UREs Flashcards
(291 cards)
0
Q
What is the weight range of general-purpose bombs currently in production?
A
250 to 2000 pounds
1
Q
What are the primary kill mechanisms of high-explosive (HE) bombs?
A
The blast effect and dispersed case fragments
2
Q
What class of bombs are used against targets such as reinforced concrete structures and bridges?
A
Penetration
3
Q
What is the primary target for shaped charge munitions?
A
Heavily armored targets
4
Q
Even though Kinetic Energy penetrator munitions contain no explosive they must be handled carefully because…
A
Many of their delivery systems contain explosives or other hazardous components
5
Q
What are two types of practice bombs?
A
Inert and empty
6
Q
Nuclear bombs are designed similar to what type of general-purpose (GP) bomb?
A
High-drag
7
Q
The fragmentation bomb is made of…
A
Spirally wound spring steel
8
Q
Conventional bombs weighing up to 1000 pounds have a suspension lug spacing of how many inches?
A
14
9
Q
What is the purpose of fin assemblies on bombs?
A
Stabilize the bomb in flight
10
Q
The purpose of the bomb Arming wire assembly is to…
A
Keep the fuse from arming until the bomb is released
11
Q
What provides electrical power and interconnection cable to the nose and tail fuzes of a bomb?
A
Initiators
12
Q
What bomb components are designed to sense the proper altitude for the detonation of the weapon through the use of radiofrequency or Doppler radar?
A
Sensors
13
Q
What bomb component serves to boost the explosive train between the fuse and the bomb?
A
Adapter boosters
14
Q
On incendiary bombs the colored bands are painted around the…
A
Nose only
15
Q
What secures the aft cover to the stabilizer housing of the BSU–49 AIR bomb?
A
Two spring-loaded latch assemblies
16
Q
The air inflatable retarder (AIR) is inflated by…
A
Ram air entering through four inlets in the retarder itself
17
Q
What type of bomb is the BLU–109/B?
A
Penetration
18
Q
How much does the BLU–113A/B penetrator bomb weigh?
A
4500 pounds
19
Q
Standard laserguided bombs have their pulse codes set by load crews our air crew members using…
A
Dials located on the underside of the seeker head
20
Q
How close to their target can global positioning system and Inertial navigation guidance system (GPS)/(INS) guided bombs be expected to strike?
A
Within 10 meters
21
Q
What form of guidance is used in the GBU-10?
A
Laser guidance
22
Q
Which bomb is used as a warhead for all GBU-12 models?
A
MK-82
23
Q
The powered control surface of the GBU-15 are located on the…
A
Trailing edge of the wings
24
What is the weight of the GBU-24?
2000 pounds
25
What is the weight of the GBU/EGBU-28?
5000 pounds
26
Which warhead can be used for the GBU/EGBU-28?
BLU-113 A/B
27
What form of guidance is used in the GBU-31/32/38 joint direct attack munition (JDAM) family of bombs?
Global positioning system and inertial navigation system guidance
28
Which model of the joint direct attack munition (JDAM) family of bombs uses the MK-83 and BLU-110 as a warhead?
GBU-32
29
What is the weight of the GBU-39?
250 pounds
30
A complete cluster bomb unit (CBU) consists of a quantity of small submunitions and a…
Dispenser
31
Which cluster bomb unit (CBU) consists of a SUU-65/B dispenser and a submunition payload of kinetic energy penetrators?
CBU-107
32
Which submunition is an antitank munition?
BLU-91/B
33
Which submunition incorporates a spin rocket to more effectively distribute skeet munitions over a wide area?
BLU-108/B
34
Which cluster bomb unit (CBU) contains kinetic energy penetrators (KEP) arranged into "packs" of varying sizes?
CBU-107
35
Which cluster bomb unit (CBU) is always configured with the wind corrected munitions dispenser (WCMD) tail kit?
CBU-107
36
What practice bomb weighs 500 pounds?
BDU-50
37
What is the weight of a complete BDU-33B/B practice bomb?
25 pounds
38
What is the suspension lug spacing of the B61?
30 inches
39
What is the purpose of the actuator lug located on the tail assembly of the B61 nuclear bomb?
