinder to start inflation.


C. Make sure the operating cord is secured to the vessel before throwing it over the side.

D. After inflation, detach operating cord from liferaft.



The operating cord on an inflatable life raft also serves as a  ...

A. lifeline

B. painter

C. drogue

D. marker



If an inflatable liferaft is to be released manually, where should the operating cord be 
attached prior to throwing the raft overboard? 

A. Do not attach the cord to anything but throw is overboard with the raft container.

B. Attach the cord to a fixed object on the ship.

C. You should stand on the cord.

D. Attach the cord to the special pad eye on the “raft davit launcher”.



Prior to lowering the lifeboat, the most important item to check is the ...

A. oars

B. sail

C. boat plug

D. life preservers



The most important thing to remember when launching an inflatable life raft by hand is to  ...

A. open the CO2 inflation valve

B. open the raft container

C. ensure that the operating cord is secured to the vessel

D. inflate the raft on the vessel, then lower it over the side



 In rough weather, when a ship is able to maneuver, it is best to launch a lifeboat ...

A. on the lee side

B. on the windward side

C. with wind dead ahead

D. with the wind from dead astern



When a vessel is swinging from side to side off course due to quartering seas, the 
vessel is  ...

A. broaching

B. pitchpoling

C. rolling

D. yawing



You are underway in heavy weather and your bow is into the seas. To prevent 
pounding, you should  ...

A. change course, in order to take seas at an 85 degree angle from the bow.

B. decrease speed

C. increase speed

D. secure all loose gear



When a boat turns broadside to heavy seas and winds, thus exposing the boat to the 
danger of capsizing, the boat has  ...

A. broached

B. pitchpoled

C. trimmed

D. yawed



Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to 
the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should you take?

A. Cut the painter line so it will not pull the liferaft container down.

B. Swim away from the container so you will not be in danger as it goes down.

C. Take no action because the painter will cause the liferaft to inflate and open the container.

D. Manually open the container and inflate the liferaft with the hand pump.



The most effective cooling agent among those normally used to fight fires is 

A. water fog or spray

B. chemical foam

C. mechanical foam

D. carbon dioxide



Removing which will extinguish a fire?

A. Nitrogen

B. Carbon dioxide

C. Sodium

D. Oxygen



The spread of fire is prevented by ...

A. cooling surfaces adjacent to the fire

B. leaving combustibles in the endangered area

C. increasing the oxygen supply

D. All of the above



A fire in a pile of linen is a class ...

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D



To prevent the spread of fire by conduction you should ...

A. shut off all electrical power

B. close all openings to the area

C. remove combustibles from direct exposure

D. cool the bulkheads around the fire



The class of fire on which a blanketing effect is essential is class ...

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D



 A galley grease fire would be classified as which class of fire?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D



Fires are grouped into what categories?

A. Class A, B, C, and D

B. Type 1, 2, 3, and 4

C. Combustible solids, liquids, and gases

D. Flammable solids, liquids, and gases



Fire may be spread by which means?

A. Conduction of heat to adjacent surfaces

B. Direct radiation

C. Convection

D. All of the above



All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT ...

A. electricity

B. fuel

C. oxygen

D. heat



Convection spreads a fire by ...

A. the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space

B. burning liquids flowing into another space

C. transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal

D. heated gases flowing through ventilation systems



The primary function(s) of an automatic sprinkler system is (are) to ...

A. extinguish the fire which triggers it

B. limit the spread of fire and control the amount of heat produced

C. protect people in the areas which have sprinkler heads

D. alert the crew to the fire



Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide?

A. It is heavier than air.

B. It is non-conductive.

C. It is used on class B and C fires.

D. All of the above are true.



The disadvantage of using CO2 is that the ...

A. CO2 does not cool the fire

B. cylinders are regulated pressure vessels

C. C02 is not effective on class "B" fires

D. C02 is not effective on class "C" fires



How does foam extinguish an oil fire?

A. By cooling the oil below the ignition temperature

B. By removing the fuel source from the fire

C. By excluding the oxygen from the fire

D. By increasing the weight of the oil



One of the limitations of foam as an extinguishing agent is that foam ...

