urina 1.1

Question 1

Timed urine specimens are used for:
Select one:
a. quantitative chemical analysis.
b. fluid depravation studies.
c. routine screening.
d. confirmation of orthostatic proteinuria.

Answer 1

a. quantitative chemical analysis.

Question 2

Which of the following specimen types is not suitable for bacterial and fungal cultures?
Select one:
a. Midstream clean catch
b. Catheterized, urethra
c. Routine void
d. Suprapubic aspiration

Answer 2

c. Routine void

Question 3

A routine urinalysis test can aid in the diagnosis of what type of disease process?
Select one:
a. Prerenal
b. Renal
c. Postrenal
d. All of the above

Answer 3

d. All of the above

Question 4

First morning specimens provide the ideal specimen for all of the following reasons except:
Select one:
a. concentrated specimen.
b. incubated 8 hours.
c. acidic.
d. reduced number of epithelial cells.

Answer 4

d. reduced number of epithelial cells.

Question 5

A decrease in the quality of laboratory testing can be pinpointed by:
Select one:
a. quality control.
b. proficiency testing.
c. documentation.
d. technical competence.

Answer 5

c. documentation.

Question 6

Proper collection of a midstream clean catch urine specimen requires the patient to:
Select one:
a. cleanse the area, void the first portion into the toilet, and collect the remainder in a container.
b. void the first portion into the toilet, cleanse the area, collect the middle portion in a container, and void the remainder into the toilet.
c. cleanse the area, void into the toilet, stop, collect the middle portion into a container, and void the remainder into toilet.
d. cleanse the area, void into the toilet, stop, and collect the remainder into a container.

Answer 6

c. cleanse the area, void into the toilet, stop, collect the middle portion into a container, and void the remainder into toilet.

Question 7

The purpose(s) of a quality assessment program in the laboratory is (are) to provide which of the following?1. Administrative structure to ensure laboratory practice standards are met2. Quality test results3. Mechanism for detection of problems4. Opportunity to improve services
Select one:
a. 1, 3, and 4
b. 3 and 4
c. 1 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer 7

d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Question 8

Preventive maintenance schedules on the centrifuge used to spin down urine samples is a _________ component of quality assessment.
Select one:
a. preanalytical
b. analytical
c. postanalytical
d. test utilization

Answer 8

a. preanalytical

Question 9

If used correctly, personal protective equipment (PPE) protects the health care worker from bloodborne pathogens from all of the following types of exposures except:
Select one:
a. aerosols.
b. needle sticks.
c. direct contact with a cut.
d. ingestion.

Answer 9

b. needle sticks

Question 10

While performing quality control (QC) checks on an open reagent bottle, the technologist notes that no open date/time is written on the bottle. The technologist should address this as a(n):
Select one:
a. analytical error; the technologist should continue with testing if the QC results are within range.
b. preanalytical error; the technologist should discard the bottle, obtain a new one, and start over.
c. postanalytical error; the QC and patient results are all within normal range, so the technologist should just make a notation in the log.
d. procedural error; the technologist should check the time of the last run on the previous shift, mark the day/time on the bottle, and continue testing.

Answer 10

b. preanalytical error; the technologist should discard the bottle, obtain a new one, and start over.

Question 11

Upon opening a urine specimen container, you are almost knocked over by the smell of ammonia. You check the time of collection and note that it is not within the 2-hour time frame. You expect which of the following results? Select one:
a. Decreased pH
b. Positive nitrites
c. Positive RBCs
d. Positive glucose

Answer 11

b. Positive nitrites

Question 12

After an extremely busy night collecting and performing STAT tests, you find a routine urine specimen in the drop basket. You check the collection time and note that the specimen is over 2 hours old. You call the floor and request a new specimen because:
Select one:
a. chemical constituents may be altered, producing invalid results.
b. bacteria may have disintegrated because of an increased ammonia level.
c. precipitation of crystals as the urine cooled may interfere with analysis.
d. pH levels may be falsely lowered because of bacterial conversion of urea to ammonia.

Answer 12

a. chemical constituents may be altered, producing invalid results.

Question 13

All of the following chemical changes may occur in unpreserved urine specimens except:
Select one:
a. color change.
b. decreased glucose.
c. increased urobilinogen.
d. increased nitrites.