When the bomb is released this actuator lug is pulled up, firing the bombs spin rocket
40
The time-to-arm (TA) and time-to-burst (TB) settings on the B83 are behind the…
Access door on the aft assembly
41
How many different Fin positions can the B83 be configured with?
10
42
The main types of bomb fuse functions are…
Impact, time, proximity, and hydrostatic (ITPH)
43
A typical operating range for time fuses is…
5 – 92 seconds
44
Proximity fuses will produce airbursts at Heights between…
20 and 125 feet above the ground
45
The M904 mechanical nose fuses' firing delay time begins after…
The bomb has impacted
46
This sealing wire may be removed from the M904 mechanical nose fuse only after…
The arming wire is inserted
47
The M905 fuse is armed by…
The ATU-35 drive assembly
48
What is the only safety device on the FMU-124A/B fuse?
Pin
49
The FMU-124A/B use is considered armed when the safety…
Pin is removed and the release shaft is extended
50
What supplies electrical power to operate the FMU-139A/B fuse?
FZU-48/B initiator
51
The height of burst built into the FMU-113/B fuse is how many feet above ground level?
15
52
How many selectable height range functions does the FZU-39/B proximity sensor have?
10
53
Which of these bombs may use the FMU-143/B, A/B fuse?
BLU-109 and GBU-24
54
The FMU-152/B fuse provides…
In-flight cockpit selection
55
Which versions of the AGM-65 is laserguided?
AGM-65/E
56
What component inside the guidance window of the AGM-65 must be checked before loading?
Humidity indicator
57
The component that protects the pins of the umbilical connector on the AGM-65 until just before loading is called the…
Shielding cap
58
Which aircraft carries the AGM-88 high-speed anti-radiation missile (HARM)?
F-16
59
On the AGM-88 missile, the motor's safe/arm switch is operated with a…
Mechanical key
60
What form of guidance does the AGM-114K use?
Laser
61
What allows the pilot the ability to manually steer the AGM-130 to the target?
Datalink
62
What warhead does the AGM-154A use?
145 BLU-97 submunitions
63
What class of warhead does the AGM-158 use?
1000 pound
64
What AGM-86 components are the attach points to mate it to it's ejector rack?
Forward and aft clevises
65
How may the AGM-86 warhead arming device be safed?
Electrically or mechanically
66
How are the guidance canards of the AIM-9L/M missiles controlled?
Electrically
67
The AIM-9L/M warhead is normally detonated upon impact with a target, but may also be detonated when there's a near miss by the…
Influence fuse/target detector
68
What AIM-9L/M missile component prevents the missile from rolling in flight?
Rollerons
69
What section of the AIM-120 missile has the arm/fire device (AFD)?
Propulsion section
70
Which type of rocket warhead produces blast, fragmentation, and mining effects?
High explosive
71
Which type of rockets are used for target marking or Incendiary effects?
White phosphorus
72
When can you remove the shielding tape from a rocket motor?
Immediately before loading
73
What could be the result of loading of rocket with cracked propellant?
The rocket could detonate in the launcher
74
What ammunition round component expands in and seals the barrel's chamber to keep gas from escaping to the rear when the cartridge is fired?
Cartridge case
75
What material is used for the 30 mm cartridge case?
Aluminum alloy
76
A normal round with the primer and propellant charge removed is a?
Dummy round
77
20 mm high explosive incendiary with tracer (HEIT) rounds are distinguished from high explosive incendiary (HEI) rounds by a…
Ring of red Ts stenciled around the projectile
78
Which type of projectile has a hollow body?
High explosive incendiary with tracer (HEIT)
79
You must be extremely careful when handling linked ammo to keep from…
Getting cut or pinched
80
What two basic types are impulse cartridges divided into?
Explosive and non-explosive
81
What Impulse cartridge is not case grounded?
BBU-63/B
82
What impulse cartridge component normally provides a ground for the electrical firing circuit?
Case
83
What component of the impulse cartridge provides for even burning of the propellant charge?
Separation disc
84
What do you use to place scribed markings on the closure disc of an impulse cartridge?
Indelible ink marker
85
How many insertions markings constitute the end of service life for impulse cartridges that are used in breaches with spring loaded firing pins?
