Upper Ext Blocks Flashcards

(95 cards)

1
Q

Advantages of peripheral nerve block

A

Potent analgesia

Reduction in stress response

Reduction in systemic analgesia requirement

Reduction in opioid-related side effects

Reduction in general anesthesia requirement

Decrease the incidence/occurrence of chronic pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Regional anesthesia is often favored in pts with

A

multiple comorbidities for whom a general anesthetic carries a greater risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

T/F - Periph nerve blocks last longer than spinals

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pt. cooperation and participation are key to the success and safety of every regional anesthetic/procedure. What pt populations would be at increased risk for complications?

A

Pts. who are unable to remain still may be exposed to increased risk - younger pts., developmentally delayed individuals, dementia, movement disorders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

No regional block if platelets < _____ and pt/aptt >_____

A

100,000

2X normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Never inject through infected tissue, what will happen to your block of you do?

A

you can tract infection

there will be more unionized medication and it won’t work as well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pts with pre-existing nerve injuries may pose a risk or contraindication - what should you do before you place a block?

A

Make sure you document prior existing nerve injury BEFORE you place block incase you cause damage or so the patient cant say caused it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

T:F - Peripheral neuropathy or previous nerve injury may have a higher incidence of complications

A

True, could have prolonged sensory block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What should you do if you get LAST

A

Call for help - code blue

CPR

Lipid emulsion administration to sequester the LA - intralipid 20% 1.5ml/kg/min bolus, max 8ml/kg

Preparation for cardiopulmonary bypass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What happens when you mix epi with LA?

A

prolongs duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How long can bupivocaine and ropivicaine have effects for?

A

up to 12-18 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Lidocaine
2% = ___ mg/ml
0.5% = ____ mg/ml
0.25% = ____mg/ml

A

2% = 20mg/ml

  1. 5% = 5mg/ ml
  2. 25% = 2.5mg/ml
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do you determine the concentration of epi if you are given:

EPI 1:200,000

A

divide 1 million by second number

1,000,000/200,000 = 5mcg/ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If I have 3cc Lido 1.5 % with 1:200,000 Epi, what are my concentrations?

A

Lido
1.5% = 15mg/ml X 3cc = 45 mg

Epi
1 mil/200,000 = 5 X3 cc = 15 mcg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What standard hemodynamic monitors should be on for a block?

A

BP and pulse Ox

have O2 nearby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Placing blocks is a ____ _____ technique

A

strick sterile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a field block technique

A

A local anesthetic injection that targets terminal cutaneous nerves

Commonly used by surgeons to minimize incisional pain

Dentist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why can a field block be undesirable?

A

Undesirable when block may obscure the operative anatomy or where local tissue acidosis (ie. Infection) prevents effective local anesthetic function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the paresthesia technique?

A

Practitioner uses known anatomic relationships and surface landmarks as a guide

Block needle is inserted in proximity of the target nerve or nerve plexus

When needle makes direct contact with a sensory nerve, a paresthesia is elicited and the LA is injected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the nerve stimulation technique?

A

When the insulated needle is placed in proximity to a motor nerve, muscle contractions are induced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

For nerve stimulation technique, It is common to redirect the block needle until muscle contractions occur at a current less than

A

0.5 mA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

For nerve stimulation technique, what does 0.5mA mean?

A

Lets me know I am close to the nerve
Usually start around 2
If I lose signal, going away from nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Some thought that a muscle contraction elicited at less than 0.2 mA implies

A

intraneural needle placement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the ultrasound technique?