Answer 13

c. increased urobilinogen.

Question 14

The Occupational Health and Safety Act of 1970 established formal regulation of safety and health for all employees, regardless of employer; these regulations are administered by:
Select one:
a. OSHA.
b. CLIA.
c. NIDA.
d. TJC.

Answer 14

a. OSHA

Question 15

A client comes to the outpatient department for a urine drug screen. You follow the protocol for collection but question whether the specimen is truly urine. You then follow the procedure for urine verification and obtain the following results. Which result causes you to reject the specimen?
Select one:
a. Temperature of 30 °C
b. pH of 4.0
c. Specific gravity of 1.002
d. None of the above

Answer 15

a. Temperature of 30 °C

Question 16

Disposal methods of chemicals and other organic solvents include all of the following except:
Select one:
a. dilution or neutralization prior to disposal in sewer system.
b. flushing drain with copious amounts of water after pouring down drain.
c. collecting each chemical in separate glass or other appropriate containers for disposal.
d. single universal recovery container to collect all chemical waste each day for disposal.

Answer 16

d. single universal recovery container to collect all chemical waste each day for disposal.

Question 17

The patient is a 3-month-old infant with a possible bladder infection. The best method of urine collection for routine urinalysis testing and culture is:
Select one:
a. clean catch using a pediatric bag.
b. sterile pediatric bag.
c. catheterization, urethral.
d. random

Answer 17

c. catheterization, urethral.

Question 18

To achieve uniformity of technique by all those working in the urinalysis department, a laboratory requires all of the following except:
Select one:
a. adherence to procedure manual protocols.
b. performance of quality control checks.
c. proper training of new employees.
d. comparison of results reported out each shift.

Answer 18

a. adherence to procedure manual protocols.

Question 19

Guidelines for developing written safety policies and procedures required by OSHA are available from:
Select one:
a. OSHA.
b. CLSI.
c. NIDA.
d. TJC.

Answer 19

b. CLSI.

Question 20

Standard Precautions are a combination of major features of which two practice guidelines?
Select one:
a. BPS and UP
b. UP and OSHA
c. OSHA and BSP
d. UP and BSI

Answer 20

d. UP and BSI

Question 21

Collection of urine for anaerobic culture requires which of the following urine collection methods?
Select one:
a. Suprapubic
b. Catheterized urethra
c. First morning urine
d. Midstream clean catch

Answer 21

a. Suprapubic

Question 22

Which statement is not true about cellular morphology in urine specimens?
Select one:
a. It is enhanced by the high osmolality of the first morning specimen.
b. It can be evaluated in a random urine collection.
c. It degenerates as pH decreases.
d. All of the above.

Answer 22

c. It degenerates as pH decreases

Question 23

External quality assessment (QA) is a means to measure the:
Select one:
a. accuracy of a method.
b. precision of a procedure.
c. performance relative to other laboratories.
d. analytical error during a procedure.

Answer 23

c. performance relative to other laboratories.

Question 24

As the only technologist on the third shift, you receive a routine urine specimen that was collected at 0300 hours. It is now 0400 hours. You have been called to the emergency department for STAT blood draws on two trauma patients. You decide to:
Select one:
a. call the floor and have the staff collect another specimen around 7 AM for the day shift.
b. put the specimen in the refrigerator for later testing.
c. leave the specimen in the drop basket so you do not forget to do it later.
d. perform the UA before going to the ED, because the specimen’s viability expires in 1 hour.

Answer 24

b. put the specimen in the refrigerator for later testing.

Question 25

Chemical labels must include which of the following elements?1. Product identifier (name)2. Signal word (danger/warning)3. Hazard statement4. Precautionary statements/pictograms5. Supplier identification6. Global harmonization system ID code Select one: a. 1, 2, and 4 b. 1, 3, 5, and 6 c. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 6 d. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

Answer 25

d. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

Question 26

Aerosol risks in the laboratory setting include all of the following except: Select one: a. centrifuging capped tubes. b. pouring body fluid into a container. c. removing tight-fitting caps from a tube. d. spilling a specimen during testing.

Answer 26

a. centrifuging capped tubes.