No limit
86
The factors that control the visibility of pyrotechnics are…
Candlepower, frequency, color, weather, and ambient light
87
If the timer knob of a LUU-2/B flare is accidentally pulled during ground handling and the timer cycle commences, what do you do?
Hold the time and release mechanism forcibly by hand on the flare housing to prevent the ejection of the timer and release mechanism. When the timer completes its cycle, tape the mechanism on the flare housing and mark it for disposal.
88
What limits timer travel between safe and 500 feet on the LUU-2A/B flare?
Two pegs
89
What flare cartridge is used on the B-1B aircraft?
MJU-23A/B
90
Where may flare dispensers be loaded on the B-1 if loaded in conjunction with chaff?
Aft of that chaff dispensers
91
How many flare magazines can be loaded on the F-22?
6
92
Where are the countermeasure stations located on the F-22?
Just aft of the left and right side weapons bays
93
When can chaff and flare be mixed in the same magazine?
Never
94
How many chaff dispensers may be loaded on the B-1B when carried in conjunction with flares?
Four
95
How many RR196/AL chaff bundles may be loaded in the ALE-52 magazines used in the F-22?
18
96
What lug spacing is used by the ADM-160B miniature air launched decoy (MALD)?
14 inch
97
How many ADM-160B miniature air launched decoys (MALDs) may be carried by the heavy stores adapter Beam?
Eight
98
Which naval mine uses the MK82 GP bomb as it's warhead?
MK62
99
What is the weight of the M-65 quick strike mine?
2000 pounds
100
Before operating Bomb Bay door systems for check out you must make sure...
All personnel and equipment have been cleared from the area of operation
101
What condition permits helicopter rotor blades to droop within five feet of the ground while they are turning?
Droop stop malfunction
102
The noise intensity if jet aircraft is greatest...
In the rear of the engines at an angle of 45* on either side.
103
When electromagnetic radiation is absorbed in the tissues of the body...
Heat is produced
104
Which form has an entry identifying the types and quantities of munitions loaded on an aircraft?
AFTO Form 781A, maintenance discrepancy and work document.
105
What is the first step in making sure an aircraft is safe for maintenance?
Checking the aircraft forms for the aircraft status.
106
When are aircraft most susceptible to fire?
While the engines are running.
107
What hazard is if special concern durning aircraft brake fires?
Flying debris resulting from tire blowout.
108
Bombs can be expected to detonate within how long after being enveloped in flames.
Two to four minutes
109
When missiles are involved I an aircraft fire, approach the fire, if possible, from...
The side of the aircraft.
110
On a four person load crew, which person is deemed the primary fire fighter?
Number three person
111
Personnel line badges are classified as what type of foreign object damage?
Metals
112
Hailstones are classified as what type of foreigners object damage?
Miscellaneous
113
What is the FOD walk?
An organized inspection and physical pick up of foreign objects
114
Aluminum's formation of a tightly adhering oxide film provides...
Increased resistance under all corrosive conditions.
115
If unprotected, ferrous metal surfaces are...
Easily corroded if moisture is present
116
Piano hinges are prime spots for corrosion because they are natural traps for dirt, salt, and moisture and...
Dissimilar metal contact between the steel pin and the aluminum hinge tangs
117
An important part of corrosion control is detecting and correcting the corrosion when it is in what stages?
Earliest
118
What corrosion accelerant agent does dust, dirt, acid spills, or waste material provide?
Electrolyte
119
Which cockpit panel allows electrical power to be distributed throughout the entire aircraft electrical system?
Aircraft power panels
120
The energizing and deenergizing of bomb rack solenoids at selected weapons stations normally is preformed through the...
Main armament control panels
121
What panel has circuitry used to activate an aircraft's radar set functions to their fully operational status so ground operation of certain missile systems may be done?
Missile control
122
What panel works in conjunction with the special weapons control panels to facilitate all of the functions needed to release a special weapon?
Main armament control panel
123
What two basic armament system controls are normally found on the pilot's stick grip?
Trigger and armament release switch
124
Which aircraft use integrated keyboards?
B-52, B-1, and B-2
125
The functions of a digital system are initiated by the...
Operator
126
Which aircraft employs all three stores management systems?