A. cannot be made with salt water

B. is heavier than oil and sinks below its surface

C. is corrosive and a hazard

D. conducts electricity



The difference in water spray pattern between the high-velocity tip and low-velocity 
applicator used with the all purpose 
nozzle is due to ...

A. a difference in water pressure

B. the method of breaking up the water stream

C. the length of the applicator

D. All of the above



What is an advantage of water fog or water spray over a straight stream of water in 
fighting an oil fire?

A. It has a smothering effect on the fire.

B. It requires less water to remove the same amount of heat.

C. It gives more protection to fire fighting personnel.

D. All of the above



Which extinguishing agent will absorb the most heat?

A. CO2

B. Foam

C. Water

D. Dry chemical



 Drills must be held before sailing when a vessel enters service for the first time, 
after modification of a major character, or when a new crew is engaged. Each fire 
drill must include ...

A. Reporting to stations and preparing for the duties described in the muster list for the particular fire emergency being simulated

B. Starting of fire pumps and the use of two jets of water to determine that the
system is in proper working order

C. Checking the firemen's outfits and other personal rescue equipment

D. All of the above



The Master of a small passenger vessel must conduct sufficient instruction as 
necessary ...

A. At each crew change

B. Every week

C. Every month

D. To ensure that all crew members are familiar with their duties during emergencies



Traditionally, the signal for fire aboard ship is ...

A. more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast on the whistle, and the same signal on
the general alarm

B. continuous sounding of the ship’s whistle and the general alarm for at least 10

C. 1 short blast

D. alternating short and long blasts on the ship’s whistle



While reading the muster list you see that “3 short rings on the general alarm 
bells” is the signal for ...

A. abandon ship

B. dismissal from fire and emergency stations

C. fire and emergency

D. man overboard




 Lifesaving regulations in Subchapter W require that a fire drill include 

A. Starting the fire pumps

B. Checking the operation of watertight doors

C. Checking arrangements for abandon ship

D. All of the above




Fire hose couplings ...

A. are made of bronze, brass, or soft alloy metals

B. should be painted red in order to identify hose lengths

C. are specially hardened to prevent crushing

D. should be greased frequently



 The straight stream capability of an all-purpose nozzle is used in fighting a class A fire to ...

A. shield fire fighters from radiant heat

B. break up burning material

C. get the most water possible on the fire

D. drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire fighters



What is the most vulnerable part of the fire main system?

A. The fire pump

B. Exposed hard piping

C. The hydrant valve

D. The fire hose



A fire hose with a nozzle attached must be connected to each hydrant except when 
exposed to heavy weather or when the ...

A. fire hose might be damaged by cargo operations

B. vessel is in port

C. fire-main system is not charged

D. fire pumps are used for purposes other than supplying water to the fire main



 The size of fire hydrant hose connections on a cargo vessel must be either 1-1/2 
inches or ...

A. 1 inch

B. 2-1/2 inches  

C. 3 inches

D. 3-1/2 inches



At each initial and subsequent inspection for certification, all carbon dioxide fire 
extinguishers aboard a vessel are ... (small passenger vessel regulations)

A. checked for pressure loss

B. discharged and recharged

C. sent ashore to an approved service facility

D. weighed



On vessels that are required to have fixed carbon dioxide fire extinguishing systems, 
the controls to operate the system shall be installed in an accessible location ... 
(small passenger vessel regulations)

A. outside the space protected

B. inside the space protected

C. at the carbon dioxide cylinders

D. in a padlocked waterproof metal box



Fixed carbon dioxide fire extinguishing systems shall be installed to protect enclosed 
machinery and fuel tank spaces of all vessels using gasoline or other fuel having a flash 
point of ... (small passenger vessel regulations)

A. 0°F or lower

B. 75°F or lower

C. 90°F or lower

D. 110°F or lower



On a small passenger vessel, 58 feet in length, carrying 52 passengers the fire pump 
shall have a minimum pumping capacity of ...

A. 10 gallons per minute

B. 25 gallons per minute

C. 50 gallons per minute

D. 100 gallons per minute



How many portable fire extinguishers are required to be located inside the machinery 
space of a small passenger vessel?