Question 27

The single most useful means of identifying a fluid as urine is to test: Select one: a. pH. b. specific gravity. c. creatinine. d. sodium and chloride.

Answer 27

c. creatinine.

Question 28

You arrive in the UA department at 7 AM and find five routine urine samples in the refrigerator awaiting analysis. You pull the specimens out, check the dates and times, and let them warm to room temperature before analysis. You groan because you know that if a microscopic is required, the view may be obscured by: Select one: a. amorphous crystals. b. bacteria. c. epithelial cells. d. degenerated cells.

Answer 28

a. amorphous crystals.

Question 29

Upon running QC, the technologist notes abnormal results on all QC levels. Which component(s) of QA will the technologist assess to determine the cause? 1. Preanalytical 2. Analytical 3. Postanalytical Select one: a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 29

a. 1 and 2

Question 30

The patient brings in a 24-hour urine collection at 8 AM and states that upon collection of the first morning specimen today, he wasn't quite awake, forgot, and voided a small portion into the toilet but quickly stopped and then properly collected the remainder into the container. You should: Select one: a. ask the patient to estimate the amount voided into the toilet and note it on the container. b. process the specimen as usual, because the small amount lost will not significantly alter the test results. c. give the patient another container and instruct him to recollect a new 24-hour specimen. d. ask the patient to provide another specimen to be added to the container to make up for the lost volume

Answer 30

c. give the patient another container and instruct him to recollect a new 24-hour specimen.

Question 31

Cost-effective practices in the laboratory include which of the following? Select one: a. Test utilization b. Turnaround time c. Competency testing d. External QA

Answer 31

a. Test utilization

Question 32

Which factor will not affect urinalysis results? Select one: a. Time of collection b. Preservation method c. Collection method d. None of the above

Answer 32

d. none of the above

Question 33

The term critical value refers to a(n): 1. abnormal quality control result. 2. test result that indicates illness.3. life-threatening test result. 4. incorrect competency test result. 5. result exceeding lower or upper critical limit. Select one: a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 4 c. 3 and 5 d. 1, 4, and 5

Answer 33

c. 3 and 5

Question 34

Transmission-Based Precautions apply to: 1. all patients admitted to the hospital. 2. patients colonized with infectious agents. 3. patients who are immunocompromised. 4. patients with second- and third-degree burns. 5. patients where use of Standard Precautions alone are insufficient. Select one: a. 1, 3, and 5 b. 2 and 5 c. 2, 3, and 4 d. 2, 3, 4, and 5

Answer 34

b. 2 and 5

Question 35

Intralaboratory assessment is useful in monitoring analytical components of QA by: Select one: a. determining the accuracy and precision of technologists' performance. b. verifying turnaround times for procedures. c. measuring the productivity of laboratory shifts. d. comparing the laboratory's performance with other laboratories.

Answer 35

a. determining the accuracy and precision of technologists' performance.

Question 36

The patient comes in with an order for a creatinine clearance test. The technologist will instruct the patient to collect which specimen type? Select one: a. Random b. Timed c. First morning d. Clean catch midstream

Answer 36

b. timed

Question 37

Which of the following urine sample volumes and tests is correctly matched? Select one: a. 1 mL; quantitative hormone analysis b. 4 mL; routine urinalysis c. 10 to 15 mL; automated urinalysis system d. 25 mL aliquot from 24-hour urine; creatinine

Answer 37

a. 1 mL; quantitative hormone analysis

Question 38

A random clean catch urine specimen for cytology studies requires: Select one: a. drinking 24 to 32 ounces of water each hour 2 hours before urine collection. b. fasting for 12 hours before urine collection. c. urine collection on 3 different days 1 week apart. d. refraining from any exercise activity 5 days before each collection.

Answer 38

a. drinking 24 to 32 ounces of water each hour 2 hours before urine collection.

Question 39

Which of the following is exempt from decontamination by autoclaving or incineration before disposal? Select one:

Answer 39

c. urine

Question 40

Standard Precautions are infection control practices designed to prevent all of the following except: Select one: a. Needles b. Blood c. Urine d. Other body fluids

Answer 40

c. disease transmission only for patients put in contact precautions.