A

Ultrasound for peripheral nerve location and subsequent block

high-frequency sound waves emitted from piezoelectric crystals that travel at different rates through tissues of different densities, returning a signal to the transducer.
1-20 MHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is Echogenicity
the degree of efficiency with which sound passes through a substance Hypoechoic Hyperechoic Anechoic
26
What is Hypoechoic
structures and substances through which sound easily passes. Appear DARK or BLACK on the ultrasound screen. solid organs, deep structures
27
What is Hyperechoic
structures reflecting more sound waves appear BRIGHTER, “WHITE” on the ultrasound screen. diaphragm, gallstones, bone, pericardium
28
What is Anechoic
no reflection fluid and blood filled structures
29
What does muscle look like on an ultrasound?
striations
30
T/F: nerve bundles can bee hyper or hypoechoic?
TRUE
31
Linear probe - a high frequency transducer that offers a high resolution picture with
less tissue penetration.
32
What is a linear probe good for?
Good for superficial nerves Provide undistorted image First choice among practitioners
33
Curvilinear probe - a low frequency transducer that offers better tissue penetration with
lower resolution, or poorer image quality.
34
What is a curvilinear probe good for?
Good for deeper structures
35
The optimal transducer varies depending on the ____ of the target nerve and ___ _____ of the needle relative to the transducer.
depth approach angle
36
Nerves are best imaged in
cross section (short axis)
37
What is the characteristic appearance of nerves?
honeycomb | bundle of grapes
38
In-plane needle alignment (longitudinal, long-axis): In-plane needle alignment refers to aligning the needle with the long-axis of the transducer (along the ultrasound beam) so that the ______________________. One of the disadvantages of the in-plane needle view is that, it is easy to lose the image with a slight movement of the transducer as the ultrasound beam is thin. This technique requires excellent hand-eye coordination.
entire shaft and tip of the needle are visible
39
Out-of-plane alignment (transverse or short axis): This refers to when the transducer and the needle are perpendicular to each other. It is important to slide the transducer along the shaft of the needle to identify the needle tip. Both the needle tip and shaft in cross section appear as a ________ ______ ______ on the screen. Since only the needle tip is observed as a bright dot, it is sometimes difficult to accurately observe the needle during advancement.
hyperechoic white dot
40
Which plane alignment is easier for a peripheral nerve block
Out-of-plane
41
nerve(s) are identified and local anesthetic is infiltrated via a one time injection, to achieve desired effect
Single injection nerve block
42
involves placement of a percutaneous catheter adjacent to a peripheral nerve, followed by local anesthetic administration to prolong the effect
Continuous Peripheral Nerve Block
43
Advantages of peripheral nerve block
* Reduction in resting and dynamic pain * Reduction in supplemental analgesia requirements * Reduction in opioid related side effects * Reduction in sleep disturbance * Improved patient satisfaction * Improved patient ambulation * Accelerated resumption of passive joint range-of-motion * Reduced time to discharge
44
Complications of continuous peripheral nerve block
``` Systemic local anesthetic toxicity Catheter retention Nerve injury Infection Retroperitoneal hematoma Increased risk of falling (femoral nerve catheter) ```
45
T/F: Local anesthetics are the primary medication infused, as adjuvants do not add benefits to perineural infusions (unlike single-injection peripheral nerve blocks).
TRUE
46
Pain pumps - Long acting LA (eg. Ropivacaine) are more commonly used as they provide a favorable sensory to motor block ratio, optimizing analgesia while
minimizing motor block
47
Pain pumps: Recent studies suggest that it is the _______ and not the concentration that determines the majority of block effects.
total dose
48
What are the 4 brachial plexus blocks?
Interscalene block Supraclavicular block Infraclavicular block Axillary block
49
Interscalene blocks are indicated for surgical procedures involving the
shoulder and upper arm
50
What roots are commonly used for an interscalene block?
C5-C7
51
In an interscalene block, the _______ originating from C8-T1 may be spared
ulnar nerve
52
What is an interscalene block NOT appropriate for?
surgery at or distal to the elbow
53
For complete surgical anesthesia of the shoulder, the _____ cutaneous branches may need to be supplemented with a superficial cervical plexus block or local infiltration
C3-C4
54
Does an interscalene block cover the neck?
Not necessarily
55
A good interscalene block has 100% block of the
phrenic nerve
56
Never ever do a ____ interscalene block
BL
57
Contraindications to interscalene block (4)
Local infection Severe coagulopathy Local anesthetic allergy Patient refusal
58
A properly performed interscalene block will invariably block the ipsilateral phrenic nerve. Careful consideration should be given to patients with