B-52
127
What aircraft system monitors an aircraft's system and indicates or reports it's status to the aircrew or ground maintenance technician?
Fault isolation
128
In a fault isolation system using Built-In-Test (BIT) checks, the results of the test should narrow a fault down to a...
Subsystem or system
129
Normally, the advanced computer fault isolation system narrows malfunctions down to a single line replaceable unit (LRU)...
80% of the time
130
Before release firing pulses are allowed access to an installed nuclear weapon, an aircraft's nuclear weapons system must be properly…
Enabled
131
Radar navigation systems associated with the weapon systems normally facilitate the computerized release of onboard…
Missiles
132
What is the only mechanically operated bomb rack presently in use?
B-11
133
During release, what component of the B-11 bomb shackle retains the arming wire?
Arming hook
134
Which bomb racks are nuclear capable?
MAU-12, BRU-44, and BRU-47
135
Nuclear capable bomb racks are equipped with…
An in-flight safety lock
136
What component of a cluster rack actuates the B-11 bomb shackle to release munitions?
A-6 release unit
137
Rotating of the bomb module swingarms is enabled by…
Electrical actuators
138
How many munitions can be loaded onto the MIL-STD-1760 enhanced conventional bomb module (SECBM)?
10
139
How many MK-82 500 pound bombs can be carried by the bomb rack assembly?
20
140
Which columns are capable of holding cluster bomb units (CBUs) on the smart bomb rack assembly (SBRA)?
One, three, and four
141
The multipurpose rotary launcher is controlled…
Electrically
142
During ground rotation the multipurpose rotary launcher rotation, speed is…
1/8 normal rotation speed
143
Which bomb rack is used on the rotary launch assembly (RLA)?
BRU-44B/A
144
When MASTER ARM power is initially applied, a loaded triple ejector rack (TER) will step to the…
First loaded station position of the unit
145
When BDU-33's are carried on a triple ejector rack (TER), to provide alignment of the bomb, you must install a…
Yoke adapter
146
What bomb racks are used by the BRU-57 smart rack to carry stores weighing up to 1000 pounds?
BRU-46
147
Which munition is the BRU-61/A capable of caring?
GBU-39
148
How many munitions is the BRU-61/A capable of carrying?
Four
149
The interchangeable pylons are…
Installed at any station
150
How does this safety clutch safe the F-22 pylons?
Electrically
151
What is the only gas operated missile launcher?
LAU-106
152
What is the only pneudraulicly operated missile launcher?
LAU-142
153
If the LAU-142s ground safety lever is not in the open "GND" position what will happen if the launcher fully extends?
The launcher will automatically release the missile hangers
154
Normally, what do you use to coat launcher rail surfaces?
Molybdenum disulfide (dry lube)
155
On the LAU-88 missile launcher, what keeps the shear pin from backing out during flight?
Locknut
156
What rail missile launcher carries the AGM-114?
Modified M299
157
On AIM-9 and AIM-120 capable rail launchers, what prevents the missile from leaving the rail if the rocket motor fires inadvertently?
An in-flight lock (IFL)
158
What is the only rail launcher that automatically engages the missile umbilical during loading?
Modified M299
159
What is the rocket capacity of the LAU-131 rocket launcher?
Seven
160
What mechanism within the LAU-131s tubes restrains the Rockets against normal flying loads?
Detents
161
How is the LAU-131 rocket pod safed?
Electrically with a shorting pin
162
What adapter was developed to allow the B-1 to carry and drop BDU-33's?
Practice bomb adapter rack
163
How many flares are contained in the SUU-25 flare dispenser?
Eight
164
What bombing system release option is equated to a single selected weapons release?
Manual
165
What aircraft generated computer signal allows the AIM-120 missile to begin it's launch cycle?
Release consent
166
What armament system circuits are normally disabled during selective jettison?
Mechanical fusing
167
Which aircraft does not have pylon jettisoning capability?
F-16
168
Who has the authority to change time constraints of operational/functional checks?
Local commander
169
Which of the following is a detrimental effect of barrel heating?
Increased barrel wear and warping
170
To complete the firing cycle, recoil operated guns use force applied to the…
Face of the bolt
171
What is the maximum firing rate of the GAU-2?
4000 spm
172
What ammunition feed system is used to supply the GAU-2?