Question 41

The technologist receives an unlabeled urine specimen in the laboratory; the technologist should promptly: Select one: a. patient-to-patient disease transmission. b. health care worker-to-patient disease transmission. c. disease transmission only for patients put in contact precautions. d. bloodborne pathogen disease transmission.

Answer 41

b. request that the specimen be recollected.

Question 42

While running a second load of urine samples on the automated urinalysis instrument, a seasoned technologist notes that all the patient samples are showing positive nitrates but no indication of bacteria upon microscopic examination. This is an example of which of the following? 1. Postanalytical error; further examination of the urine sediments is required 2. Analytical error; troubleshooting of the instrument is required 3. Analytical error; a new bottle of dipsticks is required 4. Competency error; the technologist must rerun the patient samples Select one: a. 1 b. 1 and 4 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 42

c. 2 and 3

Question 43

Which urine collection method can be used to determine whether kidney disease affects one or both kidneys? Select one: a. Suprapubic b. Midstream clean catch c. Timed, diurnal variation d. Catheterized ureters

Answer 43

d. Catheterized ureters

Question 44

In addition to a Chemical Hygiene Plan, the laboratory must provide employees access to _____ under the employee "right to know." Select one: a. SDSs b. NFPA c. OSHA d. BSI

Answer 44

a. SDSs

Question 45

Which of the following does not result in changes in the physical examination of urine? Select one: a. Ketones b. Increased bacterial growth c. Solute precipitation d. Alteration of urine solutes

Answer 45

a. ketones

Question 46

Which personnel are exempt from adherence to Standard Precautions? 1. Health care volunteers 2. Food service employees 3. Health care staff4. Custodial staff Select one: a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 4 c. 1, 2, and 4 d. None of the above

Answer 46

d. none of the above

Question 47

A urine specimen is received in the laboratory with the patient's name, the date, and the time of collection on the lid of the container. You should: Select one: a. mark the specimen as received in the computer system. b. make a label and attach it to the container. c. reject the specimen as unlabeled. d. call the nurse to come down and properly label the specimen.

Answer 47

c. reject the specimen as unlabeled.

Question 48

False-negative or decreased chemical analysis test results due to changes in unpreserved urine include which of the following? Select one: a. RBCs b. Nitrites c. Glucose d. Casts

Answer 48

c. glucose

Question 49

Timed urine collections are useful in measuring the excretion of urine substances affected by diurnal variation, which include all of the following except: Select one: a. albumin. b. hormones. c. glomerular filtration rate. d. renal cells.

Answer 49

d. renal cells

Question 50

The ability to resolve discrepant test results in the laboratory is an example of: Select one: a. in-house quality assessment. b. documentation of errors. c. technical competence. d. QA monitoring.

Answer 50

c. technical competence

Question 51

Acidic urine specimens provide a stable environment for which of the following urine constituents? Select one: a. Cellular elements b. Chemical substances c. Glucose d. Nitrites

Answer 51

a. Cellular elements

Question 52

The day shift medical laboratory scientist pulls the UA reagent box out of the drawer and begins performing QC using the following reagents from the box: dipsticks, Clinitest, phenylalanine, Ictotest, and water in the dropper bottle. The technologist is in violation of which QA component? Select one: a. Preanalytical b. Analytical c. Postanalytical d. Documentation

Answer 52

b. analytical

Question 53

The means of preservation used to preserve urine sediment elements is: Select one: a. thymol. b. refrigeration. c. hydrochloric acid. d. formalin.

Answer 53

a. thymol

Question 54

Which of the following is not considered potentially infectious and capable of disease transmission and is exempted from Universal Precautions protocols? Select one: a. Blood b. Body fluids c. Secretions d. Sweat

Answer 54

d. Sweat

Question 55

The technologist transferred a stock chemical into a secondary container and labeled it with the required: Select one: a. NFPA hazard identification symbols. b. 2012 OSHA standard's 5 labeling elements. c. HCS hazard category number. d. chemical name, date opened, and expiration date.

Answer 55

b. 2012 OSHA standard's 5 labeling elements.