severe pulmonary disease or preexisting contralateral phrenic nerve palsy
59
The hemidiaphragmatic paresis may result in
dyspnea, hypercapnia, and hypoxemia
60
With an interscalene block, Horner’s syndrome may result from proximal tracking of local anesthetic and blockade of sympathetic fibers to the
cervicothoracic ganglion
61
What is Horner’s Syndrome
myosis(pupil constricts), ptosis (droopy eyelid), anhidrosis (no sweat, no tear), can also turn red on that side Superior cervical ganglia is blocked
62
In a patient that has pre-existing contralateral vocal cord paralysis, respiratory distress may ensue if there is _____ involvement
RLN
63
If there is RLN involvement, 1 VC = 2VC =
1 VC = hoarseness | 2VC = stridor
64
How do know if you have an accidental vertebral artery injection?
if immediate seizure activity is observed
65
In an interscalene, how will you know if you have accidental spinal or epidural injection
Massive hypotenon, bradycardia, pneumothorax
66
Why is a pneumothorax possible with an interscalne block
possible due to close proximity of pleura
67
In a good interscalene block, does the lung aerate?
no, because we blocked it
68
The interscalene triangle is formed by
Clavicaulr head, sternal head, mastoid head
69
Where does the nerve bundle come out in regards to the interscalene triangle..
inbetween the middle and anterior scalene muscles (scalene triangle)
70
____ & ____ are right next to the interscalene triangle
subclavian artery and IJ
71
A supraclavicular block is used for which surgical procedures
at or distal to the elbow. Does NOT reliably anesthetize the axillary
72
Historically, the supraclavicular block fell out of favor due to the high incidence of complications that occurred with paresthesia and nerve stimulator techniques. ______ guidance has improved its safety and increased its current use.
Ultrasound
73
Which brachial plexus block has the highest risk of pneumothorax
Supraclavicular block
74
For a supraclavicular block, we are down to the
divisions
75
Complications of supraclavicular block
Ipsilateral phrenic nerve palsy in ~50% of patients (Still caution in patients with COPD) Horner’s syndrome Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy Pneumothorax Subclavian artery puncture
76
Where do you place a supraclavicular block?
just above clavicle
77
What surgical procedures is an Infraclavicular block used for?
at or distal to the elbow
78
Where do you place an infraclavicular block?
just below clavicle
79
The Infraclavicular block is a brachial plexus block now at the level of
cords
80
In an Infraclavicular block, the _______ nerve is spared (T2 dermatome)
intercostobrachial
81
with an Infraclavicular block, the chorioid process...
2 cm medial, 2 cm inferior -Put needle in
82
What is a pretty high contraindication for this block?
anticoagulants
83
The axially block is good for what surgical procedures?
entire arm distal to the elbow
84
Axillary block - Multiple injections of ___ each may be required to reliably produce anesthesia of the entire arm distal to the elbow.
10ml
85
At the lateral border of the ____ ____ _____, the cords of the brachial plexus form large terminal branches.
pectoralis minor muscle
86
The axillary block provided good block of what 3 nerves
ulnar, median, radial
87
Axillary block: What nerves branch proximal to local injection site and are usually spared?
axillary, musculocutaneous, and medial brachial cutaneous
88
T/F: Axilla is highly vascularized - there is a risk of LA uptake through small veins traumatized by needle placement.
TRUE
89
Contraindications for axillary block
Local infection NEUROPATHY Bleeding risk
90
A single _____ ____ is often anesthetizes for minor surgical procedures with a limited field or as a supplement to an incomplete brachial plexus block.
terminal nerve
91
Terminal nerves may be anesthetized anywhere along their course, but the ____ & _____ are the favored sites for injection.
elbow and the wrist
92
What is a bier block used for?
Surgical anesthesia for short duration procedures 45-60 minutes Carpal tunnel release
93
BIER BLOCK IV Catheter is inserted on the ____ of the surgical hand/foot A _____ pneumatic tourniquet is placed on the arm/thigh The extremity is elevated and exsanguinated by tightly wrapping an ____ elastic bandage from distal to proximal direction The _____ TQ is inflated, the Esmarch bandage removed, and 0.5% lidocaine is injected over ____ minutes through the IV catheter which is subsequently removed Anesthesia is usually established after ____ minutes. TQ pain usually develops after ____ minutes at which time the distal TQ is inflated and the proximal TQ is subsequently deflated. Pts. Usually tolerate the distal TQ for an additional 15-20 minutes because it is inflated over an ______
dorsum double Esmarch proximal 2-3 min 5-10 20-30 anesthetized area.
94
Why can you not let the TQ down for 20 minutes after lidocaine is injected?
huge blast of LA – systemic toxicity
95
What else can you do to provided a additional margin of safety when letting a TQ down?
Slow, incremental deflation of tourniquet