Linked
173
What component of the M61A1 Breach bolt locks it in the firing position?
Locking block
174
What component of the M61A1 breach bolt makes a electrical contact with the primer of the round?
Firing pin
175
What M61A1 gun component locks the barrels into position?
Center clamp
176
What caliber of ammunition is fired by the GAU-12/U?
25 mm
177
What is a firing rate of the 25 mm gun?
1800 (+/-100) shots per minute
178
Into how many parts is the GAU-8/A 30 mm gun rotor assembly divided?
Two
179
What GAU-8/A 30 mm gun component locks the barrel in the rotor?
Interrupted locking lugs
180
The M240 operates under the…
Open bolt concept
181
The GAU-18 machine gun is operated…
By recoil
182
When does the recoiling step of the GAU-18 firing cycle begin?
The instant of firing
183
What ammunition feed system is used to supply the M2A1 40 mm gun?
Clip
184
What two 40 mm gun components absorb the rearward thrust caused by firing the gun?
Recuperator spring and recoil cylinder
185
What M2A1 40 mm gun component is responsible for holding the barrel assembly in the gun, and acts as a safety device to prevent the gun from firing whenever the barrel assembly is removed or improperly installed?
Breach ring assembly
186
What component of the 105 mm gun is composed of the sleigh, and recuperator assemblies?
Recoil mechanism
187
What unit of the Linkless system is attached to the aft end of a drum assembly?
Entrance
188
The function of the transfer unit on the Linkless system is to remove rounds from the…
Conveyor elements and feed them into the gun
189
On gun gas scavenge systems, after the trigger is released, purge doors stay open for approximately…
30 seconds
190
What aircraft makes use of a movable door covering the firing port for projectiles to exit the aircraft?
F-22
191
What are the two types of operational/functional checks for gun systems?
Mechanical and electrical
192
When using the boresight method of harmonization, the boresight target normally is placed…
1000 inches from the nose wheel axle
193
Where is the adjustment made on the gun when boresighting?
Gun mounts
194
Before handling any electrically primed munitions you must…
Ground yourself
195
If burning particles of white phosphorus (WP) strike the skin, you must keep the phosphors covered with…
A wet cloth
196
The first thing you do in munitions preparation is make sure that the munition…
Matches mission requirements
197
During what loading step do you insert arming wire loops into the bomb rack solenoids?
Loading
198
During a concurrent servicing operation what servicing action cannot be performed while refueling?
Oxygen
199
During a concurrent servicing operation a concurrent servicing supervisor is not required when...
Fueling is not being performed
200
What drives the rear wheels of the MJ-1B?
Hydrostatic Drive
201
Changing the position of the MJ-1B accelerator pedal…
Varies the flow rate of the pump in the hydrostatic Drive
202
What is supported by the lift arms and used to hold the munition or store to be loaded?
Cradle assembly
203
What aircraft loading missions are supported by the MJ-40?
B-1, B-2
204
What ensures the boom cannot fall if a hydraulic line on the MJ-40 ruptures?
Hydraulic locking valve
205
What loading controls are found only on the MJ-40 Remote?
Ram up/down
206
What type of fuel is the MHU-83 capable of using?
Diesel or JP-8
207
What device controls the engine speed of an MHU-83?
Hand throttle
208
Where are the controls located for adjusting the side frame width of the MHU-83?
The operators position only
209
What device insures the boom cannot fall in the event hydraulic power is lost or a component fails or a line breaks on the MHU-83 series lift trucks?
Counterbalance valve
210
The MHU-83 component used to lift the front wheels off the ground to allow side frame width adjustment is the…
Lift boom
211
What is the primary purpose of the hydraulic hand pump located on the right-hand side of the MHU-83 lift truck?
Operating the hydraulic system should the engine quit during loading operations
212
What is the lift capacity of an MHU-83 with aluminum rollers installed?
7000 pounds
213
Which bomb support rollers may be used with roller extensions?
All rollers
214
How many load binders do you need when loading with an MHU-83?
Two
215
What type of stand is used to support triple ejector racks (TER) when loading them and storing them for future use?
Gantry stand
216
What type of load binder is attached to bomb support beams?