Question 56

It is important to keep the lids on urine specimens before testing so that volatilization does not occur for which urine constituent? Select one: a. Nitrate b. Urobilinogen c. Bilirubin d. Ketones

Answer 56

d. ketones

Question 57

A hospital courier picks up various laboratory specimens from local physicians' offices including urine specimens and transports them to the laboratory at the end of the day. Since urine specimens collected throughout the day for routine analysis will be delayed in testing, refrigeration of the specimen is required. The recommended collection container for patient urine is: Select one: a. disposable glass container with leakproof seal. b. sterile plastic container with screw-top lid. c. translucent plastic container with leakproof lid. d. 12 mL aliquot in plastic top with screw-top lid.

Answer 57

b. sterile plastic container with screw-top lid.

Question 58

Timed urine collections can be categorized into all of the following types except: Select one: a. predetermined length of time. b. specific time of day. c. predetermined length plus specific time of day. d. All are correct.

Answer 58

d. all are correct

Question 59

The proximal and distal convoluted tubules are connected by the: Select one: a. lumen of the capillary tuft. b. loop of Henle. c. glomerulus. d. Bowman's space.

Answer 59

b. loop of Henle.

Question 60

A positive glucose test result on a urinalysis indicates: Select one: a. tubular flow rate exceeded. b. maximal tubular reabsorptive capacity exceeded. c. tubular secretory capacity exceeded. d. reduced time solute in contact with renal epithelium.

Answer 60

b. maximal tubular reabsorptive capacity exceeded.

Question 61

Hypertonicity or hypotonicity of urine is controlled by: Select one: a. ADH. b. renin. c. osmotic pressure. d. countercurrent multiplier mechanism.

Answer 61

a. ADH

Question 62

Water reabsorption in the collecting tubules is controlled by: Select one: a. renin. b. aldosterone. c. ADH. d. angiotensin.

Answer 62

c. ADH

Question 63

Glucose is actively transported back into the peritubular capillary blood in the: Select one: a. proximal tubule. b. loop of Henle. c. distal tubule. d. medullary collecting tubule.

Answer 63

a. proximal tubule.

Question 64

Secretion of aldosterone stimulates the kidneys to retain: Select one: a. potassium and sodium. b. water and potassium. c. sodium and water. d. sodium, potassium, and water.

Answer 64

c. sodium and water

Question 65

Urine formation occurs as the plasma ultrafiltrate passes through the renal structures in the following order: Select one: a. Nephron, calyces, renal pelvis, ureters, bladder b. Nephron, Bowman's capsule, renal pelvis, calyces, ureters, bladder c. Glomerulus, nephron, loop of Henle, renal pelvis, calyces, bladder d. Bowman's capsule, renal calyces, renal pelvis, ureters, bladder

Answer 65

a. Nephron, calyces, renal pelvis, ureters, bladder

Question 66

Normal urine output averages how many milliliters per 24 hours? Select one: a. 500 b. 1200 c. 2500 d. 3000

Answer 66

b. 1200

Question 67

The primary producer of renin is a small endocrine organ located in the: Select one: a. podocytes. b. basement membrane. c. juxtaglomerular apparatus. d. juxtamedullary nephrons.

Answer 67

c. juxtaglomerular apparatus.

Question 68

Principle solutes in the end product of the urine filtrate include all of the following except: Select one: a. water. b. sodium. c. chloride. d. urea.

Answer 68

a. water

Question 69

The kidneys play a role in which of the following processes: 1. acid-base equilibrium. 2. blood pressure. 3. metabolic waste removal. 4. water and electrolyte regulation. Select one: a. 1 and 3 b. 1, 3, and 4 c. 3 and 4 d. 1, 2, 3, and 4.

Answer 69

d. 1, 2, 3, and 4.

Question 70

The functional unit of the kidney is the: Select one: a. renal calyces. b. Bowman's capsule. c. glomerulus. d. nephrons.

Answer 70

d. nephrons.

Question 71

All of the following statements regarding ADH are correct except: Select one: a. as blood pressure increases, release of ADH increases. b. ADH increases as blood pressure decreases. c. hypertonic urine is produced with low levels of ADH. d. ADH secretion does not alter sodium or chloride reabsorption.

Answer 71

a. as blood pressure increases, release of ADH increases.

Question 72

The function of the basement membrane in the glomerulus is to: Select one: a. provide structural integrity to the glomerulus. b. limit passage of filtrate substances by size. c. anchor the glomerulus to Bowman's capsule. d. form a sheath around the glomerulus.