A. None are required

B. One B-I, C-I

C. One B-II, C-II

D. One B-II



A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is required to be recharged if the weight loss 
exceeds what percentage of the weight of the charge? (small passenger vessel 

A. One percent

B. Five percent

C. Seven percent

D. Ten percent



What would be an example of a B-I extinguisher? (small passenger vessel regulations)

A. 2.5 gallon foam

B. 10 pound carbon dioxide

C. 2 pound dry chemical

D. 5 pound foam



Which type of fire extinguishers are permitted on inspected vessels? (small passenger 
vessel regulations)

A. Foam

B. Carbon dioxide

C. Dry chemical

D. All of the above



Your vessel must have a B-II fire extinguisher. Which extinguisher fulfills this 
requirement? (small passenger vessel regulations)

A. 4 lb. carbon dioxide

B. 4 lb. dry chemical

C. 15 lb. carbon dioxide

D. 12 gallon foam



Which statement is TRUE concerning the number of portable fire extinguishers 
required at the operating station of a small passenger vessel? (small passenger vessel 

A. None are required.

B. One B-I extinguisher is required.

C. One B-II extinguisher is required.

D. Two B-I extinguishers are required.



The owner, agent, Master or person-in-charge of a small passenger vessel involved in a marine casualty is NOT required to notify the Coast Guard in cases where there is ...

A. property damage less than $25,000

B. no injury which requires more than first aid treatment

C. death or injury to a shipyard worker or harbor worker not resulting from the vessel casualty

D. All of the above



On small passenger vessels, when must watchmen patrol throughout the vessel to guard against and give alarm in case of fire or other danger?

A. At all times outside normal work hours

B. At all times when the vessel is underway

C. During the nighttime when the vessel carries overnight passengers

D. When the rest of the crew is asleep



The Master of a small passenger vessel must conduct sufficient drills and give sufficient instruction as necessary ...

A. At each crew change

B. Every week

C. Every month

D. To ensure that all crew members are familiar with their duties during emergencies



A "T-Boat" accident resulting in loss of life, serious injury or more than $25,000 property damage must be reported to ...

A. the Maritime Administration (MARAD)

B. the Coast Guard

C. the owner or his insurance agent

D. All of the above



Which vessel must carry a compass on board? (small passenger vessel regulations)

A. A non-self-propelled vessel

B. A vessel operating in protected waters with a short restricted route

C. A vessel operating on the Ohio River

D. A vessel operating on the Gulf of Mexico



When an autopilot is being used aboard small passenger vessels, who must make or supervise the 
changeover from automatic to manual steering and vice versa?

A. A licensed state or federal pilot

B. A certified quartermaster

C. The Master or Mate on watch

D. A qualified Engineer



As appropriate for the voyage, all vessels must carry adequate and up-to-date ... (small 
passenger vessel regulations)

A. charts

B. Coast Pilots

C. Light Lists

D. All of the above



What must be mounted at a small passenger vessel's operating station for use by the Master and crew?

A. Emergency Instructions

B. A tide table for the area

C. Instructions on artificial respiration

D. The location of the first aid kit



If a vessel is not equipped with an automatically-activated emergency lighting system, the vessel must be ... (small passenger vessel regulations)

A. operated only in daylight hours

B. provided with gasoline or kerosene lights

C. equipped with luminous tape markings on emergency equipment

D. equipped with individual battery-powered lights



Prior to getting underway for the day's operations, every small passenger vessel shall have it's steering gear tested by ...  

A. the Mate on watch

B. the Master

C. a Mate or Designated Duty Engineer

D. a licensed Engineer



How can the Coast Guard determine that a crew member is "able to understand any order spoken by 
the officers"?

A. Require a demonstration by the officer and the crew member

B. Require a written test

C. Require that an interpreter be provided

D. All of the above



The Shipping Articles shall be signed by each seaman and the ...

A. Master of the vessel

B. Shipping Commissioner

C. U.S. Coast Guard

D. U.S. Customs Service



You are the licensed Master of a 100 GT towing vessel sailing coastwise.  What percentage of the 
deck crew must be able to understand any order spoken by the officers?

A. 50%

B. 65%

C. 75%

D. 100%



The Master may require part of the crew to work when needed for ...