Nylon
217
Extension lift arms installed on the MJ-1 lift truck limits lifting capacity to…
2200 pounds
218
You install the extension lift arms on the MJ-1A/B lift truck by…
Inserting the ends of the arms into slots in the lift arms
219
What is the MJ-40 and MHU-83 series lift truck weight limit reduced to when using the fork adapter assembly?
6000 pounds
220
What accessory is used in conjunction with the MHU-83 series lift truck to load external heavy stores on a B-52?
Fork adapter assembly
221
What attaches the fork adapters to the MHU-83 series lift trucks table assembly?
Two quick release pins
222
What is the maximum lifting height when the adapter assembly is inverted on the MHU-83 series lift truck?
107.5 inches
223
Pylons are attached To pylon handling adapters for mounting or removing from aircraft with…
The pylons bomb rack hooks
224
What bomb loading adapter is used in loading internal and external stores on the B-52?
F310707-500 bomb loading adapter
225
Which lift truck supports the use of the mechanical ram assembly (MRA)?
MHU-83D/E or MJ-40
226
Where does the mechanical ram assembly (MRA) receive its power from?
Through two hydraulic service lines attached to the lift trucks lift boom
227
How is the mechanical ram assembly (MRA) primarily controlled/operated?
The lift trucks remote control unit
228
What is the fully extended height of the mechanical ram assembly (MRA)?
83 inches
229
What accessory do you normally see attached to a MHU-141/M trailer with the mixed load of missiles?
M-9 adapter
230
What is the maximum load capacity of an MHU-110/M trailer?
15,000 pounds
231
How many main rail assemblies can be installed on the deck of the MHU-110/M trailer?
Four
232
How many trolleys and chocks can the MHU-110/M trailer be configured with for round shaped stores?
24 trolleys and 48 chocks
233
What is the maximum conventional munitions load capacity of an MHU-226/M trailer?
12,000 pounds
234
How many hinged deck panels are incorporated in the MHU-226/M munitions handling trailer design?
Three
235
How many hinged deck panels are incorporated in the MHU-141/M munitions handling trailer design?
One
236
What component of the munitions handling trailer breaking system is connected to the tow vehicle to activate the trailers breaking system if the trailer becomes disconnected from the tow vehicle?
The breakaway cable
237
How many handbrake levers are located on the MHU-226/M munitions handling trailer?
Two
238
What is the lift capacity of the MHU-204/M & MHU-196/M trailers?
40,000 pounds
239
How many different operational modes are available on the portable control unit (PCU) that controls the MHU-204/M and the MHU-196/M trailers?
15
240
To prevent personal injury or equipment damage each operational mode of the MHU-204/M and the MHU-196/M trailers automatically shuts off when either one of two team members press a remote stop switch or when the…
"deadman" switch is released on the PCU
241
How many people are required to remove the tow bar of the MHU-204/M and MHU-196/M trailers?
Two
242
What MHU-204/M & MHU-196/M trailer component allow for precise lateral and longitudinal positioning corrections to the lift trailers and load during lifting operations?
X-Y pads
243
Independent operation of either lift arm mechanism on the MHU-196/M trailer results in…
Rolling the load
244
What MHU-196/M trailer component supports the lift arms under transport conditions?
Retractable travel locks
245
What component(s) of the MHU-196/M trailer accommodate(s) various load adapter configurations?
A removable lift beam extension
246
How much air pressure must be in the compressor tank before loading with the MHU-196/M trailer?
90 psi
247
What is the ammunition capacity of the 20 mm linkless ammunition loading system (LALS)?
2100 rounds
248
Which component of the linkless ammunition loading system (LALS) transfers rounds into the gun system loading adapter?
Interface unit
249
What position must the shift lever handle on the interface unit be in before mating the linkless ammunition loading system (LALS) to the aircraft?
Bypass
250
What is the ammunition capacity of the 20 mm universal ammunition loading system (UALS)?
2100 rounds
251
What component of the A-10 ammunition loading system (ALS) interfaces with the aircraft during ammunition loads?
GFU-7E ALA
252
During normal loading of the A-10 gun system, where does the ammunition loading assembly (ALA) get its power?
The aircraft's hydraulic system
253
How many different outputs can an A/M 32A – 60 provide?