Answer 72

b. limit passage of filtrate substances by size.

Question 73

Which of the following exhibit tubular reabsorptive capacity? Select one: a. Proteins b. Uric acid c. Glucose d. Phosphates/sulfates

Answer 73

d. Phosphates/sulfates

Question 74

The presence of which of the following constituents in the urine filtrate is evidence of the loss of shield of negativity or alteration of the filtration barrier? Select one: a. Urea and creatinine b. Sodium and albumin c. Protein and RBCs d. Casts and WBCs

Answer 74

c. Protein and RBCs

Question 75

The renal artery branches off into the afferent arteriole, which: Select one: a. surrounds the proximal convoluted tubule. b. becomes the capillary tuft within the glomerulus. c. rejoins the anastomosing capillary network in the glomerulus. d. reabsorbs substances from the ultrafiltrate.

Answer 75

b. becomes the capillary tuft within the glomerulus.

Question 76

The exclusive site of plasma filtration is the: Select one: a. medulla. b. major calyces. c. cortex. d. renal pelvis

Answer 76

c. cortex

Question 77

Peritubular capillaries function in the process of reabsorption and secretion of substances in conjunction with the: Select one: a. glomerulus. b. renal tubules. c. collecting duct. d. renal pyramids.

Answer 77

b. renal tubules.

Question 78

The countercurrent multiplier mechanism multiplies the osmotic gradient as a result of which of the following? Select one: a. Active reabsorption of sodium and chloride and passive reabsorption of water b. Passive secretion of sodium and potassium and passive reabsorption of water c. Active secretion of sodium and water and passive reabsorption of chloride d. Passive reabsorption of potassium and chloride and active reabsorption of sodium

Answer 78

a. Active reabsorption of sodium and chloride and passive reabsorption of water

Question 79

The three secretory mechanisms that maintain blood pH and involve the secretion of H- include all of the following except: Select one: a. exchange of sodium and bicarbonate in acidic conditions. b. formation of titratable acids (i.e., monosodium phosphates). c. secretion of NH3- yielding ammonium salts. d. phosphate reabsorption.

Answer 79

d. phosphate reabsorption.

Question 80

The percentage of cardiac output that flows through the kidneys per minute is: Select one: a. 5%. b. 15%. c. 25%. d. 30%.

Answer 80

c. 25%

Question 81

Which of the following are metabolically active cells with phagocytic abilities that prevent occlusion of the filtration barrier by macromolecules? Select one: a. Mesangium cells b. Visceral epithelial cells c. Podocytes d. Podocytes and mesangium cells

Answer 81

d. Podocytes and mesangium cells

Question 82

As blood flows through the glomerulus, the plasma ultrafiltrate collects in Bowman's space as a result of: Select one: a. osmotic pressure. b. hyperosmotic pressure. c. hydrostatic pressure. d. renal artery pressure.

Answer 82

c. hydrostatic pressure.

Question 83

Renin is released in response to all of the following except: Select one: a. increased sodium. b. increased potassium. c. vascular hemorrhage. d. decreased arterial pressure.

Answer 83

a. increased sodium

Question 84

The net filtration pressure of 10 mm Hg is the result of which three pressures working in concert for the formation of a plasma ultrafiltrate in Bowman's space? Select one: a. Oncotic, hydrostatic, afferent arteriole b. Renal artery, hydrostatic, osmotic c. Hyperosmotic, oncotic, hydrostatic d. Renal artery, afferent arteriole, glomerular

Answer 84

a. Oncotic, hydrostatic, afferent arteriole

Question 85

Hydrogen ions are secreted in which of the following locations?1. Proximal tubule2. Loop of Henle3. Distal tubule4. Collecting tubule Select one: a. 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 1, 3, and 4 d. 2, 3, and 4

Answer 85

c. 1, 3, and 4

Question 86

Which of the following provide(s) the proximal tubular cells with maximal surface area for reabsorption activities? Select one: a. Interdigitating cells b. Microvilli c. Macula densa d. Trilayer membrane

Answer 86

b. Microvilli

Question 87

Water reabsorption occurs in all of the following areas of the nephron except: Select one: a. collecting duct. b. proximal tubule. c. distal tubule. d. ascending limbs of loops of Henle.