A. maneuvering, shifting berth, mooring and unmooring

B. performing work necessary for the safety of the vessel, its passengers, crew or cargo

C. performing fire, lifeboat or other drills in port or at sea

D. All of the above



Your vessel is on an extended foreign voyage.  Several vacancies have occurred in your unlicensed 
crew through sickness and repatriation.  Which statement is correct?

A. Aliens may be employed except that all U.S. flag vessels must maintain no less than 90% U.S.citizens in the crew.

B. Qualified aliens may be employed to fill the vacancies.

C. Seamen to fill vacancies must be flown from U.S. to join the vessel in the foreign port.

D. Vacancies can only be filled by U.S. citizens with valid Merchant Mariner's Documents



In terms of vessel manning, a watch is the ...

A. direct performance of deck or engine operations in a scheduled and fixed rotation

B. performance of maintenance work necessary for the vessel's safe operation, on a daily basis

C. performance of lookout duties

D. direct performance of cargo loading and discharge operations only



The terminology "able to understand any order spoken by the officers" refers to all of the following 
situations EXCEPT ...

A. in response to a fire

B. directing the use of lifesaving equipment

C. for deck department crew members to understand the terminology used in the engine room

D. in response to a man overboard



You are the licensed operator of a 100 GT towing vessel making coastwise runs. Whenever a crew 
member is discharged from your vessel you must ...

A. issue a Certificate of Discharge and make an entry in his Continuous Discharge Book

B. issue a Certificate of Discharge or make an entry in his Continuous Discharge Book

C. retain the crew member's Continuous Discharge Book onboard

D. retain the crew member's Certificate of Discharge onboard



When can the US citizenship requirement for the Master of a US-flag uninspected towing vessel be 

A. When US-licensed Masters are not readily available

B. When it costs too much to hire a US-licensed Master

C. When the towing vessel operates shoreward of the boundary line

D. Never, under any circumstances



Total responsibility for shipping and discharging the seamen is that of the ...  

A. Master of the vessel

B. steamship company

C. U.S. Custom Service

D. U.S. Coast Guard



You must make a written application to obtain or renew your "T" boat's Certificate of 
Inspection ...

A. on form CG-835

B. at the shipyard where you are hauled out

C. on form CG-3752

D. everytime your boat is hauled out



Small passenger vessels of less than 100 gross registered tons must be inspected by 
the Coast Guard when they carry more than ... (small passenger vessel 

A. 12 passengers

B. 50 passengers  

C. 6 passengers

D. 1 passenger



 The Coast Guard inspection required before a Certificate of Inspection can be issued is 
conducted ...

A. when deemed necessary by the Regional Inspection Center

B. after you apply in writing to the nearest Officer in Charge of Marine

C. at random from a Coast Guard patrol boat

D. after a formal complaint is filed with the OCMI



How do you know how many passengers you may carry? (Small passenger vessel regulations)

A. As many as possible

B. The amount on the Certificate of Inspection

C. Use your own judgement

D. No more than 40 passengers 



Whenever practicable, the Certificate of Inspection must be posted ... (small 
passenger vesselregulations)

A. as high as feasible in the pilot house

B. near the area where passengers embark

C. in any location desired

D. in a conspicuous place where it will most likely be observed by the passengers



The maximum number of passengers a "T-Boat" may carry ...

A. is stated on the vessel's Certificate of Inspection

B. is the number authorized in the Navigation Rules

C. depends on the number of lifejackets you carry

D. is the number authorized by your license



No "T-boat", however propelled, may operate with more than six passenger's onboard 

A. unless the operator has a Coast Guard license

B. unless the vessel has a valid Permit to Proceed

C. until the Boarding Officer has checked the papers

D. until a permit is obtained from the Collector of Customs



The Certificate of Inspection issued to a vessel carrying more than six passengers 
must be ... (small passenger vessel regulations)

A. posted on board under glass, if practical

B. posted on the dock where passengers are embarked

C. retained at the owner's principal place of business

D. kept on file by the Collector of Customs



How long is the Certificate of Inspection issued to a 50 gross ton, passenger carrying 
vessel which is 60feet (18 meters)in length valid? (small passenger vessel regulations)

A. Three years

B. Four years

C. Five years

D. Six years



A Certificate of Inspection issued to a small passenger vessel describes ...