Three
254
Which item is the only auxiliary power unit (APU) to provide both electrical and pneumatic power?
A/M 32A-60
255
Which A/M 32A-60 control panel has the switches and controls necessary to operate the DC generator and to monitor the DC voltage output of the generator set?
DC instrument
256
The break on the A/M 32A-60 is released by…
Lowering the towbar
257
Due to the expansion properties of fuel, and unmodified A/M32A-95 fuel tank should not be filled more than approximately…
Half full
258
What electrical output is supplied by the A/M32A-86 generator set?
115/200 VAC or 230/400 VAC
259
How many instrument/control panels must the operator make use of during operation of the -86 generator set?
Three
260
Which panel of the –86 generator set has the circuit breaker to shut off current flow in case of an overload?
External AC
261
What type of power is provided to the MA-1 and MQ-9 aircraft by the starter cart assembly (SCA) for use in the avionics systems?
Underneath a cover located at the top of the unit
262
Fighter aircraft may be exempted from 50 foot distance placement requirements of an auxiliary power unit (APU) during…
Combat or simulated combat operations
263
What area must you avoid when operating units powered by turbine engines?
The engine plane of rotation
264
How much air pressure is produced by the MC-2A?
15 cfm at 200 psi
265
What is the maximum air pressure you may use for cleaning?
30 psi
266
What Air Force Occupational Safety and Health Administration (AFOSH) standard identifies the protective equipment used with compressed air?
95-501
267
Before you connect or disconnect a high-pressure service hoes, you must make sure the system is…
Not pressurized
268
What power output of the portable floodlight sets is used for powering common electrically powered handtools?
115-120 VAC
269
The FL-1D can serve as a ground power source for MQ-1 and MQ-9 aircraft when used in conjunction with a/an…
DCs40–75 "Sorensen" power supply unit
270
In what position must the FL-1D's floodlight platform be during towing?
Lowered completely
271
What additional piece of Aerospace ground equipment (AGE) is required during operation of the C-10 air conditioner?
– 60 generator set
272
Where are the C-10 duct hoses stored?
In the rear storage compartment
273
What is the maximum amount of bleed air pressure that may be applied to the -10 air-conditioner?
45 psi
274
What additional piece of Aerospace ground equipment (AGE) is required during operation of the polyalphaolefin (PAO)/air cooling cart?
None, it is a self-contained system
275
How many fluid temperature modes are available on the polyalphaolefin (PAO)/air cooling cart?
Two
276
What must be done before making or breaking a connection between the polyalphaolefin (PAO)/air cooling cart and the aircraft?
Ensure the system is depressurized
277
Where is the cool air hatch on the MJ-2A hydraulic test stand?
Top of the unit
278
What is the primary reason for making sure aircraft fittings are clean before attaching hydraulic servicing hoses?
Dirty fittings can introduce contaminants to the hydraulic systems causing damage to the house and lines
279
Which aircraft require aircraft armament system personnel to use the self generating nitrogen servicing cart (SGNSC)?
F-22 only
280
What precautions must be taken prior to attempting to loosen fittings, or remove tubes or hoses when using the self generating nitrogen service cart (SGNSC)?
You must vent the pressure from that part of the system through the appropriate valve
281
What is the height range of the B-1 maintenance stand?
3-10 feet
282
What is the maximum static load the B-1 maintenance can sustain?
500 pounds
283
What is the platform height range of the B-4 maintenance stand?
3-7 feet
284
The hand pump for raising the B-4 maintenance stand is located on the…
Platform near the ladder
285
What is the platform height range of the B-5 maintenance stand?
7-12 feet
286
What maintenance stand is a non-adjustable 4-foot platform with wheels on the back legs?
C-1
287
If the split deck maintenance platforms tape switches detect an obstruction during operation, they stop the units…
Forward Drive, platform extension, and lowering capabilities
288
What is the total lift capacity of the split deck maintenance platform?
2000 pounds
289
During an operators pre-use inspection of Aerospace ground equipment (AGE), what is required to ensure proper unit operation?
Cycle the unit completely through its range of capabilities
290
Where must you annotate any defect you find on Aerospace ground equipment (AGE)?
AFTO forms 244 and 245