Answer 87

d. ascending limbs of loops of Henle.

Question 88

All of the following are noted as the filtrate moves through the proximal tubule except: Select one: a. secretion of urea b. two-thirds of volume reduction c. reabsorption of salts, glucose, and proteins d. unchanged osmolality

Answer 88

a. secretion of urea

Question 89

All of the following are principal roles of the secretory process except: Select one: a. removal of metabolic waste. b. elimination of substances bound to plasma proteins. c. adjustment of acid-base equilibrium. d. maintenance of fluid volume.

Answer 89

d. maintenance of fluid volume.

Question 90

Which of the following ultrafiltrate substances is passively reabsorbed into the peritubular capillary blood? Select one: a. Na+ b. Amino acids c. K+ d. Uric acid

Answer 90

c. K+

Question 91

Plasma proteins (e.g., albumin) are not normally found in the urine filtrate because of which of the following? Select one: a. Shield of negativity b. Size c. Neutral charge d. Viscosity

Answer 91

a. Shield of negativity

Question 92

Large numbers of mitochondria and enzymatic activity in the proximal convoluted tubule and the loop of Henle are necessary for: Select one: a. reabsorption. b. cellular integrity. c. active transport. d. filtrate flow.

Answer 92

c. active transport.

Question 93

In the countercurrent multiplier mechanism, the flow of the ultrafiltrate is in opposite directions between the: Select one: a. peritubular capillaries and the proximal tubule. b. medullary interstitium and the papilla. c. ascending and descending loops of Henle. d. glomerulus and Bowman's capsule.

Answer 93

c. ascending and descending loops of Henle.

Question 94

Which of the following contribute(s) to the reabsorption of water by the renal tubules? 1. Osmolality gradient 2. High solute concentration 3. Hypertonicity of the renal medulla Select one: a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 94

a. 1 and 2

Question 95

Reflectance photometry interprets the color formed on each pad by measuring the A. absorption of visible light waves emitted from the pad. B. transmission of visible light waves emitted from the pad. C. light intensity that scatters from a surface D. fluorescence of the pigment on each pad.

Answer 95

light intensity that scatters from a surface

Question 96

the color compensation pad on the regent strip assesses urine color and used it for interpretation of the colors that develop on each test pad by A. dividing the color reaction on each test pad by the urine color intensity reading. B. lowering or increasing the amount of light used to read the test pads. C. subtracting the contribution of urine color from the color change on each test pad. D. multiplying each color change by a predetermined correction factor for each instrument.

Answer 96

subtracting the contribution of urine color from the color changes on each test pad

Question 97

all of the following require a manual microscopic review when flagged by flow cytometry analyzer except

Answer 97

squamous epithelial cells

Question 98

1. Compound brightfield microscopy consists of two A. planes of imagery B. light sources C. lens systems D. fields of view

Answer 98

C. lens systems

Question 99

2. As total magnification increases, field of view: A. Increases B. Decreases C. Remains the same D. Changes exponentially

Answer 99

B. Decreases

Question 100

3. A substance that refracts light in two directions is said to be: A. Refractive B. Parfocal C. Polarizing D. Birefringent

Answer 100

D. Birefringent

Question 101

4. Color fringes surrounding objects under microscopic review are referred to as a _____________ and can be corrected by using a ____________ objective. A. chromatic aberration, plan B. spherical aberration, Ph C. darkfield aberration, fluorescent D. polarizing aberration, phase-contrast

Answer 101

A. chromatic aberration, plan

Question 102

5. The microscopic component that gathers and focuses the illumination light onto the specimen being viewed is the: A. field diaphragm B. condenser C. objective D. illumination system

Answer 102

B. condenser

Question 103

6. A specimen is collected directly onto a glass slide from a suspected syphilis lesion and will be examined for spirochetes underwhich type of microscope? A. Phase-contrast B. Polarizing C. Darkfield D. Fluorescence

Answer 103

C. Darkfield

Question 104

7. Secondary image magnification in microscopy occurs in which of the following? A. Eyepiece B. Condenser C. Aperture diaphragm D. Resolution