A. the minimum fire extinguishing equipment, lifejackets, survival and rescue craft she must carry

B. the name of the managing operator

C. any special conditions or restrictions on her operation

D. All the above



A load line certificate is valid for how many years?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 5



The maximum draft to which a vessel can legally be submerged is indicated by the ...

A. load line mark

B. Certificate of Inspection

C. Muster List ("Station Bill")

D. tonnage mark



Which statement about the deck line is TRUE?

A. The top of the deck line is marked at the highest point of the freeboard deck, including  camber, at the midships point.

B. A vessel with wooden planks on a steel deck will have the deck line marked at the  intersection of the upper line of the wood sheathing with the side shell.

C. The deck edge is marked at the intersection of the freeboard deck with the side shell,  at the lowest point of sheer, with the vessel at even trim.

D. On a vessel with a rounded stringer-sheer plate, the deck line is marked where the   stringer plate turns down from the plane of the deck line.



Your vessel is issued a load line certificate dated 27 May 1992.  What is NOT an acceptable date for one of the surveys for endorsements? 

A. 28-Feb-93

B. 27-Nov-93

C. 26-Aug-94

D. 27-May-95



The annual survey for endorsement of a Load Line Certificate must be held within  ...

A. the three month period immediately following the certificate's anniversary date

B. the three month period immediately preceding the certificate's anniversary date

C. three months either way of the certificate's anniversary date

D. the three month period centered on the certificate's anniversary date



Periodic surveys to renew the load line assignment must be made at intervals NOT  exceeding ...  

A. 18 months

B. two years

C. three years

D. five years



Which certificate is issued by the American Bureau of Shipping?

A. Certificate of Inspection  

B. Load Line Certificate  

C. Safety Equipment Certificate

D. Permit to Proceed for repairs



Your load line certificate expires on 27 May 1988.  The vessel is surveyed on that date  and is found satisfactory.  You are sailing foreign the same day.  Which statement is  TRUE?

A. A new certificate must be issued before you sail.

B. The existing certificate is endorsed as valid for a five year period commencing 27 May  1988.  

C. The existing certificate is extended for a period of up to 150 days.

D. The existing certificate is extended until the first foreign port of call where a new  certificate will be issued by the local surveyor.



The primary purpose of a load line is to establish required ... 

A. minimum freeboard


C. transverse stability

D. fresh water allowances



The document on a vessel, annually endorsed by an American Bureau of Shipping  surveyor, is called the ...

A. Certificate of Inspection

B. Classification Certificate

C. Load Line Certificate

D. Seaworthy Certificate



In general, how often are sanitary inspections of passenger and crew quarters made  aboard passenger vessels in river service?

A. Once each day

B.  Once each week

C.  Once each month

D. Once each trip



Which chemical is used to treat water in order to ensure its safety for drinking?

A. Nitrogen

B. Chlorine

C. Carbon

D. Oxygen



The officer responsible for the sanitary condition of the engineering department is the ...

A. Master

B.  Chief Mate

C.  Chief Engineer

D. First Assistant



What represents poor sanitary procedures?

A. Keep and use a separate filling hose for potable (drinking) water.

B. Locate potable (drinking) water tanks as low as possible in the bilge.

C. Eliminate enclosed spaces in which trash, food particles, dirt may gather.

D. After washing dishes with soap and warm water, sterilize them in water of at least  170°F (76.7°C).



One method of controlling rats on vessels is by rat-proofing. Rat-proofing is  accomplished by ...

A. installing rat guards on the mooring lines when in port

B. keeping foods protected and avoiding the accumulation of garbage

C. eliminating possible living spaces for rats when the ship is constructed

D. trapping and/or poisoning the rats



On a tankship, sanitary inspections of the crew’s quarters are the responsibility of the  ...

A. Master and Second mate

B.  Master and Chief Engineer

C.  Master and union delegate

D. Master and Chief Mate



Your vessel is on a voyage of three months duration. The number of sanitary  inspections required is ...

A. One

B.  Three

C.  Six

D. Twelve



Good housekeeping on a vessel prevents fires by ... 

A. allowing better access in an emergency  

B. eliminating potential fuel sources

C. eliminating trip hazards

D. improving personnel qualifications



Before taking drinking water on board in the U.S. or its possessions, the responsible  person from the vessel should determine that the source ...

A. is used by a city

B. has been treated with chlorine

C. is approved by the public Health Service

D. is not from surface water



Normally, potable water systems are connected directly to the ... 

A. Fire-main system

B. Feed-water system

C. Freshwater sanitary system

D. Domestic water tank



The objective of shoring a damaged bulkhead is to ...

A. force the warped, bulged, or deformed sections back into place

B.  support and hold the area in the damaged position

C.  withstand subsequent additional damage

D. make a watertight seal at the damaged area



The two factors which make underwater hull repair difficult are accessibility and the ...

A. availability of tools

B.  shape of the hull

C.  pressure exerted by the water

D. threat of progressive flooding



Damaged bulkheads often take a permanent set which is independent of the panting or  bulge caused by water pressure.  To control this, you should ...

A. install shoring so the shoring supports the damaged bulkheads without pushing on  them

B.  install shoring so that it pushes on the damaged bulkhead while supporting it

C.  use jacks or chain falls to remove the set before installing shores

D. place sandbags by the bulkhead without installing shores



Which type of hull damage should be repaired FIRST?

A. Damage below the waterline

B.  Damage to interior watertight boundaries

C.  Damage in way of machinery rooms

D. Damage at or just above the waterline



When patching holes in the hull, pillows, bedding, and other soft materials can be used  as ...

A. shores

B. gaskets

C. strongbacks

D. wedges



Progressive flooding may be indicated by ...

A. ballast control alarms

B.  excessive draft

C.  excessive list or trim

D. a continual worsening of list or trim



The two courses of action if the underwater hull is severely damaged are to plug the  openings or to ...

A. establish and maintain flooding boundaries

B.  dewater the compartment

C.  secure power to the compartment

D. ballast to maintain even keel



Your vessel has been damaged and is partially flooded.  The first step to be taken in  attempting to save the vessel is to ...

A. establish flooding boundaries and prevent further spread of flood water

B.  plug the hole(s) in the outer shell

C.  pump out the water inside the vessel

D. calculate the free surface effect and lost buoyancy to determine the vessel's stability



The BEST information on the nature and extent of damage to the vessel is obtained  from ...

A. alarms and monitoring devices

B.  the engine room watch

C.  personnel at the scene of the damage

D. the bridge watch



What is considered a Serious Marine Incident?

A. an collision that results in $500 damage to a boat dock

B.  an injury to a crewmember, passenger, or other person which requires professional  medical treatment beyond first aid

C.  grounding of a vessel on a sandbar that does not result in injuries and/or any damage  to the vessel

D. None of the Above



In which casualty case is it UNNECESSARY to notify the local Coast Guard Marine  Safety Office?

A. A seaman is injured and in the hospital for four days.

B.  Nylon mooring line parts while the vessel is tied up and kills a harbor worker who  was on the pier.

C.  Your vessel is backing from a dock and runs aground, but is pulled off by tugs in 30  minutes.

D. Your vessel strikes a pier and does $1,500 damage to the pier but none to the vessel.



The damage to a vessel is over $25,000.  Who must notify the nearest Coast Guard  Marine Safety or Marine Inspection Office as soon as possible?

A. The owner of the vessel

B.  The Master of the vessel

C.  The person in charge of the vessel at the time of casualty

D. Any one of the above




The damage to a vessel is over $25,000.  Who must notify the nearest Coast Guard  Marine Safety or Marine Inspection Office as soon as possible?

A. The Master of the vessel

B.  The Radio Officer

C.  The Chief Officer

D. All of the above



A Notice of Marine Casualty to a vessel must include ...

A. the estimated cost of damage  

B.  the name of the owner or agent of the vessel  

C.  an evaluation of who was at fault  

D. the amount of ballast on board



You are the person in charge of a vessel involved in a marine casualty.  You must  notify the nearest Coast Guard Marine Inspection Office if the property damage is over ...