Answer 104

A. Eyepiece

Question 105

8. The field of view is determined by which of the following? A. Objective B. Eyepiece C. Field diaphragm D. Condenser

Answer 105

B. Eyepiece

Question 106

9. The technician has been given the assignment to select two new microscopes to add to five microscopes currently in use. Which of the following is most important in ensuring standardized reporting of results? A. Field number B. Parcentric C. Parfocal D. Resolving power

Answer 106

A. Field number

Question 107

10. The best resolution in microscopy is achieved when the: A. Field of view increases B. Numeric aperture increases C. Condenser NA is greater than the objective NA D. Distance between two points increases

Answer 107

B. Numeric aperture increases

Question 108

11. The technician asked her co-worker to look at a slide she was viewing under the microscope. When the co-worker looked at the slide, his vision seemed fuzzy, so he immediately adjusted the: A. Coarse adjuster B. Fine adjuster C. Diopter adjustment D. Light intensity

Answer 108

C. Diopter adjustment

Question 109

12. When deciding whether to wear glasses while performing microscopy procedures, the examiner must determine whether the glasses have: A. Spherical correction B. Toric correction C. Birefringent correction D. Convex correction

Answer 109

B. Toric correction

Question 110

13. Maximum resolution, contrast, and definition of the specimen are achieved by properly using which of the following during microscopy? A. Condenser B. 100× objective C. Aperture diaphragm D. Fine adjuster

Answer 110

C. Aperture diaphragm

Question 111

14. It is important to minimize stray light by properly adjusting the: A. Oculars B. Working distance C. Condenser D. Field diaphragm

Answer 111

D. Field diaphragm

Question 112

15. To achieve maximal viewing when moving from low power 10× to high power 40×, the examiner should: A. Increase illumination B. Decrease illumination C. Maintain same illumination

Answer 112

A. Increase illumination

Question 113

16. While scanning a slide at 40×, the technician sees an abnormal cell. The technician flips the objective off the slide, adds a drop of oil, andmoves the 100× objective into place. The cell is no longer in the field, because the objective is not________________. A. dioptic B. bifocal

Answer 113

B. bifocal

Question 114

17. Eyepieces and objectives function together to determine: A. Field of view and resolution B. Field number and working distance C. Field of view and total magnification D. Field number and field of view

Answer 114

C. Field of view and total magnification

Question 115

Which of the following objectives has the highest resolution and requires use of a coverslip? A. HR 20×/0.60 ¥/0.17 B. E Plan 100×/1.40 160/0.17 C. S40/0.60 ¥/0.17 D. Plan Fluor 40×/- ¥/0.11-0.23 E. Plan Apo 100×/0.95 160/-

Answer 115

B. E Plan 100×/1.40 160/0.17

Question 116

19. Stationary black specks in the FOV indicate which of the following? A. Mascara on the oculars B. Damaged lens C. Dirty objective D. Dusty coverslip

Answer 116

C. Dirty objective

Question 117

20. Optimal adjustment of the condenser and aperture diaphragm when using Kohler illumination is important in which type of microscope? A. Phase-contrast B. Brightfield C. Fluorescent D. Polarizing

Answer 117

B. Brightfield

Question 118

21. Phase-contrast microscopy presents light to the specimen: A. From the central light annulus of the annular diaphragm of the condenser B. As vibrational light in one direction or plane C. By converting differences in the optical path through the specimen D. To create an bright image against a dark background

Answer 118

A. From the central light annulus of the annular diaphragm of the condenser

Question 119

22. Polarizing microscopy is useful in identifying ____________________. A. bipolar stained organisms B. birefringent substances C. specimens containing living organisms D. unstained specimens

Answer 119

B. birefringent substances

Question 120

23. Which type of microscope is used to visualize three-dimensional images? A. Phase contrast B. Modulation contrast C. Differential interferenc e contrast D. A and B E. B and C

Answer 120

E. B and C

Question 121

24. Which type of microscopy uses an excitation filter and a barrier filter? A. Phase contrast B. Differential interference contrast C. Darkfield D. Fluorescence

Answer 121

D. Fluorescence

Question 122

25. Proper cleaning of a microscope requires all of the following except: A. Lens paper B. Lint-free tissues C. Air syringe D. Brush

Answer 122

B. Lint-free tissues