A. $1,500

B.  $10,000

C.  $25,000

D. $50,000



As Master or person in charge, you must notify the U.S. Coast Guard if an injury  leaves a crewman unfit to perform routine duties for more than ...

A. 24 hours

B.  48 hours

C.  72 hours

D. Any amount of time



When a vessel is involved in a casualty. The cost of property damage includes the  ...

A. cost of labor and material to restore the vessel to the service condition which existed  before the casualty

B.  loss of revenue while the vessel is being repaired, up to a maximum of $50,000

C.  damage claims awarded to individuals or companies involved  in the casualty

D. All of the above



During the course of a voyage, a seaman falls on the main deck and injures his ankle.   The Master should submit a Report of Marine Accident, Injury or Death if the  ...

A. injury results in loss of life only

B.  injury is the result of misconduct

C.  injured is incapacitate

D. injured needs first aid



What requires a Report of Marine Accident, Injury or Death?

A. Collision with a bridge

B.  Injury beyond first aid

C.  loss of life

D. All of the above



Seawater may be used for drinking ...

A. under no conditions

B. at a maximum rate of two ounces per day

C. if gathered during or immediately after a hard rain

D. after mixing with an equal quantity of fresh water



You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft.  In high latitudes, the greatest danger is ...

A. asphyxiation due to keeping the canopy closed

B. hypothermia caused by cold temperature

C. collapse of the raft due to cold temperatures

D. starvation



What is one of the FIRST actions you should take after abandoning and clearing away  from a vessel?

A. Identify the person in charge.

B. Gather up useful floating objects.

C. Prepare for arrival of rescue units.

D. Arrange watches and duties.



If you must swim through an oil fire, you should NOT ...

A. wear as much clothing as possible

B. enter the water feet first

C. swim with the wind

D. cover eyes with one hand when entering the water



When should you first have any food or water after boarding a lifeboat or life raft?

A. After 12 hours

B. After 24 hours

C. Within 48 hours

D. Some food and water should be consumed immediately and then not until 48 hours  later



All life jackets carried on board small passenger vessels are required to be marked ... (small passenger vessel regulations)

A. with the vessel's name

B. with the vessel's official number

C. with the maximum weight to be held by the life preserver

D. with the maximum serviceable life of the life preserver



Distress flares and smoke signals are not required on vessels operating on short runs.   A "short run" is limited to  ... (small passenger vessel regulation)

A. water of less than 20 feet in depth

B. where land is always in sight

C. no more than 5 miles

D. about 30 minutes away from the dock



What is FALSE concerning the use of unicellular plastic foam work vests on small  passenger vessels? (small passenger vessel regulations)

A. They may be substituted for up to 50% of the required life jackets.

B. They shall be of an approved type.

C. They shall be stowed separately from required lifesaving equipment.

D. They may be worn by crew members when working near or over the water.



What does "EPIRB" stand for?

A. Emergency Position Indicating Radar Buoy

B. Electronic Pulse Indicating Radiobeacon

C. Emergency Position Indicating Radiobeacon

D. None of the above



With certain exceptions a suitable rescue boat is required ...

A. on most "T-Boats" more than 65 feet in length

B. on most "T-Boats" regardless of length

C. only on "K-Boats"

D. None of the above



The painter on a life float or buoyant apparatus shall ...

A. have a minimum breaking strength of 3,000 lbs. if the capacity of the lifesaving gear is  50 persons or greater

B. be resistant to ultraviolet sunlight deterioration

C. be stowed to pay

D. All of the above



Buoyant apparatus are required to be fitted or equipped with all of the following  equipment EXCEPT ... (small passenger vessel regulations)

A. life lines

B. paddles

C. water lights

D. painter



Life floats and buoyant apparatus may be stowed in tiers, one above the other, to a  height of not more than ... (small passenger vessel regulations)

A. 3 feet

B. 4 feet

C. 5 feet

D. 6 feet



On vessels subject to the provisions of 46 CFR Subchapter T, life jackets shall be ...

A. kept locked up at all times when underway

B. stored in convenient places throughout the accommodation spaces

C. inaccessible to passengers  

D. on the topmost deck of the vessel at all times



How many ring life buoys must a small passenger vessel, of less than 65 feet in length, carry?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4